4. What is Ralph's attitude about Simon?chapter 10 lord of the flies

Answers

Answer 1

Ralph’s attitude was that he was reflective and forthright about his actions for the previous night of assisting in the murder of Simon

Btw This Book Is Well..... ugh


Related Questions

What change in the frog's environment could have affected their population? A) lots of flies located in and around the bog B) a new species of frog being introduced to the bog C) decreased amounts of precipitation leading to a drought D) an old tree falling over and beginning to decompose in the bog

Answers

Answer:

The answer should  be B

Explanation:

Answer:

It is c.)

Explanation:

Emitting light through a series of chemical reactions by certain living organisms

Answers

Answer:

Are Bioluminescent organisms

Explanation:

Answer: bioluminecence

Explanation:

The binding of a compound to an enzyme is observed to slow down or stop the rate of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. Increasing the substrate concentration reduces the inhibitory effects of this compound. Which of the following could account for this observation?

Answers

Final answer:

Competitive inhibition is when an inhibitor reversibly binds to an enzyme at the enzyme active site, competing with the substrate for binding. This type of inhibition is concentration-dependent and can be overcome at higher substrate concentrations.

Explanation:

Competitive inhibition is when an inhibitor reversibly binds to an enzyme at the enzyme active site; competing with the substrate for binding. A competitive inhibitor must be a molecule that is structurally similar to the substrate molecule, allowing it to interact with the enzyme active site through similar non-covalent interactions, but it does not, or cannot, undergo the same chemical reaction. When the inhibitor is bound to the active site, it blocks the correct substrate from binding and catalysis from occurring. However, as a reversible inhibitor, it can disassociate from the enzyme eventually allowing for the correct substrate to bind and the catalysis to occur. Because the inhibitor and substrate are in competition for the same active site, inhibition is concentration-dependent. As shown in the below plot of rate of reaction vs. substrate concentration (Figure 19.6.1), the competitive inhibitor slows the rate of reaction, but at higher substrate concentrations, the normal maximum rate can be reached.

secondary succession could occur after a _______.

melting glacier has uncover bare and lifeless rock

group of animals has started to move into an area

volcanic eruption has created a new , nonliving island

disturbance has destroyed population in a community ​

Answers

Answer:

disturbance has destroyed population in a community

Explanation:

The secondary succession occurs after there has been some disturbance that has manged to badly damage or destroy the populations in a community. This basically means that after some catastrophic event that happened to a certain population or populations, other species moved in to colonize the freed space. There are countless examples of secondary succession in nature, and one of the best is when there is a strong volcanic eruption. The volcano manages to destroy the population of plants and animals in its close surroundings, but after the eruption ends, the space starts to be colonized by new plants and animals step by step until they create a new well functioning community.

Answer:

disturbance has destroyed population in a community

Explanation:

Henri Becquerel and the Curies worked with uranium, radium, and polonium, all of which give off _____. sunlight radiation elements light

Answers

Answer:

Henri Becquerel and the Curies worked with uranium, radium, and polonium, all of which give off radiation.

Explanation:

Henri Becquerel and Marie Skłodowska-Curie discovered the process of radioactivity. They were awarded Nobel prize for their work. Radioactivity is the process in which an unstable element emits energy in the form of radiation. This process also produce a lot of heat. Radiations are very harmful for human health however they have wide applications in modern technology.  

Blank occur when the partially positive blank attract partially negative atoms nearby examples include the blank

Answers

Answer:

ionic bonds,

NaCl and MgCl₂

double-stranded DNA molecule is being transcribed, only part of which is shown below. If the molecule is translated from left to right, one of the nucleotides shown in bold would be the first transcribed in this small molecule. 5'-ATGATCGGATCGATCCAT-3' 3'-TACTAGCCTAGCTAGGTA-5' Which of the following is the correct mRNA produced from the transcription of this DNA molecule?

a. -3'-UACUAGCCUAGCUAGGUA-5'

b. -5'-UACUAGCCUAGCUAGGUA-3'

c. -3'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-5'

d. -5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3'

Answers

Final answer:

The correct mRNA produced from the transcription of the DNA sequence 5'-ATGATCGGATCGATCCAT-3' should be 5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3', which aligns with option d.

Explanation:

The question relates to the process of transcription where a single stranded RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. To determine which mRNA is produced during this process, we must identify the correct base pairing between the DNA template and the mRNA. In RNA, adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U) and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G).

Given the DNA sequence 5'-ATGATCGGATCGATCCAT-3', the correct mRNA should be the complement of this sequence but with uracil (U) replacing thymine (T). Hence, the correct mRNA sequence should be read in the 5' to 3' direction as 5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3', matching with option d.

The bold nucleotides indicate the start of transcription, and since transcription proceeds in the opposite direction of the annotation (from 3' to 5' on the template), it confirms that the bold A in the 5'-end of the given DNA would be the first to be transcribed into mRNA.

3. Why is active transport necessary for the sodium-potassium pump to work? A. The sodium would never leave a cell while potassium can move against the gradient B. The potassium would never leave a cell while sodium can move against the gradient C. It allows sodium and potassium to move against their concentration gradient D. All channel movement requires active transport to equalize the cell

Answers

Answer:

Active transport necessary for the sodium-potassium pump to work because  It allows sodium and potassium to move against their concentration gradient.

Explanation:

The transport of sodium ions outside the cell and potassium ions inside the cells is called active transport that requires the ATP hydrolysis. ATP provides the energy required for this procedure. This sodium-Potassium pump works to move the ions against their concentration gradient to keep the sodium concentration low inside the cells and potassium concentration high inside the cells.

Answer:

C.   It allows sodium and potassium to move against their concentration gradient.

Explanation:

The transport of sodium ions outside the cell and potassium ions inside the cells is called active transport that requires the ATP hydrolysis. ATP provides the energy required for this procedure. This sodium-Potassium pump works to move the ions against their concentration gradient to keep the sodium concentration low inside the cells and potassium concentration high inside the cells.

Which derived characteristic is shared by at least four organisms? Large brain Lungs Mammary glands Placenta

Answers

The correct answer is probably mammary glands, given that you provided very little context. It is a proven fact that almost every female mammal has mammary glands — and out of the other choices, most organisms do not have lungs, large brains, or placentas.

The combined portions of earth in which all living things exist is called the

Answers

Answer:

The answer is the Biosphere.

Explanation:

A good way to remember this is to recall 'Bio' means 'Life.'

Final answer:

The biosphere refers to the combined portions of Earth where living organisms exist, including land, water, and air that support life. It encompasses different biomes and interacts with other spheres like the lithosphere, atmosphere, and hydrosphere.

Explanation:

The combined portions of Earth in which all living things exist is called the biosphere. The biosphere is the part of Earth where all life exists, encompassing all of the land, water, and air where living things can be found. It is often described as the global ecosystem because it integrates all living beings with their physical environment, forming an interdependent network. The biosphere includes a variety of biomes, which are large ecological areas on the planet's surface, such as forests, grasslands, deserts, and oceans.

It interacts with other 'spheres' including the lithosphere (the rigid outer layer of the earth), the atmosphere (the layer of gases surrounding our planet), and the hydrosphere (all the water on Earth). The biosphere is not just limited to the surface or near-surface environments. It extends from the deepest ocean floors up to the lower levels of the atmosphere where living organisms can still be found. Essentially, the biosphere is the narrow zone on and around Earth where conditions are suitable for life as we know it.

Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.

Answers

Answer:

Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species

Explanation:

The competitive exclusion describes relationship between two species that compete for the limiting sources, and cannot coexist. It is enough for one species to have slightly advantage to be dominant over the other. As a consequence, other species (the weaker one) will be extincted (shift to a different ecological niche).

Final answer:

The statement consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion is: Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.

Explanation:

The statement consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion is: Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.

According to the competitive exclusion principle, when two species compete for the same resources, the one with a slight advantage in reproduction or adaptation will eventually outcompete and eliminate the other species. This is because traits that reduce competition will be selected for, resulting in the more well-adapted species driving the less adapted species to extinction. This process is driven by natural selection.

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Which of the following would be an example of a Polygenic trait
A. Attached ear lobe
B. Widows peak
C. Hair color

Answers

C.) hair color because it is controlled by many alleles

Answer is C. Hair color

Match each fossil with the layer where it’ll be present based on these conditions: Dinosaurs existed before birds. Corals existed between trilobites and amphibians. Trilobites are the oldest fossils. Dinosaurs are younger than amphibians. Birds are the youngest species to be observed in this stratum. Layer A is the top layer.

Answers

a - Birds

b - Dinosaurs

c - amphibians

d - corals

e - trilobites

Answer:

Assuming that layer A is the top and the youngest soil layer and E is the most ancient layer, the fossils that correspond to each layer are: A- Birds; B- Dinosaurs; C- Amphibians; D- Corals; and E- Trilobites.

Explanation:

There are two groups of fossils. In body fossils, the remains of the living organism are preserved by drying, freezing, mineralizing, or petrifying. Trace fossils are footprints of the living organism. Most fossils are formed when living organisms get buried; soft tissues decompose, and hard tissues (like bones, shells or seeds) are replaced with sediments. Fossils get buried and become part of the soil. With time, different layers of soils are generated at the top. The youngest fossils are found in the top (younger) layers of soil and older fossils will be found at the bottom (older) layers of soil.

With respect of the order: because Corals existed between Trilobites and Amphibians, they have to be grouped, and because Trilobites are the oldest fossils, the order (older to younger) is Trilobites, Corals and Amphibians. Then the youngest fossils are Birds, but dinosaurs are younger than birds.

The essential difference between an experiment and an observational study is that a. observational studies always involve large numbers of subjects, but experiments never dob. in an experiment, information is gathered only on animals or things, but in an observational study, only information about people is gatheredc. an experiment imposes treatment on the subjects, but an experiment does not
d. an observational study imposes treatments on the subjects, but an observational study does not

Answers

Answer:

An experiment imposes treatment on the subjects, but an observational study does not

Explanation:

Observational studies are research studies in which an effect, process behaviour etc. are observed, without any change. For example, observation of the  possible effect of a treatment on subjects.

On the other hand, experimental studies are studies in which the treatment is included. Experimental studies are randomized, meaning that subjects that are in experiment are randomly put to a treated group or a control group.

Where does the first stage of respiration take place?

Answers

It takes place in cytoplasm

Calvin ate a candy bar, which caused his body’s blood glucose levels to become unbalanced. His body responded by initiating a feedback mechanism to return his body to homeostasis. Place the steps of this feedback mechanism in order, starting with the blood glucose imbalance that occurred after Calvin consumed the candy bar

Answers

I need help plz awnser my question!

Answer:

The first part here is to understand what homeostasis means. Homeostasis is defined as the natural balance that the human body keeps by controlling the different factors that make a part of it. This homeostasis is internal and it totally depends on the body´s different mechanisms to maintain a controlled internal system. Homeostatic imbalance appears when at least one of the factors falls out of synchronization, affecting one or more of the systems in the body.

Glucose is an absolutely essential molecule for the body and without it there would simply be no energy; thus without glucose there would be no homeostasis either. The body has two means of acquiring glucose for cellular activities: diet and breaking of stored glucose components in the muscles and the liver. When the body has a low level of blood glucose, the body´s mechanisms will turn on in order to restore the balance, as there must always be a minimum, and maximum, amount of free glucose in the bloodstream. When these mechanisms cannot meet the needs, or when forces out of the body´s control come into play, then we speak of an imbalance, or homeostatic disbalance.

Calvin are a candy bar, which is not just packed with glucose, but also with much more complex sugars that will yield an enormous amount of glucose and fructose to the bloodstream. As such, the peaks of glucose free in the bloodstream will be abnormally high and homeostasis becomes unbalanced. In response to the glucose in the blood, the pancreas begins secreting insulin, the molecule responsible for ensuring that cells are able to capture glucose and fructose, and use them for energy production. Insulin does this by binding to receptors on the cells´ surface to encourage glucose uptake. If the amount of molecules of glucose and fructose are too high, then the body will start to cluster these into glycogen molecules which will then be taken by muscle and the liver to store for when Calvin´s bloodstream glucose levels drop below normal. Like this, Calvin has regained his homeostatic balance after eating the candy bar.

True or false? Regulatory and basal transcription factors regulate transcription by binding to the promoter.

Answers

Final answer:

True. Both regulatory and basal transcription factors bind to the promoter to regulate transcription.

Explanation:

True. Both regulatory and basal transcription factors bind to the promoter to regulate transcription. Basal transcription factors are general transcription factors that form a preinitiation complex and recruit RNA polymerase II for transcription initiation. Regulatory transcription factors, on the other hand, are specific transcription factors that bind to a specific sequence on the promoter of a specific gene.

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True. Regulatory and basal transcription factors regulate transcription by binding to the promoter.Transcription is the process by which the information in a gene is transcribed into a complementary RNA molecule. Regulatory and basal transcription factors play essential roles in controlling this process.

Regulatory transcription factors, also known as enhancers or repressors, bind to specific DNA sequences within the promoter or enhancer regions of a gene. These factors can either enhance or inhibit transcription by facilitating or impeding the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.

Basal transcription factors, on the other hand, are a set of proteins that are involved in the formation of the transcription initiation complex. They bind to the promoter region and are necessary for the recruitment and binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA template. This binding of regulatory and basal transcription factors to the promoter region is a crucial step in the regulation of gene expression. It determines whether a gene will be transcribed or not and at what rate, ultimately controlling the production of specific RNA molecules from the corresponding genes.

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What does the term "basic unit of matter" refer to?Select one of the options below as your answer: a. Atoms b. Elements c. Molecules

Answers

Answer:

Atoms

Explanation:

Atom is the most basic unit of matter. Atoms are used to describe pieces of matter, but a different kind of atom makes up an element.  A combination of atom of different elements creates a molecule. Let's say you have some water, the chemical formula is "H20." If you wanted to separate H and O, that gives you two atoms. H would be Hydrogen and the other atom is Oxygen. So when we combine these two atom they formed as the chemical formula H20.

Which cellular component directs the movement of vesicles from the soma to the axon terminal?

Answers

Answer:

The cytoskeleton

Explanation:

I'm learning this.



In horses, the allele for straight hair (H) is dominant, and the allele for curly hair (h) is recessive.

A horse breeder mates a homozygous dominant mother with a heterozygous male.

What is the chance that the offspring will have straight hair?


Answers

Answer:

100% will have straight hair

Explanation:

    H       H

H  HH    HH

h   Hh    Hh

The big H is dominant, so the straight hair will be expressed and the lowercase h will be recessive and not show.

Which factor most likely caused animals and plants in India to differ greatly from species in nearby southeast Asia?

Life in India was wiped out by ancient volcanic eruptions.
India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago.
India is in the process of separating from the rest of Asia.
The climates of the two regions are similar.

Answers

Answer:

India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago

Explanation:

India was part of the Gondwanaland continent which was one of the two remnants of Pangaea, while Asia was part of Laurasia, the other remnant of Pangaea. Because these two land masses were separate, the animals and plants were evolving separately for millions of years. India further separated from Gondwanaland, and it was actually a very large island for millions of years, resulting in isolation and development of unique animals and plants because of it. As India was moving it reached Asia and collided with it, thus becoming one land mass. Some Asian species managed to get in India, but mostly in its northern parts, while the central and southern parts remained dominated by the indigenous species. The Himalayan Mountain Range that formed because of the collision also helped in preserving lot of the indigenous species as it became a natural barrier that most species can not go through.

what is one way water can cycle through a plant

Answers

Answer: transpiration

Explanation: Water is transpired from plants through the trunk, into the leaves and out through the stomata.

Answer:

Transpiration

Explanation: Transpiration can be defined as the process by which the water is moved out of the plants. This adds water in the atmosphere. The water is absorbed from the soil and travels through the xylem to the various parts of the plant.

The excess of water from the plants is moved out of the plants and tiny droplets can be seen on the tip of the leaves that helps in maintaining the amount of water in the plant.

What conditions are necessary for populations to remain in hardy-weinberg equilibrium

Answers

Answer:

Large population

Random mating

No evolutionary mechanisms (mutations, genetic flow,, genetic drift, natural selection)

Explanation:

According to  Hardy-Weinberg model, allele frequence (or genotype frequencies) will remain constant through generations in the absence of disturbing factors, evolutionary mechanisms. Such constant population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (no evolving population). Factor that can disturb equilibrium of the population are nonrandom mating, mutations, gene flow, natural selection, genetic drift.

According to Hardy-Weinberg model:

p2+2pq+q2=1 (p+q=1)

p2 is the frequency of dominant homozygous genotype

2pq is is the frequency of heterozygous genotype

q2 is is the frequency of recessive homozygous genotype

Answer:

There are five conditions that disrupt the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

Natural selection

Mutation

Genetic drift

Migration (gene flow)

Nonrandom mating

Explanation:

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium was explored earlier in this lesson in relation to allele frequency and the number of genotypes and phenotypes. This equilibrium was developed by Godfrey Hardy and Wilhelm Weinberg completely independent of one another. The equilibrium states that if there are no external forces of evolution on a population, then the allele frequency of that population will never change. The individuals within a population would all look the same as each other.

Genetic information is encoded in the A) quaternary structure of a protein. B) sequence of nucleotides in DNA. C) degree of saturation of fatty acids. D) length of glycogen. E) linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

Answers

Sequence of nucleotides in DNA

Genetic information is encoded in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA, with each nucleotide contributing to the genetic code that determines the amino acid sequence of proteins. This sequence is conveyed from DNA to RNA and finally expressed in the polypeptide chains that fold into a protein's unique three-dimensional structure. Hence the correct option is B.

Each nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. In DNA, these nucleotides represent the letters A (adenine), C (cytosine), G (guanine), and T (thymine), forming a genetic alphabet used to create the polymers that carry genetic information. In RNA, thymine is replaced by U (uracil). The order of these nucleotides in the DNA molecule determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein, through the intermediary messenger molecule mRNA. During protein synthesis, the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA is divided into sets of three called codons, with each codon encoding for a specific amino acid. This process of translating genetic information from DNA to RNA, and ultimately to the amino acid sequence of a protein, underlies the building of a cell's proteins and enacts the genetic instructions carried by an organism. The primary structure of a protein is the linear sequence of amino acids, which determines the protein's final three-dimensional shape through a series of folding and bonding patterns known as the secondary and tertiary structures. If multiple polypeptide chains are involved, the resulting quaternary structure forms the functional protein.

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Analyzing Characteristics of Outer Planets: What is the identity of the planets?

Options for all of them: Uranus, Saturn, Neptune Jupiter

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answers

Answer:

A) jupiter

B) neptune

C) saturn

D) uranus

Explanation:

the planet's in the solar system (nearest to the sun to farthest) are mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, saturn, uranus, and neptune

since the only options were j., s., u., and n. i just ordered whichever were the closest and worked from there

(sorry if this is bit 'wafffle'ed)

Answer:

A) jupiter

B) neptune

C) saturn

D) uranus

Explanation:

    The planets are celestial bodies without their own light or heat. In our solar system are known eight planets which according to the proximity of the sun are:

  Mercury: It is the smallest planet in the solar system. It is also the closest to the sun and the fastest. Formed basically of iron, it can be seen from the earth with the naked eye.

  Venus: It is the second closest planet to the sun. In addition to the sun and moon it is the brightest celestial body in the sky.

  Earth: It has liquid water and oxygen in its atmosphere which makes life on the planet possible.

  Mars: It is the second smallest planet in the solar system. It is known as red planet by the coloration of its surface.

  Jupiter: Largest planet in the solar system. Mainly formed by hydrogen, helium and methane gases and a small solid core inside.

   Saturn: It is the second largest planet in the solar system. It is known for the rings formed mainly by ice and cosmic dust.

  Uranus: It is a gaseous planet and its atmosphere consists mainly of hydrogen, helium and methane.

   Neptune: Planet farthest from the Sun. A gas giant, such as Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus.

Please Help

Two common airborne pollutants derived from fossil fuels are:

Answers

It Could be Carbon Dioxide,Carbon Monoxide, Sulfur Dioxide,Nitrogen Oxides, or Particulate Matter.

How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis related?

Answers

Answer:

Products of photosynthesis are used in cellular respiration

Explanation:

Photosynthesis is a process performed by the plants (also some algae and bacteria) in which the energy of sunlight is transformed into chemical energy usable by those plants. Necessary components of this set of reactions are sunlight, water and CO2, while resulting products are glucose and oxygen. Products of photosynthesis are then used in the metabolic processes known as cellular respiration. During the cellular respiration, glucose and oxygen are used for the production of ATP, CO2 and water. Cellular respiration is performed in mitochondria of all living organisms.

Photosynthesis occur in the chloroplast, membrane organelles with photosynthetic pigments (such as chlorophyll).

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Which of the below examples is the best evidence that species adaptions to rocky shores need to be different than adaptations to sandy beaches?


A. Paddle crabs can very quickly burrow into the sand using their rear legs while still being able to use their paddles for swimming.


B. Certain mollusks are able to grind their shells to fit the contours of a nearby rock creating a suction effect.


C. Mud snails are able to suck in sand and excrete mud that helps nearby plants grow…and thus able to feed on them.


D. Marine bristleworms use their fine bristles for swimming and holding themselves in burrows while the tide is in.

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

I gives you a better reason of why the species can adapt to their new environment in sandy beaches

The correct answer is C

A person breaks a bone and has it set and put in a cast, but it does not heal. What would be the best thing for the doctor to investigate as a possible cause?

The bone marrow, which should have supplied the growing bone with blood
The ligaments, which should have held the ends of the bone together while it mended
The synovial fluid in the bone, which should have carried nutrients to the growing bone
The osteoblasts, which should have been building the new bone

Answers

Answer:

The osteoblasts, which should have been building the new bone

Explanation:

Bones are the one of the types of connective tissues and have hard extracellular matrix. Osteoblasts are the cells that serve in formation of extracellular matrix of bones as these cells secrete collagen fibers and inorganic salts present in the matrix of bone. Hence, if a bone is not able to heal after fracture, osteoblast cells should be checked for their activity.

Answer:

The osteoblasts, which should have been building the new bone

Explanation:

Which of the following statements supports the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis?

A) A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.
B) Sickle-cell anemia results in normal hemoglobin.
C) Multiple antibody genes can code for different related proteins, depending on the splicing that takes place post-transcriptionally.
D) Alkaptonuria results when individuals lack multiple enzymes involved in the catalysis of homogentisic acid.

Answers

Answer:

A) A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.

Explanation:

This hypothesis states that one gene codes for one protein-enzyme, so consequently, if mutation occurs in that gene, the enzyme will not work properly. This hypothesis was very important for the fundamental discoveries of molecular biology, but it is oversimplified meaning that relationship between genes and proteins is much more complex.

Final answer:

The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis is supported by the statement 'A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.' A mutation in a gene results in a defective or non-functional enzyme, which can affect the biochemical reaction the enzyme catalyzes.

Explanation:

The statement that supports the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis is: A) A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.

The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis, proposed by George Beadle and Edward Tatum, suggests that individual genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, which in turn catalyze individual biochemical reactions within the cell. When there is a mutation in a specific gene, it can result in a defective or non-functional enzyme, thus affecting the biochemical reaction that the enzyme is supposed to catalyze.

An example of this concept can be observed in genetic disorders such as phenylketonuria, where a mutation in a single gene that codes for an enzyme (phenylalanine hydroxylase) necessary to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine, leads to its build-up in the body, causing harmful effects.

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