a bag contains six red balls, six greens balls, five yellow balls and three black balls. A ball is picked at random from the bag. Find the following probabilities.

Answer:

[tex]\large\boxed{m<\dfrac{71}{7}\to\left\{m\ |\ m<\dfrac{71}{7}\right\}\to m\in\left(-\infty,\ \dfrac{71}{7}\right)}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]170-7m>99\qquad\text{subtract 170 from both sides}\\\\-7m>-71\qquad\text{change the signs}\\\\7m<71\qquad\text{divide both sides by 71}\\\\m<\dfrac{71}{7}[/tex]

10 because if you minus 170 from 10 it would still be less than 99

Answer:

[tex]r^2=4\sec 2\theta}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation is:

[tex]x^2-y^2=4[/tex]

We substitute [tex]x=r\cos (\theta)[/tex] and [tex]y=r\sin (\theta)[/tex] to obtain:

[tex]r^2\cos^2\theta-r^2\sin^2\theta=4[/tex]

This implies that:

[tex]r^2(\cos^2\theta-\sin^2\theta)=4[/tex]

Apply double angle identity to obtain:

[tex]r^2\cos 2\theta=4[/tex]

This implies that:

[tex]r^2=\frac{4}{\cos 2\theta}[/tex]

This simplifies to:

[tex]r^2=4\sec 2\theta}[/tex]

Answer:

900 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, 200 miles is 1 inch. 100 miles is 1/2 an inch.

Answer:

900

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: 1/4 in. = 50 miles

Find the amount of miles per inch. Multiply 4 to both sides of the equation.

(1/4 in.) x (4) = (50 miles) x (4)

4/4 in. = 200 miles

1 in. = 200 miles

Now, find the amount of miles for 4 1/2 in. Multiply 4 1/2 to both sides.

Note that 4 1/2 = 4.5

(1 in.)(4.5) = (200 miles) x (4.5)

4.5 = 200 x 4.5

4.5 = 900

900 miles is your answer.

~

Answer:

20.6 (3sf)

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

5^2 + 7^2 = 74

c= root 74

5 + 7 + root 74 = 12 + root 74 = 20.6 (3sf)

Answer:

Surface Area = Sum of area of all sides = 203.2 Units Squared

Step-by-step explanation:

Top and Bottom: A = ((.5*4*6) + (.5*3.6*2)) * 2 => (12+3.6) *2 => 15.6*2 = 31.2

Sides: A = ((5*10)+(3.6*10)) *2 => (50 + 36) *2 => 86*2 = 172

Total Surface Area = Top + Bottom + Sides = 203.2 units squared

$22.75

Start by finding the cost of each topping. Subtract $17.50 minus $14.00 to find that adding 2 toppings costs $3.50. Now, divide $3.50 by 2 to find that the cost for adding only one topping is $1.75.

Then, multiply $1.75 by 5 to find how much it costs to add 5 toppings. You get $8.75.

Finally, add the cost of 5 toppings to the cost of a large pizza with no toppings. $14.00 plus $8.75 equals $22.75, so a large pizza with 5 toppings costs $22.75.

Answer: $22.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : The cost in dollars, y, of a large pizza with x toppings from Pat’s Pizzeria can be modeled by a linear function.

A linear function is given by :-

[tex]y=mx+c[/tex]                            (1)

, where m is slope (rate of change of y w.r.t x) and c is the y-intercept.

A large pizza with no toppings costs $14.00.

i.e. for x=0 , y= 14

Put theses values in (1) , we get

[tex]14=m(0)+c\\\Rightarrow\ c=14[/tex]   (2)

A large pizza with 2 toppings costs $17.50.

i.e. for x=2 , y= 17.50

Put theses values in (1) , we get

[tex]17.50=m(2)+c[/tex]      

Put value of c from (2)

[tex]17.50=2m+14\\\\[/tex]      

Subtract 14 from both sides , we get

[tex]3.50=2m[/tex]

Divide both sides by 2 , we get

[tex]1.75=m[/tex]

Put m= 1.75 and c= 14 in (1) , the linear function representing cost of large pizza becomes [tex]y=1.75x+14[/tex]

At x= 5

[tex]y=1.75(5)+14=8.75+14=22.75[/tex]

Thus , the cost of a pizza with 5 toppings= $22.75

The answer is y = 3x - 2

Y=3x-2

The formula y=mx+b is the slope intercept formula. You would enter the information of the problem into the equation.

You would place the slope in the place of m and the y intercept in the place of b.

Since it is a negative slope it would be -2 instead of +2 if it was positive.

Answer:  2 years 1 month

Step-by-step explanation:

2 years 1 month at $100 a month = $2,500

$720 x 2 years = $1,440

$720 / 12 months = $60

$1,440 + $60 = $1,500

$4,000 - $1,500 = $2,500

The two investment funds will have the same amount of money after 25 months. This conclusion is reached by setting up and solving an equation where the monthly growth of the first fund, $100x, equals the monthly decrease of the second fund, $4000 - $60x.

Let's denote the time in months that it takes for both investment funds to have the same amount of money as x. The equation that represents the first fund's growth is 100x, as it grows at $100 per month. The equation for the second fund is 4000 - 60x, as it decreases by $720 per year, or $60 per month.

We can set these two equations equal to each other to solve for x: 100x = 4000 - 60x. Solving this equation involves adding 60x to both sides to yield 160x = 4000, and then dividing by 160 to get x = 25. Therefore, after 25 months, both funds will have the same amount of money.

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Answer:It will be 2/12

Step-by-step explanation:

6 blue chips           6 red chips

6+6=12  so 2 red chips to 12 =2/12

For this case we must find the solutions of the following quadratic equation:

[tex]x ^ 2-5x-1 = 0[/tex]

We solve by means of[tex]x = \frac {-b \pm \sqrt {b ^ 2-4 (a) (c)}} {2a}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]a = 1\\b = -5\\c = -1[/tex]

Substituting:

[tex]x = \frac {- (- 5) \pm \sqrt {(- 5) ^ 2-4 (1) (- 1)}} {2 (1)}\\x = \frac {5 \pm \sqrt {25 + 4}} {2}\\x = \frac {5\pm\sqrt {29}} {2}[/tex]

Finally, the roots are:

[tex]x_ {1} = \frac {5+ \sqrt {29}} {2}\\x_ {2} = \frac {5- \sqrt {29}} {2}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]x_ {1} = \frac {5+ \sqrt {29}} {2}\\x_ {2} = \frac {5- \sqrt {29}} {2}[/tex]

Answer:

£9.6

Step-by-step explanation:

x = the original price of a CD

£x = 100% of the original price

The price of a CD was decreased by 20% to £7.68.

This means:

£7.68 = 100% - 20%

£7.68 = 80% of the original price

From this, we will find 1% of the original price.

£7.68 ÷ 80 = 1%

£0.096 = 1%

Since the original price ( x ) = 100% of the original price, we will find 100% of the original price.

£0.096 × 100 = 100%

£9.6 = 100%

Therefore, the original price of a CD = £9.6

The price before the decrease was approximately £9.60.

To find the price before the decrease, we need to calculate the original price before the 20% decrease. Let's call the original price 'x'. We know that after the 20% decrease, the price is £7.68.

So, if we take 20% of 'x' and subtract it from 'x', we should get £7.68. Mathematically, this can be expressed as:

x - 0.20x = 7.68

Simplifying the equation, we have:

0.80x = 7.68

Dividing both sides of the equation by 0.80, we find that 'x' is approximately 9.60. Therefore, the price before the decrease was approximately £9.60.

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Answer: 39$

Step-by-step explanation: calls=x x=30 30*.05= 1.50 40.50-1.50= 39$

Answer:38.55

Step-by-step explanation:

because you would make x=to 30 for the time and that would make the problem

40.05-0.05*30

0.05*30=1.5 so

40.05-1.5=38.55

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(x+3)^2=35+1

(x+3)^2=36

(x+3)^2=6^2

taking squareroot

x+3=+-6

x+3=6,-6

x=6-3=3

or x=-6-3=-9

Step-by-step explanation:

*****************here is the answer

area=28.61+12=40.61**************

Answer:

295

Step-by-step explanation:

.3 x 295 = 88.5

295 - 88.5 = 206.5

Answer might be d I think

Answer: D -2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y - 4 = -1/2(x+6).

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of the line is: y - y0 = m(x-x0)

If the line passes through the points (x1, y1)=(-6, 4) and (x1, y1)=(2, 0). Then, the slope is:

[tex]m = \frac{y1-y0}{x1-x0} = \frac{0-4}{2-(-6)} = -\frac{1}{2} [/tex]

Then, the equation is: y - 4 = -1/2(x+6).

Answer:

High positive correlation

Step-by-step explanation:

Perfect correlation is 1 or -1(0 is no correlation), the correlation coefficient is .8

It is positive because it is a positive number (closest to positive 1).

This value is close to 1 so it's a high positive correlation.

Answer:

Answer Is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the numbers by 2

7*2=14

14*2= 28

28*2=56

Answer is 56

ANSWER

56

EXPLANATION

We want to find the next number in the sequence,

7,14,28,

Observe that, there is a common ratio of 2 among the terms.

That is ,

7(2)=14

14(2)=28

Therefore the next term is

28(2)=56

Therefore the number that goes into the box is 56.

Answer:

∠EFA

Step-by-step explanation:

Linear pair : A linear pair is a pair of adjacent angles formed when two lines intersect and the sum of these angles is 180°

Vertical angles: The opposite angles formed by the two intersecting lines are called vertical angles.

Option 1) ∠BFC

Line BE and CF intersect at point F

So, the two adjacent angles formed when two lines intersect are ∠BFC and ∠EFC.

These are linear pair.

So,  ∠BFC is a part of linear pair.

Now by the definition of vertical angles , ∠BFC has no vertical pair.

So, ∠BFC is not a part of vertical pair.

Option 2) ∠CFG

According to the definition of linear pair ∠CFG is not a part of linear pair.

According to the definition of vertical pair ∠CFG is not a part of vertical pair.

Option 3) ∠GFD

According to the definition of linear pair ∠GFD has a linear pair ∠AFG

Thus ∠GFD is a part of linear pair

According to the definition of vertical pair ∠GFD is not a part of vertical pair.

Option 4) ∠EFA

According to the definition of linear pair ∠EFA has a linear pair ∠EFD

Thus ∠EFA is a part of linear pair

According to the definition of vertical pair ∠EFA has a ∠BFD vertical pair.

Thus ∠EFA is a part of vertical pair.

Hence ∠EFA is part of a linear pair and part of a vertical pair.

Answer:

D) EFA

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's see the definition of linear pair and vertical angles.

A linear pair of angles are the adjacent angles, when the angles add upto 180°.

Vertical angles are the  opposite angles when the two lines are intersecting. The vertical angles are equal in measure.

In the given figure there are only two lines, they are AD and BE. Othere are just rays.

By look at the figure, ∠EFA is a linear pair to∠EFD and as well as vertical angle to ∠DFB.

Therefore, the answer is D) EFA

I hope I'm not wrong here, but B.1/2? Only because its a 50% chance

The fraction of the time will you expect to see a head on the sixth flip will be 1/2.

Probability is defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in other words the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

Here the sample variables are = [3 heads , 2 tails]

The number of the times coin flipped = 6 times

Probability of the flipping the coin and having head will be

P(A)=3/6=1/2

Hence the fraction of the time will you expect to see a head on the sixth flip will be 1/2.

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Answer:

∆AMN ≅ ∆NOA

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Quadrilateral AMNO

MN║AO

AM║ON

To prove:∆AMN ≅ ∆NOA

Lets first draw two diagonals represented by lines MO and AN inside the given quadrilateral AMNO

Now we know if lines are parallel then the alternate interior angles are congruent , hence

∠NMO≅∠AOM

∠MNA≅∠NAO

∠AMO≅∠NOM

∠MAN≅∠ANO

Also by Reflexive Property we have

NA≅NA

MO≅MO

From ASA congruence property of triangles that states that if two angles and a side of two triangles are congruent then the two triangle are said to be congruent, hence we have

ΔAMN≅ΔNOA

ΔMAO≅ΔONM  !

Answer:

∆AMN=∆NOA by rule SSS

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the denominators of both fractions are common, then subtract the numerators leaving the common denominator, that is

[tex]\frac{4a+1-2a-7}{a^2-4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2a-6}{a^2-4}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\bold{\frac{2a-6}{a^2-4}}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Apply Rule [tex]\bold{\frac{a}{c}\pm \frac{b}{c}=\frac{a\pm \:b}{c}}[/tex]

= [tex]\bold{\frac{4a+1-\left(2a+7\right)}{a^2-4}}[/tex]

Expand [tex]\bold{4a+1-\left(2a+7\right): \ 2a-6}[/tex]

= [tex]\bold{\frac{2a-6}{a^2-4}}[/tex]

Mordancy.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Due to the stretchiness of shirt fabric and the waste involved in cutting pattern pieces, it is unrealistic to require that the length of the fabric be specified to a hundredth of a centimeter. Measurement to the nearest half-centimeter is sufficiently accurate for the purpose. The appropriate choice is the measurement with a precision of 1 cm:

  232 cm

__

2. The most appropriate choice is the one that shows cubing 6^(1/3) will result in 6, just as cubing ∛6 will result in 6.

Answer:

-13

Step-by-step explanation:

-4-8+3+6-10

Answer:-13

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression (4y^6)^3 - (10z^2)^3 is equivalent to 64y^18 - 1000z^6.

Factor out common powers:

64y^18 = (2^6)(y^3)^6

1000z^6 = (10^3)(z^2)^3

Rewrite the expression with factored terms:

64y^18 - 1000z^6 = (2^6)(y^3)^6 - (10^3)(z^2)^3

Apply power of a power rule:

(a^m)^n = a^(mn)

(2^6)(y^3)^6 = 2^(66) * y^(36) = 2^36 * y^18

(10^3)(z^2)^3 = 10^(33) * z^(2*3) = 10^9 * z^6

Substitute back the simplified terms:

2^36 * y^18 - 10^9 * z^6 = (4y^6)^3 - (10z^2)^3

Therefore, (4y^6)^3 - (10z^2)^3 is the equivalent expression to 64y^18 - 1000z^6. Both expressions involve the difference of cubes of binomials, with one focusing on powers of 4y^6 and the other emphasizing powers of 10z^2.

Answer:

[tex]\left(a+3\right)\left(a-2\right)=a^2+a-6=[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given expression is [tex]\left(a+3\right)\left(a-2\right)[/tex].

Now we need to multiply this using FOIL.

F = First [tex]=\left(a\right)\left(a\right)= a^2[/tex]

O = Outside [tex]=\left(a\right)\left(-2\right)= -2a[/tex]

I = Inside [tex]=\left(3\right)\left(a\right)= 3a[/tex]

L = Last [tex]=\left(3\right)\left(-2\right)= -6[/tex]

Hence we get :

[tex]\left(a+3\right)\left(a-2\right)=a^2-2a+3a-6=a^2+a-6=[/tex]

Answer:

[tex](a+3)(a-2)=a^2+a-6[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The given expression is:

[tex](a+3)(a-2)[/tex]

Using FOIL, we multiply the;

First terms:[tex]a\times a=a^2[/tex]

Outside terms: [tex]a\times -2=-2a[/tex]

Inner terms:[tex]3\times a=3a[/tex]

Last terms:[tex]3\times -2=-6[/tex]

Putting all together we have:

[tex](a+3)(a-2)=a^2-2a+3a-6[/tex]

This simplifies to [tex](a+3)(a-2)=a^2+a-6[/tex]

Answer:Vertical Asymptotes: x=0

Horizontal Asymptotes: y=2

Here’s a graph picture...

Answer:

x = - 2, x = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

x² - 10 x  = 24 ( subtract 24 from both sides )

x² - 10x - 24 = 0 ← in standard form

To factorise the quadratic

Consider the factors of the constant term (- 24) which sum to give the coefficient of the x- term (- 10)

The factors are - 12 and + 2, since

- 12 × 2 = - 24 and - 12 + 2 = - 10, thus

(x - 12)(x + 2) = 0

Equate each factor to zero and solve for x

x - 12 = 0 ⇒ x = 12

x + 2 = 0 ⇒ x = - 2

The solution of this quadratic equation to x² – 10 x = 24 is  x = - 2 & x = 12

A quadratic is a sort of problem that deals with a variable accelerated by using an operation called squaring. This language derives from the area of a rectangular being its facet period expanded with the aid of itself. The phrase "quadratic" comes from quadrant, the Latin word for square.

x² – 10 x = 24

⇒ x² +2X -12X -24 = 0

⇒ x (x - 2) -12(x - 2) =0

⇒ x = 12 OR ( x = -2)

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