D) The X-Ray film is developed to make the pattern of bands viable
B) reduced- sentence
D) mental health facility
B) A right to you and appeal
B) cyber-terrism
Answer:
Question 1. C) Excess DNA is saved for other testing.
Question 2. B) Reduced Sentence
Question 3. B) Prison
Question 4. B) A right to you and appeal
Question 5. B) cyber Terrorism
Explanation:
In Question 1. the DNA is first extracted from the blood sample and then processed through a series of steps with the final step is to develop an X-ray film of DNA bands sequence. the DNA is not saved in this process.
In Question 2. Charge bargaining is the type of Plea Bargaining in which the defendants pleads guilty to a less serious crime so that the serious crime is not charged resulting into reduced sentence.
Question 3. Prison is a total institution as it is an enclosed facility which has its own rules and the inmates are separated from society both socially and physically. Hence, the prison has its own rules of conduct and daily life practices followed by inmates.
Question 4. the US supreme court has made certain amendments in the bills of rights which gives the right to have a due process, an attorney as per amendment V, and a right to jury by amendment VII.
Question 5. Cyber Terrorism is evident because the computer shuts down to disengage internet but the power button is on showing that this is not a power shutdown. the computer system shut down because it is entered by some other authority who is now controlling the functions.
Repeated use of marijuana affects the parts of the brain that control memory, attention, and learning.
True
False
Yes repeated use of Marijauna can affect the parts of the brain that control memory, attention, and learning (Hippocampus and Prefrontal Cortex). In general, any drug that passes the Blood Brain Barrier and alters the way the Brain typically functions can lead to unwanted changes in the Brain. So True.
Answer ALL of the following questions. Please be sure to answer the questions completely by writing at least one paragraph response for each.
Describe at least 5 important traits that healthy family relationships strive to develop.
Describe the three basic skills required for effective communication.
Paul is a people pleaser. He is always passive in his responses to peer pressure, whether it is good or bad, because he wants to make others happy. He feels like keeping the peace is more important than how he feels. He is afraid that if he does stand up for what he believes, he will be considered selfish. What would you say to convince Paul to become more assertive?
Healthy family relationships strive to develop effective communication, mutual respect, trust, quality time, and conflict resolution. The three basic communication skills are active listening, nonverbal communication, and assertiveness. To convince Paul to become more assertive, it is important to emphasize the importance of prioritizing his own happiness and well-being while still considering the needs of others.
Explanation:Healthy Traits in Family Relationships:Effective communication: Healthy family relationships strive to develop open and honest communication, where all family members feel heard and valued.Mutual respect: Respect is a crucial trait in healthy family relationships. All family members should treat each other with kindness, empathy, and understanding.Trust: Trust forms the foundation of healthy family relationships. Family members should feel safe and secure knowing that they can rely on each other.Quality time: Spending quality time together helps foster strong family bonds. Engaging in activities, dinners, or conversations together creates shared experiences and strengthens connections.Conflict resolution: Healthy family relationships develop skills to handle conflicts in a constructive manner. This involves listening, compromising, and finding solutions that work for everyone involved.Three Basic Skills for Effective Communication:Active listening: This skill involves fully focusing on the speaker, demonstrating understanding, and providing feedback to ensure clear communication.Nonverbal communication: Nonverbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice play a significant role in effective communication.Assertiveness: Being assertive means expressing thoughts, feelings, and needs in a respectful and direct manner, while also considering the needs of others.Convincing Paul to Become More Assertive:Paul, while it's important to value others' happiness, it's equally important to prioritize your own well-being and happiness. Becoming more assertive can help you express your thoughts and feelings, set boundaries, and stand up for what you believe in. Remember, assertiveness does not mean being selfish, it means finding balance and advocating for yourself while considering the needs of others.
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A laboring woman received a narcotic medication for pain relief 1 hour before delivery.The baby does not have spontaneous respirations and does not improve with stimulation.Your first priority is to
Final answer:
The first priority is to assess and initiate resuscitation measures for the baby. Steps to be taken include clearing the airway, providing positive pressure ventilation, administering oxygen, monitoring vital signs, and considering CPR if necessary.
Explanation:
The priority in this situation is to assess and initiate resuscitation measures for the baby. Based on the description provided, the baby is not breathing spontaneously and is not responding to stimulation. This is an indication of respiratory distress or failure.
The steps to be taken include:
Clear the airway by gently suctioning the baby's mouth and nose to remove any mucus or obstructions.Provide positive pressure ventilation (PPV) using a bag-mask device or an endotracheal tube to deliver breaths to the baby's lungs.If PPV is not effective, consider intubation and endotracheal suctioning.Administer oxygen if available.Continuously monitor the baby's heart rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory effort.If necessary, initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) according to guidelines.It's important to involve a pediatrician or neonatal resuscitation team as soon as possible for further evaluation and management.
During winter break you came down with a horrible cold. Then, during spring break, you came down with another horrible cold! In fact, you have probably had the common cold dozens of times in your life. If having a disease is one way to gain immunity, why have you not become immune to the common cold?
a. There are at least 200 different viruses that can cause the common cold, and they change over time.
b. Actually, you have developed immunity to the common cold and get sick only from bacterial infections.
c. Only non-specific immunity helps you fight the common cold, and specific immunity is not an effective defense against viruses.
d. The pathogen that causes the common cold attacks and kills memory cells, continually "erasing" the immune system's memory of it.
e. The rhinovirus that causes the common cold has no surface antigens and so can move through the body without being detected.
the answer would be A
The common cold is caused by over 200 different viruses, and each time you contract a cold, your immune system develops immunity to that specific strain. However, if you encounter a different strain in the future, your body will have to mount a new immune response. This is why it is possible to keep getting colds.
Explanation:The common cold is a viral infection primarily in the nose and throat, though it can impact any part of the respiratory tract. The reason why we do not become immune to the common cold even after getting sick multiple times is because there are at least 200 different viruses that can cause the common cold. This is commonly called viral diversity. Also, these viruses mutate, or change, over time resulting in our immune system needing to constantly adapt its defense mechanisms.
In reality, you do develop a specific immunity each time you contract a common cold, but that immunity only guards against the specific strain of virus you were infected with. This means that if you encounter a different strain in the future, your body will have to mount a new immune response. This is why it is possible to keep contracting the common cold.
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Which of these glands produce a hormone that is believed to affect the sleep cycle? Pineal body Thymus Ovaries Testes
What is the adavantage is there to using the three layer version of the statement receipt record in regard to insurance claims
"Electronic documentation tools offer many features that are designed to increase both the quality and the utility of clinical documentation, enhancing communication between all healthcare providers. These features address traditional well-known requirements for documentation principles while supporting expansive new technologies. Use of these features without appropriate management and guidelines, however, may create information integrity concerns such as invalid auto-population of data fields and manufactured documentation aimed to enhance expected reimbursement. Processes must be in place to ensure the documentation for the health information used in care, research, and health management is valid, accurate, complete, trustworthy, and timely."
Final answer:
The three-layer version of the statement receipt record provides enhanced accuracy and clarity, better data security, and essential audit controls and tracking for insurance claims.
Explanation:
The three-layer version of the statement receipt record, often used in the processing of insurance claims, provides several advantages. One significant advantage is the enhanced accuracy and clarity that comes from separating information into distinct sections, leading to fewer errors and misunderstandings. Another is the improved data security, as sensitive information can be better controlled and safeguarded. The third layer often includes essential audit controls and tracking information for compliance purposes, making it easier to verify the accuracy and authenticity of the claim. By using a multi-layered approach, insurance companies can streamline their processing, reduce the likelihood of fraudulent claims, and ensure adherence to regulatory requirements.
what is the main goal of recommended dietary allowances (RDAs)?
The RDAs are guidelines that provide nutrient intake targets to meet the dietary needs of 97.5% of the population, based on the EAR, to maintain health and prevent deficiencies.
Explanation:The main goal of Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) is to provide guidelines for the intake of nutrients essential for maintaining health, preventing chronic diseases, and avoiding nutrient deficiencies. RDAs represent daily dietary targets that aim to meet the needs of nearly all (97.5%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. The RDAs are derived from the Estimated Average Requirements (EAR), which are the average daily nutrient intake levels estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the healthy individuals in a group.
RDAs are part of the broader Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs), which provide comprehensive quantitative advice to health professionals about nutrient needs. Together with guidelines like the 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, RDAs contribute to a holistic approach to nutrition that emphasizes the importance of a balanced diet with adequate intakes of various food groups, including a variety of vegetables, whole fruits, grains (with an emphasis on whole grains), protein foods, low-fat dairy, and oils, while limiting saturated fats, added sugars, and sodium.
The main goal of RDAs is to establish nutrient intake guidelines sufficient to meet the nutritional needs of nearly all individuals in a specific group, prevent deficiencies and contribute to overall health.
Explanation:The main goal of Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) is to provide a set of nutrient intake values that are estimated to meet the nutritional needs of nearly all (97.5%) healthy individuals in a specific age and gender group. The RDAs serve as a guideline for sufficient nutrient intake to prevent deficiency diseases and promote overall health by ensuring nutrient safety margins.
To calculate the RDA, the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) must be established first, which represents the daily nutrient intake estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the population. Once the EAR is set based on relevant research, an RDA can be calculated from it, providing adequate intake levels to cover the nutritional needs of the majority of the population.
The DRIs, which include RDAs and other measures like Adequate Intake (AI) and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL), provide quantitative advice to professionals about amounts of nutrients necessary for maintaining health and preventing chronic disease. They are differentiated from Dietary Guidelines that offer more qualitative, general advice to the public.
How do you measure the intake or servings of the different food groups of MyPlate
Food Type 1,600 Calories
Grains At least half of your servings should be whole-grain. 6 servings per day
Vegetables Eat a variety of colors and types 3-4 servings per day
Fruits Eat a variety of colors and types 4 servings per day
Fat-free or low-fat dairy Products 2-3 servings per day
Answer:
- Cereals: the portion you should eat should not exceed your clenched fist, as long as they are simple flakes. If we talk about granola (oat flakes mixed with honey and nuts) or other types of cereals with more ingredients, then they will be somewhat smaller.
This same measure, explains Jéssica Hierro, nutritionist of Alimmenta, also applies to pulses and cereals, pasta, rice, lentils, chickpeas, and equivalent to about 80 g.
Tricks to make food last longer
- Salads, vegetables and fruits: When preparing a salad, some nutritionists recommend an approximate measure of a baseball. For those who are not very fanatics of this sport, they should know that it is something bigger than a tennis one. This same amount also works for fruit pieces.
- Meat and fish: a meat steak must be similar to the size of a deck of cards or according to the recommendation of Jéssica Hierro, it should occupy the entire palm of the hand. Equivalent to about 125 g.
If we talk about fish, it should be a loin that does not exceed the size of your smartphone.
- Cheeses: lovers of cured cheese will have to conform to the size of a piece of dominoes (30 g), as indicated by the nutritionist.
- Oil: from Alimmenta they recommend that the volume be equivalent to the fingertip of the thumb (10 g). Not one more drop or one less. Of course, this does not mean that a person can only take 10 g of oil a day, the daily recommendation is two to six servings of oil.
Can a mother breast feed and give formula to her baby at the same time? Just curious bc of the disadvantages and benefits in each
pretty sure its ok that what my mom did with my sister
PLEASE ANSWER QUICK FAST
{ pull up in that quick fast I aint talking pancakes but I'll flip a brick fast }
who knows what that lyric is from
Why are Daily Values only a general guide to the amounts of nutrients you need each day?
Daily Values are based on an average person who consumes a total of 2,000 calories a day.
Daily Values are based on a female teen who consumes a total of 1,500 calories a day.
Daily Values are based on an average number of calories calculated from records of 2,000 people.
Daily Values are based on an adult male who consumes a total of 3,000 calories a day.
Pretty sure it's the first one, because that's around the number of calories recommended every day.
Answer:
Daily Values are based on an average person who consumes a total of 2,000 calories a day.
Explanation:
Daily nutrient intake values are a generalized measure and do not apply to all human beings on the planet. That's because these values are based on an average person who consumes a total of 2,000 calories a day.
The daily values of the amount of nutrients that must be ingested serves as a general guide, however the total calories that must be ingested by each person varies according to several factors, such as age, sex, height, among others. Therefore, the values of food intake is also something that varies from person to person
It is more important to look at the serving size in the serving per container When reading a food label true or false??
Answer:
FALSE
Explanation:
I said true on quiz and got it wrong
The serving size indicates how much food or liquid an individual generally consumes. It does not suggest how much food or liquid you should consume. It's critical to understand that all nutritional information on labels, including the quantity of calories, refers to serving sizes.
What serving size in the serving per container, a food label?You should contrast the portion size specified on the label with the amount of that product you typically consume. Large quantities or servings can result in weight gain.
You consume more calories when you eat greater servings. 7 potato chips, for instance, might be listed as a serving size on the label.
To help us understand what we are eating and how much of each ingredient we are getting, the ingredients are presented in order of least to most significant consumption.
Therefore, When reading a food label, it is more crucial to focus on the serving size than the number of servings per container.
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free asaociation and dream analysis are
A. examples of how real self and ideal self conflict with each other
B. techniques to discover the extent of self-actualization
C. techniques to discover the unconscious
D. techniques to discover the conscious
I believe the answer is C
Are chemicals that are essential to all cellaur activity, helping the body convert carbohydrates and fats into energy
Answer:
vitamins
Explanation:
Which is a possible consequence of becoming sexually active? decreased risk of being sexual assaulted increased risk of acquiring HIV decreased chance of having an unplanned pregnancy decreased incidence of having mental health issues
increased risk of acquiring HIV
Answer:
increased risk of HIV
Explanation:
If you have to drive on a long trip, get plenty of rest before you leave and plan on stopping every _________ hours.
Answer:
You must stop every two hours.
Explanation:
Driving is a very responsible task that requires the driver's full attention. This attention will be impaired if the driver is tired, sleepy, or unwell. For this reason it is necessary that when making long trips the driver plans rest periods so that his attention is not harmed and endangers his life and the lives of others. Ideally, on long trips, the driver will plan the route and set stops so that he can rest every two hours.
If you have to drive on a long trip, get plenty of rest before you leave and plan on stopping every 2 hours.
Should you rest while on a trip?Prioritizing driver safety and lowering the possibility of driver weariness are crucial when setting off on a lengthy journey. For alertness and attention when driving, getting enough sleep before the trip is essential. Planning frequent breaks or stops along the journey is also advised to reduce driving weariness from building up.
A typical rule of thumb frequently advocated to assist prevent driver tiredness is stopping every two hours. This gives you time to relax, stretch, and take a short break from driving nonstop. Drivers can take advantage of these breaks to relax, take a stroll, or have a snack to refresh their bodies and minds.
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How are medical providers most likely to be grouped for searches? Check all that apply.
-coverage
-specialty
-age
-competence
-need
by specialty, is the best answer.
Answer:
Coverage and speciality.Explanation:
The are two components that people search when looking for a medical provider. One of them is the speciality, because they want to make sure that the provider is prepared to cover their health needs, otherwise would be useless. For example, acquiring a medical provider specialized in the brain, and you have cardiovascular problems.
The second component people look for is coverage (the measure of coverage on specific needs), because they want to be sure that the medical provider will cover all the range of their needs, not just a tiny part.
For all these reasons, medical providers should be grouped by coverage and speciality.
Which of the following statements about sun exposure is FALSE? Sunburns during adulthood seem to be the most strongly associated with melanoma. Certain regions of the world have higher risk of skin cancers due to equatorial positioning. The risk of cancer from sun exposure for basal and squamous cell cancer is cumulative. The risk of cancer from sun exposure with melanoma appears to be related to timing and number of sunburns.
Answer:
The first one and last one
Explanation:
The guy above is wrong, I got it wrong
Teenagers appear to be aware that the sun can cause cancer, but they frequently do not take precautions, hence option 1 and 4 is false.
What is Sunburns?Although teens are less likely to wear sunscreen during this time, the majority of lifetime melanoma risk is associated with UV exposure when they are young.
It should be emphasized that exposure to UV radiations is the main cause of skin cancer. This may also be the result of excessive sun exposure, causes a person's DNA to get damaged.
Therefore, teenagers frequently neglect to use sunscreen, despite the fact that they appear to grasp that the sun might cause cancer, hence option 1 and 4 is false.
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Match the following vocabulary words with their definitions.
1.disease-causing agent
2.an animal or insect that is known to transmit a specific disease
3.white blood cells that eliminate the chances of infection
4.non-communicable; cannot be spread through casual contact
pathogen
phagocytes
non-infectious
vector
Pathogen: disease causing agent
Vector: an animal or insect that is known to transmit a specific disease
Phagocytes: white blood that eliminate the chances of infection
Non infectious: non communicable can't be spread through causal contact
Final answer:
Pathogens are disease-causing microorganisms responsible for infectious diseases, which can spread through vectors, while non-infectious diseases cannot be spread through casual contact.
Explanation:
To match the given vocabulary words with their correct definitions:
Pathogen is the term for a disease-causing agent, usually a microorganism, that causes disease in the organisms that they invade.
Vector refers to an animal or insect that is known to transmit a specific disease, carrying pathogens from one host to another.
Phagocytes are a type of white blood cells that eliminate the chances of infection by ingesting and destroying invading pathogens and debris.
Non-infectious describes a condition or disease that is non-communicable; it cannot be spread through casual contact.
In summary, pathogens are responsible for infectious diseases, which can be spread from host to host and sometimes involve vectors. Conversely, non-infectious diseases are not transmitted through contact between individuals.
Which underlined word in the sentence is a demonstrative adjective? This lamp by the sofa needs a new light bulb.
The demonstrative adjectives in English are:
This
That
These
Those
Sue is 17 years old and believes she is over weight.Which would be the best strategy for maintaining her health?
Sue can maintain a physical workout plan. For example run for 30 minutes, then stretch. 60 minutes or more is the health workout for an average person. stretching before and after your workout will keep you from hurting yourself.
persons with autism may have strong abilities such as
Some abilities may include being very good at math, be very artistic, great with music, and be oddly great with mechanics.
Which choice is an example of a congenital disorder?
Cleft palate
Influenza
Diabetes
Arthritis
Cleft palate since it has to do with the palate not devloping properly in babies.
Some common congenital disorders are: Cleft lip and palate – usually diagnosed during routine pregnancy exams. congenital heart defects – including a hole in the heart, a valve problem, or a problem with the blood vessels.
• These are usually diagnosed during routine check-ups during pregnancy or during newborn screening.
What do you mean by congenital disorder?
Congenital abnormalities can be defined as structural or functional abnormalities that appear during intrauterine life.Also known as birth defects, congenital disorders, or congenital malformations, these conditions develop prenatally and may be detected before or at birth, or later in life.Learn more about congenital disorder here.
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Jamila wants to work with animals. She is thinking of career options that include animals, such as pet grooming, veterinarian, vet tech, dog walker, and farmer. Which step of the decision-making process is Jamila engaged in?
From the given situation in the question, it seems that Jamila is at the second step of the decision-making process, which is gathering information.
This step is also known as brainstorming. Jamila has already decided what she wants to do – she wants to work with animals. Now, she needs to decide in what way would she like to work with animals from the available options.
Answer:
the answer is brainstorm all of the possible choices
Explanation:
she is putting all choices together and deciding which one to choose
When a person dies, the "cause of death" is most often identified in terms of a particular organ system that failed (e.g., heart failure), a type of cancer (e.g., lung cancer), or perhaps a detrimental "accident" (e.g., automobile accident).
Guided by this module's background reading on Theories of Behavioral Change, discuss why reporting the "cause of death" in this manner is rather misleading. (Hint: what are the actual causes of death?) How might the fact that the reporting is different than the actual case affect how an individual approaches health behavior and changes?
I don’t know I am just a child
The leading cause of motor vehicle accidents is _____.
Distraction is the leading cause of motor vehicle accidents
Hope this helps☺
its Driver error which is also "distracted driving"
Ramon a 10th grader, is constantly worried about becoming ill. Just the other day, Ramon left school during 5th period in order to go to the doctor for a spot on his arm. He thought it might be cancer. Ramon has been to three different doctors insisting that his spot is fatal. So far every doctor has told Ramon that the spot is not harmful.
Answer:
Hypochondriasis
Explanation:
"condition in which a person is excessively and unduly worried about having a serious illness."
Babies that cannot be passed through the birth canal are delivered by
1.fertilzation
2.caesarean section
3.zygote section
Number 2 Sir
Caesarean section
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, or caesarean delivery, is the use of surgery to deliver babies. A caesarean section is often necessary when a vaginal delivery would put the baby or mother at risk. This may include obstructed labor, twin pregnancy, high blood pressure in the mother, breech birth, or problems with the placenta or umbilical cord. A caesarean delivery may be performed based upon the shape of the mother's pelvis or history of a previous C-section. A trial of vaginal birth after C-section may be possible. The World Health Organization recommends that caesarean section be performed only when medically necessary. C-sections are performed without a medical reason, upon request by someone, usually the mother. - Wikipedia
what habit does not help you reduce the amount of sodium you consume?
A.) Limiting pickled food
B.) Limiting lean hamburger
C.) Limiting canned soups
D.) Limiting luncheon meats
Among the options provided, limiting lean hamburger would not significantly reduce sodium intake as this food is not particularly high in sodium.
Explanation:The habit that does not help reduce the amount of sodium you consume is B.) Limiting lean hamburger. Sodium is not particularly high in lean hamburger meat, therefore, limiting it would not significantly reduce your sodium intake. On the other hand, pickled foods, canned soups, and luncheon meats are known to be high in sodium. Hence, limiting these would help in reducing sodium consumption.
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Why do presenters use presentation aids?
a.
to make the presentation seem less credible
b.
to make the presentation more memorable
c.
to model the concepts of the presentation
d.
to ensure the presentation is entertaining
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A
B
C
D
C to model the concepts of the presentation
Answer:
D:to ensure the presentation is entertaining
Explanation:
What should you do if a person is unconscious and not breathing? Put pressure on their chest hit them on the back perform the Heimlich Maneuver begin CPR
If a person is unconscious and not breathing, you should begin CPR.
The correct answer is D. Maneuver begin CPR
Explanation
The acronym CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation and refers to a medical technique that serves to stimulate the heartbeat and lung breathing when it stops. In it, you should do chest compressions with a constant frequency of one hundred to one hundred and twenty repetitions per minute. It is an emergency technique that can maintain the flow of oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs while having access to a more complete medical treatment that can restore normal heart rhythm. Therefore, the best alternative to help a person who is unconscious and does not breathe is the CPR because it is an emergency technique that is easy to perform and allows the brain and organs to be oxygenated for a while. So, the correct answer is D. Maneuver begin CPR.