A dog, that has a mass of 16 kgs, runs across a yard. What is the average force applied to the dog from the ground as it runs across the yard?

Gamma Ray telescopes are the one mostly used by humans for majority of space observations.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Since the year 1965, Gamma ray telescopes have attained a major area in space research. As gamma rays are emitted by most of the astrophysical particles like novae, black holes, dwarf stars, supernovae, neutron stars, pulsars, so it is easy to find any changes in space. Even highly energetic gamma burst can also be observed by these telescopes.

So, among the other telescopes like radio, ultraviolet, visible light observations, gamma ray telescopes are mostly preferred for space observations. As the other telescopes have low range of observations and they may have losses. But gamma rays does not interact with other particles, there will be less chance of loss of signals for gamma observations.

Answer:

d

Explanation:

visible light observations

Answer:

1291.08 N

Explanation:

acceleration=change in speed per unit time

[tex]a=\frac {v-u}{t}[/tex] where v and u are final and initial velocities respectively.

u is zero and v=160 km/h converted to m/s becomes[tex]160\times \frac {1000m}{3600s}\approx 44.44 m/s[/tex]

acceleration=[tex]\frac {44.44-0}{8}\approx 5.56 m/s^{2}[/tex]

Apparent weight, [tex]F_N=m(g+a)[/tex]

Taking g as 9.81 and m as 84 Kg then

[tex]F_N=84(9.81+5.56)\approx 1291.08 N[/tex]

The astronaut's apparent weight just after launch is about 467.04 N. This is calculated using the equation F = ma, where m is the astronaut's mass and a is the shuttle's acceleration (derived from the given final velocity and time).

To calculate the apparent weight of the astronaut, we need to find the acceleration of the shuttle first. We'll use the formula v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity (zero in this case as it's a vertical launch), a is the acceleration, and t is the time. We're given that v = 160 km/h which is equivalent to 44.44 meters per second (160000 m / 3600 seconds) and t = 8 seconds.

Calculating for a = (v - u) / t, we get a = 5.56 m/s². Then we calculate the apparent weight using the equation F = ma, where F is the force (apparent weight) and m is the mass. Using m = 84 kg and a = 5.56 m/s², we find that F (the apparent weight) = 467.04 N (rounded to the nearest hundredths place).

https://brainly.com/question/14323035

#SPJ3

Answer:

(B) True

The answer is true.

Answer:

10 W

Explanation:

Power is work over time.

P = W / t

P = 50 J / 5 s

P = 10 W

Answer:

It is 10 W

Explanation:

Answer:

the answer is B

Explanation: this was actually an ap exam question a few years back. the reason for answer B is that the only force being applied to the kitten is the force of gravity after being pushed.

The acceleration of the kitten-basket system is directed downward with a magnitude equal to g because the system is a projectile, therefore the correct answer is B.

The rate of change of the velocity with respect to time is known as the acceleration of the object.

As given in the problem kitten sits in a lightweight basket near the edge of a table. A person accidentally knocks the basket off the table. As the kitten and basket fall, the kitten rolls, turns, kicks, and catches the basket in its claws. The basket lands on the floor with the kitten safely inside. If air resistance is negligible,

There is no external force acting on the kitten-basket system except the gravitational force of the earth hence we can conclude that the acceleration is directed downward with a magnitude equal to g because the system is a projectile, thus the correct answer is option B.

Learn more about acceleration from here

brainly.com/question/2303856

#SPJ6

Explanation:

Elastic energy stored in a spring is:

EE = ½ kx²

EE = ½ (115 N/m) (0.15 m)²

EE = 1.3 J

Answer: The energy stored in the spring is 1.33 J

Explanation:

To calculate the energy stored in the spring, we use the equation:

[tex]E=\frac{1}{2}kx^2[/tex]

where,

E = energy stored in the spring

k = spring constant = 115 N/m

x = compression of the spring = 0.15 m

Putting values in above equation, we get:

[tex]E=\frac{1}{2}\times 115\times (0.15)^2\\\\E=1.33J[/tex]

Hence, the energy stored in the spring is 1.33 J

Answer:

The magnitude of the resultant acceleration is 2.2 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

Mass (m) of the sailboat =  2000 kg

Force acting on the sailboat due to ocean  tide is [tex]F_1[/tex] = 3000N

Eastwards means takes place along the positive x direction

Then[tex]F_{1x}[/tex] = 3000N and [tex]F_{1y}[/tex]= 0

Wind Force acting on the Sailboat is[tex]F_2[/tex]  = 6000N directed towards the northwest that means at an angle  45 degree above the negative x axis

Then  

[tex]F_{2x}[/tex] = -(6000N) cos 45 degree = -4242.6 N

[tex]F_{2y}[/tex]  = (6000N) cos 45 degree = 4242.6 N

Hence  , the net force acting on the sailboat in x direction is  

[tex]F_x = F_{1x}+ F_{2x}[/tex]

=  - 3000 N + 4242.6 N

=  - 3000 N +4242.6 N

= 1242.6N

Net Force acting on the sailboat in y direction is  

[tex]F_y = F_{1y}+ F_{2y}[/tex]

= 0+ 4242.6N

= 4242.6N

The magnitude of the resultant force =

Using pythagorean theorm of 1243 N and 4243 N

[tex]\sqrt{(1242.6)^2 + (4242.6)^2[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{(1544054.76) + (17999654.8)}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{(19543709.5)^2}[/tex]

4420.8 N

F = ma

[tex]a = \frac{F}{m}[/tex]

[tex]a =\frac{4420.8}{ 2000}[/tex]

=2.2 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

a) The custodian needs to apply 200 N of force

b) The custodian needs to apply 115.4 N of force

Explanation:

a)

We can solve this problem by applying Newton's second law: in fact, the net force along the horizontal direction must be equal to the product between the mass of the desk and the horizontal acceleration. Mathematically,

[tex]F_x = ma_x[/tex]

where

[tex]F_x = F cos \theta[/tex] is the net force on the horizontal direction, with F being the magnitude of the force applied by the custodian, and

[tex]\theta=60^{\circ}[/tex] the angle at which the force is applied

m is the mass of the desk

[tex]a_x[/tex] is the horizontal acceleration

In this problem we have:

m = 100 kg

[tex]a_x = 1.0 m/s^2[/tex]

Solving for F, we find the force that the custodian must apply:

[tex]F=\frac{ma_x}{cos \theta}=\frac{(100)(1.0)}{cos 60^{\circ}}=200 N[/tex]

b)

In this case, the rope has an angle of [tex]30^{\circ}[/tex] with the horizontal: this means that the force is applied at an angle of

[tex]\theta=30^{\circ}[/tex]

with the horizontal.

As before, we can apply Newton's second law:

[tex]F_x = ma_x[/tex]

And we have again

m = 100 kg (mass of the desk)

[tex]a_x=1.0 m/s^2[/tex] (horizontal acceleration)

This can be rewritten as

[tex]Fcos \theta = ma_x[/tex]

And solving for F, we find

[tex]F=\frac{ma_x}{cos \theta}=\frac{(100)(1.0)}{cos 30^{\circ}}=115.4 N[/tex]

Learn more about Newton's second law:

brainly.com/question/3820012

#LearnwithBrainly

The custodian should apply 200 N of force at a 60 degree angle and approximately 115.5 N of force at a 30 degree angle to accelerate the 100 kg desk horizontally at 1 m/s^2.

The question is asking about the force the custodian would need to apply to move a 100 kg desk on a dolly at a certain angle to accelerate it horizontally at 1 m/s^2. This concerns the application of Newton's second law in the context of force and acceleration, taking into account the angle at which the force is applied.

(a) To find the force at a 60 degrees angle, we need to use Newton's second law in the vertical component: F=ma. The force applied in the direction of movement (horizontal) would be F=100 kg * 1 m/s^2=100 N. However, because the force is applied at an angle, the horizontal component of the force is F * cos(60), which equals 100 N. Thus, the actual force applied by the custodian must be 100 N / cos(60) = 200 N.

(b) If the angle is reduced to 30 degrees, it becomes easier to move the desk because the horizontal component of the force is greater. In this case, the actual force applied would be 100 N / cos(30) = approximately 115.5 N. So, the custodian would need to apply less force to achieve the same acceleration.

https://brainly.com/question/25116504

#SPJ11

Yes, the ions can exit slit P without being deflected, if the electric field strength is 170.6 N/C

Explanation:

When the ions are inside the container, they are subjected to two forces, with directions opposite to each other:

The ions will move straight and undeflected if the two forces are equal and opposite. By using Fleming Left Hand rule, we notice that the magnetic force on the (negative) ions point upward: this means that the electric field must be also upward (so that the electric force on the ions is downward). Then, the two forces are balanced if

[tex]F_E = F_B[/tex]

which translates into

[tex]qE=qvB\\\rightarrow v = \frac{E}{B}[/tex]

Therefore, if the speed of the ions is equal to this ratio, the ions will go undeflected.

We can even calculate the value of E at which this occurs. In fact, we know that the ions are earlier accelerated by a potential difference [tex]V=-3000 V[/tex], so we have that their kinetic energy is given by the change in electric potential energy:

[tex]qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

where

[tex]q=-2.0\cdot 10^{-19}C\\m=2.84\cdot 10^{-20}kg[/tex]

Solving for v, the speed,

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(-2.0\cdot 10^{-19})(-3000)}{2.84\cdot 10^{-20}}}=205.6 m/s[/tex]

And since the magnetic field strength is

B = 0.83 T

The strength of the electric field must be

[tex]E=vB=(205.6 m/s)(0.83 T)=170.6 N/C[/tex]

Learn more about electric and magnetic fields:

brainly.com/question/8960054

brainly.com/question/4273177

brainly.com/question/3874443

brainly.com/question/4240735

#LearnwithBrainly

Answer:

The apparent weight is less than that of the real weight because of buoyancy.

Explanation:

Buoyancy is the upward thrust that is experienced by the object that is either fully or partially immersed in the object. The weight of the immersed object will be equal to the mass of the liquid that is displaced by the object. Buoyancy can be calculate based on Archimedes's Principle.  Buoyancy also acts in the air, the normal force is reduced than the force of gravity. Buoyancy is the ability to float in liquid as well as in air. This floating happens when various forces acts on the opposite direction. The direction of the force will always remain upwards.

Answer:

1. distance and period of time.

Explanation:

The speed is calculated using the formula [tex]k = \frac{d}{t}[/tex]

"k" is the speed, "d" is the distance and "t" is the time.

You need distance and time to calculate the speed.

Speed is how fast an object is going. The direction is irrelevant to speed, not to be confused with velocity, which is speed in a given direction.

Answer: 1. distance and period of time.

Explanation:

As water moves down through the ground, the force that is acting against it is gravity, which is in option c, as gravity pulls the water down through the soil and towards the water table or the nearest body of water.

Gravity is a force that pulls objects towards each other, and it is what causes water to move downward through soil and rock. When it rains or when water is added to the soil, the force of gravity causes the water to percolate or move down through the soil and towards the water table or the nearest body of water. Capillary action refers to the ability of water to move upward through small spaces or pores, such as in soil or rock. It is caused by the surface tension of water and the adhesion of water molecules to surfaces.

Hence, as water moves down through the ground, the force that is acting against it is gravity, which is option c.

Learn more about capillary action here.

https://brainly.com/question/11266846

#SPJ5

The force acting against water as it moves down through the ground is Gravity(C). It pulls the water downwards, and this motion is resisted by the earth's material, which is referred to as permeability.

As water moves down through the ground, the force that is acting against it is Gravity(C). Gravity is the force of attraction that pulls two masses towards each other, in this case, the mass of the earth and the mass of water. This downward pull of water is resisted by the earth's material leading to the permeability of soil and rocks, that is the ability for water to flow through them. However, the answer to your actual question is Gravity as it’s the primary force pulling the water downwards.

https://brainly.com/question/35699425

#SPJ2

Answer:

The book gravitational potential energy is 0.0784 Joules.

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of book, m = 20 g = 20 ÷ 1000 = 0.02 kg

Table height,   h = 40 cm =40 ÷ 100 = 0.4 m

To Find:

Gravitational Potential Energy = ?

Solution:

Gravitational Potential Energy :

Gravitational potential energy is energy an object possesses because of its position in a gravitational field.

Formula is given by

[tex]\textrm{Gravitational Potential Energy}= m\times g\times h[/tex]

Where,

m = mass

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

h = height

Substituting the values we get

[tex]\textrm{Gravitational Potential Energy}= 0.02\times 9.8\times 0.4\\\\\textrm{Gravitational Potential Energy}=0.0784 Joules[/tex]

The book gravitational potential energy is 0.0784 Joules.

Your question asks what the slope of a Position vs. Time graph represents.

Your answer would be Velocity.

The slope of a Position vs. Time graph would represent the velocity of the object.

If the slope is positive, then the object has a positive velocity ,in which it is going forward.

If the slope is negative, then the object has a negative velocity, which means that it's going the opposite direction, or backwards.

If the slope is at a "horizontal" position, this means that the object is stopped or isn't moving at all.

The slope of a Position vs. Time graph represents velocity, specifically the instantaneous velocity at a given point in time.

This means that when you look at a graph and see the position of an object on the y-axis and the time on the x-axis, the steepness of the curve or straight line (slope) that describes the object's motion gives you a measure of how fast the object is moving (velocity). More importantly, the slope of this graph at any particular point corresponds to the instantaneous velocity at that point in time.

To further illustrate, consider a car that is speeding up. The graph representing its position vs time would start at a lower point (indicating zero or smaller velocity) and rise to a high point (indicating a high velocity), showing it is accelerating. The actual value of the slope would give you the car's speed or velocity at any particular time.

https://brainly.com/question/39711173

#SPJ11

Answer:

Orbit's semi-major axis length and  its period  is directly proportional.

Explanation:

Orbital period(T) is the time taken for an celestial object to make one complete revolution in the orbit around other object

According to  Kepler's laws  3rd of planetary motion  stating

The square of an orbital period T of a planet is “directly proportional” to the cube of the "semi-major axis"  of its orbit.

The orbital period  T is given by

[tex]T=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{a^{3}}{\mu}}[/tex]

Where

a is the semi-major axis of the orbit

µ = GM  which is the standard gravitational parameter

With G is the gravitational constant  and M is the mass of  body.

Answer: -36.4

Explanation:

It says that the initial speed is 7 and the time is 3. acceleration is -9.8 ( its always 9.8 but since its going downward its negative)

The equation you want to use is Vf = Vo + AT.

When you plug in the answers it is

0 = 7 + -9.8(3)

-9.8(3) = -29.4

Then add 7

and you get -36.4

The ball's velocity after 3 seconds is 24.4 m/s.

The ball is thrown downward with an initial speed of 7 m/s. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s². So, the ball's velocity is increasing at a rate of 9.8 m/s^2.

After 3 seconds, the ball's velocity is 7 m/s + 3 * 9.8 m/s²

= 24.4 m/s.

Therefore, the ball's velocity after 3 seconds is 24.4 m/s.

First, we find the acceleration of the ball by multiplying the acceleration due to gravity by the time it has been falling.

Next, we add the initial velocity of the ball to the acceleration we just found to find the final velocity of the ball.

To learn more about velocity, here

https://brainly.com/question/24259848

#SPJ3

Answer:

The refracted light wave is bent at an angle while the reflected light wave is bounced back either at 90° or at angle less than 180°.

The refracted light wave changes its speed when it moves from one medium to another based on the density of the medium.

The reflected light does not change its speed once it contacts another medium. It just bounces back with the same speed.

Explanation:

Answer:

Power = Force x Velocity

Explanation:

Mathematically, it is computed using the following equation. The standard metric unit of power is the Watt. As is implied by the equation for power, a unit of power is equivalent to a unit of work divided by a unit of time. Thus, a Watt is equivalent to a Joule/second.

The equation used to calculate Power is Force multiplied velocity.

This is defined as the amount of energy conversion which takes place per unit time and the unit is Watts.

Power = Force × Velocity

We cab however calculate Power by multiplying the applied force with the velocity of the object in order to arrive as the answer.

Read more about Power here https://brainly.com/question/911620

Answer:B

Explanation:

Calculate speed using equation:V=S/t

S=980 km ------------   distance Boston-Detroit

t=2h ---------------------   time

v=?

------------------------

V=S/t

V=980km/2h

V=490km/h

Final answer:

The average speed of the airplane for the trip from Boston to Detroit, covering a distance of 980 km in two hours, is 490 km/h. The direction of flight is westward.

Explanation:

The subject of this question is Physics, and it would typically be encountered by students at the High School level. The question involves calculating the average speed and direction of an airplane's flight from Boston to Detroit, which is a 980 km trip that the airplane completes in two hours. To find the average speed, we divide the total distance traveled by the total time of the trip.

The calculation would be Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 980 km / 2 hours = 490 km/h. Since the plane is flying from Boston to Detroit, the general direction is westward. Therefore, the best description of the airplane's average speed and direction is 490 km/h West.

Answer:

hi there!

the correct answer to this question is: 6.67 mph

Explanation:

you convert minutes to hours

10 miles * 60 mins / 90 mins

Final answer:

To find the man's jogging speed in mph, divide the distance he jogs, 10 miles, by the time it takes in hours. He jogs 10 miles in 1.5 hours (90 minutes), giving him a speed of 6.67 mph.

Explanation:

To calculate the man's speed in mph (miles per hour), we need to divide the distance traveled by the time it took him to travel that distance. The man jogs 10 miles in 90 minutes. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, we convert 90 minutes to hours by dividing by 60, which equals 1.5 hours.

To find the speed, we use the formula:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Speed = 10 miles ÷ 1.5 hours

Speed = 6.67 mph

This calculation shows that the man's jogging speed is 6.67 mph.

Answer:

False, When an object rolls over a surface, the kind of friction that occurs is called ROLLING FRICTION

Explanation:

The correct term for the kind of friction that occurs when an object rolls over a surface is rolling friction, not round friction, making the statement False. Rolling friction, which is different from sliding friction, is weaker and allows a rolling object to travel farther.

The kind of friction that occurs when an object rolls over a surface is not called round friction, making the statement False. When an object rolls over a surface, the friction is correctly called rolling friction. Rolling friction is a force that resists the motion of an object rolling on a surface. It happens due to deformations at the contact area between the rolling object and the surface. Unlike sliding friction, which occurs when there is relative motion between two surfaces in contact without rolling, rolling friction generally requires less force to overcome due to the reduced contact area and the nature of the motion.

During rolling motion, especially without slipping, a kinetic friction force can also arise if there is relative motion between the surfaces. However, rolling friction is primarily responsible for slowing down a rolling object over time, even in the absence of air resistance. It is significantly weaker than sliding friction, allowing a rolling object to travel much farther than it could slide on the same surface. The force of rolling friction is necessary for rolling motion, as it provides the torque needed to change the object’s angular momentum.

Answer:

The answer is dis identification.

Explanation:

Answer:

D

Explanation:

D.

Disidentification

Answer: p= m/v so 90kg/.075m^3 = 1,200

2a. .35 m 1.1 m and .015 m

2b. 35 cm x 110 cm x 1.5 cm = 5,775 cm^3 = 57.75 m^3

mass= pv

2700•57.75= 155,925 kg

mass= 155,925 kg

volume= 57.75 m^3

Explanation: physics

Answer:

16 Newtons

Explanation:

We will use the equation F=ma

First, find the acceleration using the givens.

a=∆v/∆t

a=15-3/3

a=12/3

a=4 m/s^2

Next, plug the acceleration and mass into the equation.

F=ma

F=4kg(4m/s^2)

F=16 Newtons

Answer:

A. Food Aversion

It's right on ED2020, good luck!! Stay healthy and safe!!

Final answer:

Chris is experiencing food aversion, which is an associative learning process where one learns to avoid certain tastes associated with past sickness.

Explanation:

Chris is most likely experiencing a food aversion. This type of conditioning occurs when an individual associates the taste of a certain food or drink with a negative experience, such as illness, and then avoids it in the future. The event where Chris felt sick after playing hard in heat post-drinking chocolate milk exemplifies how a single adverse incident can lead to a long-lasting aversion. This aversion is a learned response when the conditioned stimulus (in Chris's case, chocolate milk) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (feeling sick) resulting in a conditioned aversion to the food or drink.

Similar to Chris's experience with chocolate milk, taste aversion conditioning can happen when flavors associated with stomach pain or illness become avoided and disliked, an evolutionary mechanism important for animals and humans to avoid potential toxins. An example is how cancer patients may develop aversions to certain foods right before chemotherapy since the treatment often leads to nausea or sickness, strengthening the association between the flavor and the negative reaction.

Answer:

Element

Explanation:

Answer:

The wavelength of the infrared wave is 0.0001 m.

Explanation:

Given:

Frequency of an infrared wave is, [tex]f=3.0\times 10^{12}\ Hz[/tex]

We know that, infrared waves are electromagnetic waves. All electromagnetic waves travel with the same speed and their magnitude is equal to the speed of light in air.

So, speed of infrared waves coming from the Sun travels with the speed of light and thus its magnitude is given as:

[tex]v=c=3.0\times 10^8\ m/s[/tex]

Where, 'v' is the speed of infrared waves and 'c' is the speed of light.

Now, we have a formula for the speed of any wave and is given as:

[tex]v=f\lambda[/tex]

Where, [tex]\lambda \to \textrm{Wavelength of infrared wave}[/tex]

Now, rewriting the above formula in terms of wavelength, [tex]\lambda[/tex], we get:

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{v}{f}[/tex]

Now, plug in [tex]3.0\times 10^8[/tex] for 'v', [tex]3.0\times 10^{12}[/tex] for 'f' and solve for  [tex]\lambda[/tex]. This gives,

[tex]\lambda=\frac{3.0\times 10^8}{3.0\times 10^{12}}\\\\\lambda=0.0001\ m[/tex]

Therefore, the wavelength of the infrared wave is 0.0001 m.

To find the wavelength of an infrared wave with a frequency of 3.0 x 10¹² Hz, use the formula λ = c / f. Substituting the speed of light and the given frequency, we get a wavelength of 1.0 x 10⁻⁴ meters.

Infrared waves are part of the electromagnetic spectrum and have longer wavelengths than visible light. To find the wavelength of an infrared wave given its frequency, we use the formula:

λ = c / f

where:

Given the frequency f = 3.0 x 10¹² Hz, we can substitute the values into the equation:

λ = 3.00 x 10⁸ m/s / 3.0 x 10¹² Hz

λ = 1.0 x 10⁻⁴ meters

Thus, the wavelength of the infrared wave is 1.0 x 10⁻⁴ meters.

Answer:

Resultant Vector will 71 units

Explanation:

if we draw vector A in eastward direction such that its head coincides with the tail of vector B in northward direction then the resultant vector will be equal to

Va+ Vb= 60 +11= 71 units

and its direction will be from the tail of vector A to the head of vector B

.05km= 50m

1m=60s

s= d/t

50/60

.83 m/s