A glass tube 1.50 meters long and open at one end is weighted to keep it vertical and is then lowered to the bottom of a lake. When it returns to the surface it is determined that at the bottom of the lake the water rose to within 0.133 meters of the closed end. The lake is 100 meters deep, the air temperature at the surface is 27 "C, atmospheric pressure is 1.01x10s N/m2, and the density of water is 998 kg/m3. a) What is the total pressure at the bottom of the lake

To find the new length of the spring when a different mass is hung from it, calculate the spring constant using the initial mass, and then use Hooke's Law to solve for the extension caused by the new mass. Add this extension to the original unstretched length of the spring to find the stretched length.

The student's question involves finding the new length of a spring x2 when a block with mass m2 of 3.3 kg is hung from it. Given an initial unstretched length (x0) and a stretched length (x1) with block m1, we can solve for the spring constant k using Hooke's Law, which states F = k * x, where F is the force, k is the spring constant, and x is the extension from the natural length of the spring.

First, we calculate the extension caused by m1: extension_m1 = x1 - x0 = 0.74 m - 0.45 m = 0.29 m. The force exerted by m1 is F1 = m1 * g, where g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s2). Calculating the force, we get F1 = 7.9 kg * 9.81 m/s2. Then, the spring constant k can be found using k = F1 / extension_m1.

With the value of k, we can find the extension caused by m2: extension_m2 = F2 / k, where F2 = m2 * g. Finally, the length x2 of the spring with m2 hung from it is x2 = x0 + extension_m2.

Answer:(c)

Explanation:

The electric field is a distribution is a distribution of vectors at point due to the presence of one or more charged objects.

If two or more charged particles are present in a system then the net electric field at a point is the vector addition of all the charges.

For example if a negative and a positive charge is present then electric field of negative charge is towards  the negative charge while it is away for positive charge.  

option d and e are wrong as Electric field is a vector quantity

The torque on a single circular loop in an external magnetic field can be calculated using the formula T = NIAB sin 0. We need to find the area of the loop using the given circumference and then substitute the values of the current, magnetic field strength, area, and angle into the formula to find the torque.

To calculate the magnitude of the torque exerted on the circular loop by the magnetic forces, we need to use the formula for torque on a current-carrying loop in a uniform magnetic field, which is T = NIAB sin 0, where N represents the number of turns in the loop, I represents the current, A represents the area of the loop, B represents the magnetic field strength, and 0 represents the angle between the field and the plane of the loop.

In this case, since there is only a single loop, N is equal to 1. The current I is given as 4.0 A. The magnetic field strength B is given as 2.0 T. The angle 0 is 20°. The area of the loop A can be calculated from the circumference given as 80 cm or 0.8 m. Recall that the circumference of a circle is given by the formula 2πr. If the circumference C is given by 80 cm or 0.8 m, the radius r can be found by dividing the circumference by 2π. Once you've found the radius r, the area of the circle is πr².

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The correct answer is "0.14 N.m". The final torque value is 0.14 N·m on the loop.

To determine the torque exerted on the loop, we use the formula:

Torque (τ) = nIBA sin(θ)

First, find the area (A) of the loop. The circumference (C) of the loop is given by 80 cm, which is 0.80 m. From the circumference, we can find the radius (r):

C = 2πr -> r = C / 2π = 0.80 m / 2π ≈ 0.127 m

Now, calculate the area (A) of the loop:

A = πr² = π(0.127 m)² ≈ 0.0507 m²

Next, calculate the torque:

τ = nIBA sin(θ) = 1 × 4.0 A × 2.0 T × 0.0507 m² × sin(20°)

Using the value of sin(20°) ≈ 0.342:

τ ≈ 1 × 4.0 A × 2.0 T × 0.0507 m² × 0.342 ≈ 0.14 N · m

Therefore, the magnitude of the torque exerted on the loop is 0.14 N·m.

Answer:

Explanation:

The original frequency of sound  f₀

The apparent frequency of sound fa

For apparent frequency the formula is

fa =  [tex]f_0\times\frac{V+v}{V-v }[/tex]     , v is velocity of jumper which increases as he goes down .

Beat frequency

= fa - f₀

=  [tex]f_0\times(\frac{V+v}{V-v }-1)[/tex]

=  [tex]f_0\times(\frac{2v}{V-v })[/tex]

since v is very small in comparison to V , velocity of sound , in the denominator , v can be neglected.

beat frequency = [tex]f_0\times(\frac{2v}{V })[/tex]

v , the velocity of jumper will go on increasing as long as net force on the jumper is positive or

mg > kx where x is extension in the cord and k is its force constant . Below this point kx or restoring force becomes more than weight of the jumper and then net force on the jumper directs upwards. At this point beat frequency becomes maximum.

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

From given data, it can be noted that 95% of given confidently data, means 5% of data is uncertain. According to the question, we have to calculate uncertainty in Cp .

 Kindly check the attached image below for the step by step explanation to the question above.

Answer:

[tex]D_{1}=11.32 m[/tex]    

Explanation:

We will need to use the ideal gas equation. The equation is given by:

[tex]PV=nRT[/tex]

As we have the same amount of molecules in the initial and final steps, therefore we can do this:

[tex]\frac{P_{1}V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{2}V_{2}}{T_{2}}[/tex] (1)

- P(1) is the atmospheric pressure (P(1) = 1 atm) and P(2) is 0.028 atm

- T(1) is 300 K and T(2) is 190 K

- V(1) is the volume of the balloon in the first step, we can consider a spherical geometry so:

[tex]V_{1}=\frac{4}{3}\pi (\frac{D_{1}}{2})^{3}[/tex] (2)

[tex]V_{2}=\frac{4}{3}\pi (\frac{D_{2}}{2})^{3}[/tex] (3)

- D(2) = 32 m

So [tex]V_{2}=17157.3 m^{3}[/tex]

Let's solve the equation (1) for V(1)

[tex]V_{1}=\frac{T_{1}P_{2}V_{2}}{P_{1}T_{2}}[/tex]

[tex]V_{1}=\frac{300*0.028*17157.3}{1*190}[/tex]

[tex]V_{1}=758.53 m^{3}[/tex]

And using the equation (2) we can find D.    

[tex]D_{1}=2(\frac{3}{4}V_{1})^{1/3}[/tex]

[tex]D_{1}=2(\frac{3}{4\pi}*758.53)^{1/3}[/tex]        

[tex]D_{1}=11.32 m[/tex]        

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

The force that is exerted when a shopping cart is pushed is a type of push force, supplied by the muscles of the cart pusher's body.

The forces that causes a metal ball to move toward a magnet is a type of pull force that is as a result of the magnetic field forces.

Explanation:

Forces are divided into push forces that tends to accelerate a body away from the source of the force, and pull forces that accelerates the body towards the force source.

Examples of push forces includes pushing a cart, pushing a table, repulsion of two similar poles of a magnet etc. Examples of pull forces includes a attractive force between two dissimilar poles of a magnet, pulling a load by a rope, a dog pulling on a leash etc.

Answer:

The force that is exerted when a shopping cart is pushed:

-Contact

The force that causes a metal ball to move toward a magnet:

-Noncontact

Answer:

gasoline zone    P_net = 6860 Pa

Water zone        P_net = 26460 Pa

Force direction is out of tank  

Explanation:

The pressure is defined

         P = F / A

         F = P A

let's write Newton's equation of force

            F_net = F_int - F_ext

            P_net A = (P_int - P_ext) A

The P_ext is the atmospheric pressure

         P_ext = P₀

the pressure inside is

gasoline zone

         P_int = P₀ + ρ' g h'

water zone

         P_int = P₀ + ρ' g h' + ρ_water h_water

we substitute

Zone with gasoline

            P_net = ρ' g h'

            P_net = 700 9.8  1

            P_net = 6860 Pa

Water zone

             P_net = rho’ g h’ + rho_water g h_water

             P_net = 6860 + 1000 9.8  2

             P_net = 26460 Pa

To find the explicit value of the force, divide by a specific area.

Force direction is out of tank

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for time period of a pendulum is given as follows :

T = 2π[tex]\sqrt{\frac{l}{g} }[/tex]

l is length of pendulum and g is acceleration due to gravity .

So time period of pendulum  is not dependent on the mass of the pendulum . If time period is same and length is also the same then acceleration due to gravity will also be the same . Hence the acceleration due to gravity at distant planet will be same as that on the earth.

Answer:

8.33*10^-16 Watt

Explanation:

Given that

Length of the rod, l = 2 m,

Area of the rod, A = 2 x 2 mm² = 4*10^-6 m²

resistivity of the rod, p = 6*10^-8 ohm metre,

Potential difference of the rod, V = 0.5 V

Let R be the resistance of the rod, then

R = p * l / A

R = (6*10^-8 * 2) / (4*10^-6)

R = 3*10^14 ohm

Heat generated per second = V² / R Heat = (0.5)² / (3*10^14)

Heat = 0.25 / 3*10^14

Heat = 8.33*10^-16 Watt

Therefore, the rate at which heat is generated is 8.33*10^-16 Watt

Answer:

[tex]n_{T} = 31.68\,rev[/tex]

Explanation:

The angular acceleration is:

[tex]\ddot n_{1} = \frac{2.2\,\frac{rev}{s} -0\,\frac{rev}{s} }{8.8\,s}[/tex]

[tex]\ddot n_{1} = 0.25\,\frac{rev}{s^{2}}[/tex]

And the angular deceleration is:

[tex]\ddot n_{2} = \frac{0\,\frac{rev}{s}-2.2\,\frac{rev}{s} }{20\,s}[/tex]

[tex]\ddot n_{2} = -0.11\,\frac{rev}{s^{2}}[/tex]

The total number of revolutions is:

[tex]n_{T} = n_{1} + n_{2}[/tex]

[tex]n_{T} = \frac{\left(2.2\,\frac{rev}{s} \right)^{2}-\left(0\,\frac{rev}{s} \right)^{2}}{2\cdot \left(0.25\,\frac{rev}{s^{2}} \right)} + \frac{\left(0\,\frac{rev}{s} \right)^{2}-\left(2.2\,\frac{rev}{s} \right)^{2}}{2\cdot \left(-0.11\,\frac{rev}{s^{2}} \right)}[/tex]

[tex]n_{T} = 31.68\,rev[/tex]

Answer:Voltage

Explanation:

Voltage stays the same at any point in a parallel circuit

Final answer:

The fraction of hydrogen atoms in the 2P states at T=5900 K is calculated using the Boltzmann distribution. The energy of the 2S and 2P states is 10.2 eV, and their degeneracies are factored into the Boltzmann factor to determine the relative populations of these states.

Explanation:

The fraction of hydrogen atoms in the 2P states at a temperature of 5900 K can be calculated using the Boltzmann distribution. According to quantum mechanics, the energy levels of a hydrogen atom involve principal quantum numbers, with the ground state being 1s and higher energy excited states being designated by higher quantum numbers and corresponding letters (s, p, d, f, etc.) for their angular momentum quantum numbers. Since we are given that the energy of 2S and 2P states are the same at 10.2 eV and the ground state (1S) has an energy we'll call 0, we can use the Boltzmann factor to find the relative populations of these states.

To calculate the fraction of hydrogen atoms in the 2P state, use the following Boltzmann factor equation: fraction = (g2P / gTotal) * exp(-E2/kT), where g2P is the degeneracy of the 2P state, gTotal is the total degeneracy of all states considered, E2 is the energy of the 2P state, k is the Boltzmann constant, and T is the temperature. The degeneracy of the 2P state is 3 (since there are three 2P states) and the only other state considered here is the 2S state, which has degeneracy 1, making gTotal = 4. Plugging in the energy of 10.2 eV for E2 and converting it to joules (multiply by 1.602 x 10-19 J/eV), using k = 1.38 x 10-23 J/K, and T = 5900 K, we can calculate the fraction of hydrogen in the 2P state.

Answer:

The length of the bridge during the hottest part of summer is [tex]L_s = 1235.925 m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The length of the steel bridge is [tex]L = 1234.567m[/tex]

     The temperature for this length is [tex]T_1 = 233.15K[/tex]

     The temperature at summer [tex]T_2 = + 140.0F = \frac{140 - 32}{180} *100 + 273= 333 K[/tex]

     The coefficient of linear expansion is [tex]\alpha = 11.0123*10^{-6} K^{-1}[/tex]

Generally the change in length of the steel bridge is mathematically represented as

             [tex]\Delta L = \alpha L \Delta T[/tex]

Substituting value

             [tex]\Delta L = 11.0123*10^{-6} * 1234.567 (333-233.15)[/tex]

              [tex]\Delta L = 1.3575 \ m[/tex]

The length of the bridge in summer is mathematically evaluated as

         [tex]L_s = L + \Delta L[/tex]

Substituting values

         [tex]L_s = 1234.567 + 1.3575[/tex]

        [tex]L_s = 1235.925 m[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

A ) The surface is frictionless . If the box is at rest , there will be no tension in the rope.

B ) In this case , the box is moving with steady rate of 4.20 m /s . In this case also no force is acting on the box so tension in the rope will be nil.

C ) In this case the box is moving with acceleration of 5.8 m /s² so force on the box = mass x acceleration

= 57 x 5.8

= 330.6 N .

So tension in the rope will be equal to force acting on the rope . Hence tension = 330.6 N .

Final answer:

The tension in the rope tied to a 57.0 kg box on frictionless ice is 0 N when the box is at rest, 0 N when moving at a steady velocity of 4.20 m/s, and 331 N when the box is accelerating at 5.80 m/s².

Explanation:

When considering the tension in the rope connected to the 57.0 kg box on frictionless ice, different scenarios will result in different tensions:

Part A: Box at Rest

In the first scenario where the box is at rest, the tension in the rope will be zero Newtons (0 N). This is because, on frictionless ice, there is no other force opposing the box's motion that the rope would need to counteract.

Part B: Box Moving at Steady Velocity

For the second part, where the box is moving at a constant velocity (4.20 m/s), the tension is still zero Newtons. Even if the box is in motion, the lack of frictional forces on the ice means no net force is required to maintain the box's constant velocity.

Part C: Box Accelerating

In the third case, where the box is moving at 4.20 m/s and also accelerating at 5.80 m/s², we need to apply Newton's second law, F = ma. The tension (T) in the rope is calculated as the product of the mass (m) of the box and its acceleration (a). Thus:

T = m × a = 57.0 kg × 5.80 m/s² = 330.6 N

Therefore, the tension in the rope would be 331 N (rounded to the nearest integer).

Answer:

The specific heat of the unknown sample is 1822.14 J/kg.k

Explanation:

Given;

mass of aluminum calorimeter, [tex]M_c[/tex] = 100 g

mass of water, [tex]M_w[/tex] = 250 g

stabilizing temperature of water-calorimeter, ΔT =  10.0°C

mass of copper, [tex]M_c_u[/tex] = 75 g

initial temperature of copper, [tex]T_{cu}[/tex] =  60.0°C

mass of unknown sample, [tex]M_u[/tex] = 70.0 g

initial temperature of unknown sample, [tex]T_u[/tex] =  100°C.

The final temperature of the entire system, t = 20.0°C

Apply the principle of conservation of energy;

energy used to heat water and calorimeter is equal to energy released by copper and unknown sample.

[tex]Q = M_{cu}C_{cu} \delta T_{cu} + M__{u}C{_u} \delta T_u[/tex]

where;

Q is energy used to heat water and calorimeter

[tex]C_c_u[/tex] is the specific heat capacity of copper

[tex]C_u[/tex] is the specific heat capacity of unknown sample

Make [tex]C_u[/tex] subject of the formula;

[tex]C_u = \frac{Q-M_c_u C_c_u \delta T_c_u}{M_u \delta T_u} \\\\C_u = \frac{(C_wM_w +C_cM_c)\delta T-M_c_u C_c_u \delta T_c_u}{M_u \delta T _u} \\\\C_u = \frac{(4186*0.25 +900*0.1)10-0.075* 387 *40}{0.07* 80} \\\\C_u = \frac{11365 -1161}{5.6} \\\\C_u = 1822.14 \ J/kg.k[/tex]

Therefore, the specific heat of the unknown sample is 1822.14 J/kg.k

The specific heat of the unknown sample is;

c_u = 1823 J/Kg.k

We are given;

Mass of Aluminum calorimeter; m_c = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Mass of water; m_w = 250 g = 0.25 kg

Initial temperature of Calorimeter and water; T_c = T_w = 10°C = 283 K

Mass of Copper; m_cu = 75 g = 0.075 kg

Initial temperature of Copper; T_cu = 60°C = 333 K

Mass of unknown sample; m_u = 70 g = 0.07 kg

Initial temperature of unknown substance = 100°C = 373 K

Final temperature of system; T_f = 20°C = 293 K

Formula for quantity of heat is;

Q = mcΔt

where;

m is mass

c is specific heat capacity

Δt is change in temperature;

For the calorimeter and water , we have;

Q_cw = (m_w*c_w + m_c*c_c)Δt

Specific heat capacity of water is; c_w = 4186 J/Kg.K

Specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J/Kg.K

Thus;

Q_cw = ((0.25 * 4186) + (0.1 * 900))(293 - 283)

Q_cw = 11365 J

For the unknown sample and the piece of copper;

Q_cu,u = (m_cu*c_cu*Δt) + (m_u*c_u*Δt)

specific heat capacity of copper; c_cu = 385 J/Kg.K

Thus;

Q_cu,u = (0.075*385*(333 - 293)) + (0.07*c_u*(373 - 293))

Q_cu,u = 1155 + 5.6c_u

From conservation of energy principle;

Q_cw = Q_cu,u

Thus;

11365 = 1155 + 4.2c_u

c_u = (11365 - 1155)/5.6

c_u = 1823 J/Kg.k

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Answer:

The axial force is  [tex]P = 15.93 k N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The diameter of the shaft steel is  [tex]d = 50mm[/tex]

      The length of the cylindrical bushing  [tex]L =100mm[/tex]

     The outer diameter of the cylindrical bushing  is  [tex]D = 70 \ mm[/tex]

       The diametral interference is [tex]\delta _d = 0.005 mm[/tex]

       The coefficient of friction is  [tex]\mu = 0.2[/tex]

       The Young modulus of  steel is  [tex]207 *10^{3} MPa (N/mm^2)[/tex]

The diametral interference is mathematically represented as

           [tex]\delta_d = \frac{2 *d * P_B * D^2}{E (D^2 -d^2)}[/tex]

Where [tex]P_B[/tex] is the pressure (stress) on the two object held together  

     So making [tex]P_B[/tex] the subject

            [tex]P_B = \frac{\delta _d E (D^2 - d^2)}{2 * d* D^2}[/tex]

Substituting values

                [tex]P_B = \frac{(0.005) (207 *10^{3} ) * (70^2 - 50^2))}{2 * (50) (70) ^2 }[/tex]

                 [tex]P_B = 5.069 MPa[/tex]

Now he axial force required is

             [tex]P = \mu * P_B * A[/tex]

Where A is the area which is mathematically evaluated as

               [tex]\pi d l[/tex]

So   [tex]P = \mu P_B \pi d l[/tex]

Substituting values

      [tex]P = 0.2 * 5.069 * 3.142 * 50 * 100[/tex]

       [tex]P = 15.93 k N[/tex]

Final answer:

The volume of a balloon decreases when its temperature is suddenly lowered, in accordance with Charles's Law, because the gas particles inside the balloon move less vigorously due to a decrease in their average kinetic energy.

Explanation:

When the temperature of a balloon decreases suddenly, according to Charles's Law, the volume of the gas inside the balloon also decreases, assuming that all other conditions, such as pressure and the amount of gas, remain constant. This occurs because a decrease in temperature leads to a decrease in the average kinetic energy of the gas particles, meaning they move less vigorously and occupy less space. Therefore, the correct answer to the question would be D. Its volume would decrease.

Answer:

Find the attachments for complete solution

The principle of superposition can be used in conjunction with the Biot-Savart (or Ampere's) law to calculate the magnetic field due to a combination of current-carrying wires. Ampere's law is a more general law that relates the magnetic field to the total current passing through a closed loop.

The principle of superposition can be used in conjunction with the Biot-Savart (or Ampere's) law to calculate the magnetic field due to a combination of current-carrying wires. The Biot-Savart law allows us to calculate the magnetic field at any point due to an element of current in a wire. By integrating this law over the entire length of the wires and applying the principle of superposition, we can determine the total magnetic field produced by multiple wires.

For example, if we have two parallel wires carrying currents I1 and I2, the total magnetic field at a point due to both wires can be found by summing the individual magnetic fields produced by each wire using the Biot-Savart law.

It is important to note that Ampere's law can also be used to determine the magnetic field produced by current-carrying wires. It is a more general law that relates the magnetic field to the total current passing through a closed loop. The results obtained from Ampere's law are consistent with the Biot-Savart law.

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Answer:40000kg•m/s

Explanation:

momentum=20000kg•m/s

Since they velocity is doubled

Momentum would also be doubled, therefore momentum would be 40000kg•m/s

Answer:

C: 40,000 kg · m/s

Explanation:

I got it right on edg :)

Answer:

The maximum amount of work is  [tex]W = 1563.289 \ J[/tex]

Explanation:

From  the question we are told that

   The temperature of the environment is  [tex]T = 280\ K[/tex]

    The volume of container A is  [tex]V_A = 2 m^3[/tex]

    Initially the number of moles  is  [tex]n = 1.2 \ moles[/tex]

     The volume of container B is [tex]V_B = 3.5 \ m^3[/tex]

At equilibrium of the gas the maximum work that can be done on the turbine is mathematically represented as

             [tex]W = P_A V_A ln[ \frac{V_B}{V_A} ][/tex]

Now from the Ideal gas law

          [tex]P_A V_A = nRT[/tex]

So substituting for [tex]P_A V_A[/tex] in the equation above

          [tex]W = nRT ln [\frac{V_B}{V_A} ][/tex]

Where R is the gas constant with a values of  [tex]R = 8.314 \ J/mol[/tex]

Substituting values we have that

            [tex]W = 1.2 * (8.314) * (280) * ln [\frac{3.5}{2} ][/tex]

          [tex]W = 1563.289 \ J[/tex]

The maximum amount of work done on the turbine can be found by calculating the change in internal energy of the gas as it reaches equilibrium. The work done on the turbine is given by the difference in pressure between the initial and final states of the gas, multiplied by the change in volume. In this case, the maximum work done on the turbine is (nRT/VA)(VB - VA).

When the valve is opened and the gas flows from container A to container B, the gas will expand and reach equilibrium. Since the process is isothermal, the temperature remains constant at T = 280K. To find the maximum work done on the turbine, we need to calculate the change in internal energy of the gas using the equation ΔU = Q - W, where ΔU is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat added to the gas, and W is the work done on the gas. For an ideal monatomic gas, the internal energy is given by U=1.5nRT, where n is the number of moles, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature. In this case, we have n = 1.2 moles, V = 2m3 for container A, and V = 3.5m3 for container B. Therefore, the total volume is V = VA + VB = 5.5m3. Using the ideal gas law PV = nRT, we can find the initial pressure of the gas in container A, which is P = nRT/VA. Since the gas expands to fill both containers at equilibrium, the final pressure is P = nRT/V. The work done on the turbine is given by W = P(VB - VA). Plugging in the values, we find that the maximum work done on the turbine is W = (nRT/VA)(VB - VA).

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Answer:

The answer is d. Twice as great.

Explanation:

The German physicist and mathematician Georg Simon Ohm says in his basic law of electrical circuits or Ohm's law that the potential difference V that is applied at the ends of a conductor is proportional to the intensity I of the current that circulates and that the electrical resistance R is the ratio factor between I and V.

The equation would be I = V / R

If by any chance R is reduced because it is inversely proportional, the current would increase.

So if the current goes from 10 to half 5, its current would double.

Answer:2.4m

Explanation:

Velocity=360m/s

Frequency=150Hz

Wavelength=velocity ➗ frequency

Wavelength=360 ➗ 150

Wavelength=2.4m

Final answer:

The wavelength of a sound wave traveling at 360 m/s and a frequency of 150 Hz is 2.4 m.

Explanation:

The wavelength of a sound wave can be calculated using the equation:

λ = v / ƒ

where λ is the wavelength, v is the speed of sound, and ƒ is the frequency of the sound wave. Given that the speed of sound is 360 m/s and the frequency is 150 Hz, we can substitute these values into the equation:

λ = 360 m/s / 150 Hz = 2.4 m

Therefore, the wavelength of the sound wave is 2.4 m.

Answer:

it refers to temperature I did test with the same question and got it correct.

Explanation:

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Kindly check the attached image below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.

Answer:

c. an aperture

Explanation:

Aperture: It relates to the size of the opening, like a doorway, through which light moves into the eye, camera lens or a telescope. In human eye aperture is known as pupil, the black part in the center of the eye. The size of the pupil can increase or decrease depending upon the amount of light available. The same thing happens with a camera as well. The amount of light passing through the lens can be varied by varying the size of the aperture.

Answer:

B = 0.204T

Explanation:

To find the value of the magnetic force you use the following formula:

[tex]F_B=ILBsin\theta[/tex]

I: current of the copper rod = 45A

B: magnitude of the magnetic field

L: 0.78m

you assume that magnetic field B and current I are perpendicular between them.

The magnetic force must be, at least, equal to the friction force, that is:

[tex]F_{f}=F_{B}\\\\\mu N=\mu Mg=ILB\\\\B=\frac{\mu Mg}{IL}[/tex]

M: mass of the rod = 1.20kg

μ: coefficient of static friction = 0.61

g: gravitational acceleration constant = 9.8m/s^2

By replacing the values of the parameters you obtain:

[tex]B=\frac{(0.61)(1.20kg)(9.8m/s^2)}{(45A)(0.78m)}=0.204T[/tex]

Answer:

The magnitude of the smallest magnetic field is [tex]B = 0.1744 \ T[/tex]  

Explanation:

  From the question we are told that

      The mass of the copper is  [tex]m = 1.20 kg[/tex]

       The distance of separation for the rails is  [tex]d = 0.78 \ m[/tex]

        The current is  [tex]I = 45 A[/tex]

        The coefficient of static friction is [tex]\mu = 0.61[/tex]

The force acting along the vertical axis is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F = mg - F_y[/tex]

Where  [tex]F_y[/tex] is the force acting on copper rod due to the magnetic field generated this is mathematically represented as

         [tex]F_y = I * d * B_1[/tex]

The magnetic field here is  acting towards the west because according to right hand rule magnetic field acting toward the west generate a force acting in the vertical axis

So the equation becomes

         [tex]F = mg - I * d * B_1[/tex]

Here [tex]B_1 = B sin \theta[/tex]

          [tex]F = mg - I * d * Bsin(\theta )[/tex]

 The in the horizontal axis is mathematically represented as

         [tex]F_H = ma + F_x[/tex]

 Since the rod is about to move it acceleration is  zero

     Now [tex]F_x[/tex] is the force acting in the horizontal direction due to the magnetic field acting downward this is because a  according to right hand rule magnetic field acting downward generate a force acting in the horizontal positive horizontal direction.  this mathematically represented as

         [tex]F_H = 0 + I * d * B_2[/tex]

So the equation becomes

            [tex]F_H = I * d * B_2[/tex]

Here   [tex]B_2 = B cos \theta[/tex]

          [tex]F_H = I * d * Bcos (\theta)[/tex]

    Now the frictional force acting on this rod is mathematically represented as

          [tex]F_F = \mu * F[/tex]

         [tex]F_F = \mu * (mg -( I * d * Bsin(\theta )))[/tex]

Now when the rod is at the verge of movement

          [tex]F_H = F_F[/tex]

So     [tex]I * d * Bcos (\theta) = \mu * (mg -( I * d * Bsin(\theta )))[/tex]

=>    [tex]B = \frac{\mu mg }{I * d (cos \theta + \mu (sin \theta ))}[/tex]

   Now [tex]\theta[/tex] is the is the angle of the magnetic field  makes with the vertical and the horizontal and this can be mathematically evaluated as

                [tex]\theta = tan^{-1} (\mu )[/tex]

Substituting value

                [tex]\theta = tan^{-1} ( 0.61 )[/tex]

                [tex]\theta = 31.38^o[/tex]

Substituting values into the equation for B

          [tex]B = \frac{0.61 (1.20) (9.8)}{(45) (0.78) (cos (31.38) + 0.61 (sin (31.38)) )}[/tex]

               [tex]B = 0.1744 \ T[/tex]

Answer:

N / NEWTONS

Explanation:

Named after Isaac Newton, the man who discovered gravity

Answer:

newtons and the symbol is N

Explanation:

Answer:

a) toward the pursuit

b) 0.384c

Explanation:

a) The velocity of the cruiser relative to the pursuit should be toward the pursuit.

b) To find the speed of the cruiser relative to the pursuit ship you use the following formula:

[tex]u'=\frac{u-v}{1-\frac{uv}{c^2}}[/tex]

v: velocity of the cruiser as seen by Tatooine

u: velocity of the pursuit ship as seen by Tatooine

c: speed of light

By replacing the values of the parameters you obtain:

[tex]u'=\frac{0.800c-0.600c}{1-\frac{(0.800)(0.600)c^2}{c^2}}=0.384c[/tex]

When accounting for relativistic velocity addition, the velocity of the cruiser relative to the pursuit ship should be directed towards the pursuit ship for it to be 'caught up' with. The cruiser's relative speed is about -0.429c from the perspective of the pursuit ship.

From the perspective of the observer on Tatooine, the cruiser is moving away from the planet at a speed of 0.600c and the pursuit ship is moving in the same direction at a speed of 0.800c. To figure out these velocities in a relative sense, we must use the theory of relativity, specifically the concept of relativistic velocity addition. In classical physics, velocities simply add or subtract, but this isn't the case when dealing with speeds close to the speed of light.

(a) For the pursuit ship to catch up with the cruiser, the velocity of the cruiser relative to the pursuit ship should be directed towards the pursuit ship.

(b) When solving for the relative speed of the cruiser from the perspective of the pursuit ship, we use the formula for relativistic velocity addition: V'=(v-u)/(1-(uv/c^2)). In this case, v is the speed of the cruiser (0.600c), u is the speed of the pursuit spacecraft (0.800c), and c is the speed of light. Plugging in the values, you will find that the speed of the cruiser relative to the pursuit ship is approximately -0.429c (where the minus sign indicates the cruiser is moving towards the pursuit ship relative to the pursuit ship's frame of reference).

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