Answer:
The predictive value of a positive test is:
B. 18.2%
Explanation:
You are studying a disorder that is based on the genetic composition at three loci. Assume that a dominant allele at any locus adds 6 units of risk for the disorder and that a recessive allele at any locus adds 2 units of risk for the disorder. Individuals with 29 or more units of risk develop the disorder. The environment does not affect the presence or absence of this disorder.How many risk units will be present in an individual of genotype AABbCc?
Answer:
28 risk units
Explanation:
This is a classic case of quantitative genetics. The trait is not controlled discretely by dominant and recessive allele and rather shows a "continuous" effect. Such a trait is usually controlled by multiple genes. Each allele adds something to the trait and contribution by dominant allele is more than the contribution by recessive allele.
Here, dominant allele adds 6 units of risk and recessive allele adds 2 units of risk for the disorder. Three genes control the disorder phenotype. An individual with AABbCc genotype has four dominant alleles (AABC) and two recessive alleles (bc) hence the total risk units for this person will be:
(4 *6) + (2*2) = 24 + 4 = 28 units
What type of mutation occurred for mutated sequence #1 and what was the result?
Substitution --Silent mutation
Addition -- Frameshift
Deletion --Missense
Substitution -- Missense
Addition type of mutation occurred for mutated sequence and Frameshift was the result
Explanation:
Deletion, insertion happens in frameshift mutation. In this process bases are that are either subtracted or added and not divisible by three. When nucleotides replaced another frameshift, mutation don’t include the substitution.
It Is the most deleterious change to the coding sequence of protein. It has capability for leading a premature end to the translation of mRNA and also formation of extended polypeptide. It is also called framing error
Answer:
Addition Frameshift.
Explanation:
For a pair of genes with alleles: A (dominant) a (recessive) at the first locus; and B (dominant) b (recessive) at the second locus, that operate in a duplicate dominant epistatic manner, what proportion of offspring from a doubly-heterozygous mating are expected to show the recessive phenotype? A. 0.5. B. 1 (it's dominant). C. 15/16. D. 9/16. E. 1/16.
Answer:
E. 1/16
Explanation:
In a duplicate dominant epistasis, when one locus presents a dominant genotype and the other presents a recessive genotype, the dominant one hides the effective of the recessive gene. Therefore, a recessive phenotype will only be observed when both genes are recessive homozygous (aabb).
Assuming a doubly-heterozygous mating (AaBb x AaBb), the probability that both genes are recessive homozygous is:
[tex]P=\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}\\P =\frac{1}{16}[/tex]
1/16 of offspring are expected to show the recessive phenotype.
If Mary is going for an ultrasound during her pregnancy, she will be able to:a. Clearly see the baby's face and body.b. Find out if the baby has a genetic disease.c. Find out who the baby's father is.d. Find out if the baby will look like her.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Clearly see the baby's face and body.
An ultrasound during pregnancy allows for the visualization of the baby's body and sometimes face, but can't reveal genetic diseases, paternity, or accurately predict physical resemblances.
Explanation:During an ultrasound in pregnancy, Mary will be able to clearly see the baby's body and sometimes the face, depending on the stage of the pregnancy and the positioning of the fetus (a). However, ultrasounds cannot allow Mary to find out if the baby has a genetic disease (b), who the baby's father is (c), or predict specific features such as whether or not the baby will look like her (d). For genetic information, procedures like amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling might be suggested. Paternity can only be determined through a DNA test, and physical traits like the baby's looks cannot be accurately determined until birth.
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The nerves of the GI tract are collectively known as the enteric nervous system.
Below is the full question:
The nerves of the GI tract are ______
(a) collectively known as the enteric nervous system.
(b) part of the central nervous system.
(c) incapable of acting independently of the brain.
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) collectively known as the enteric nervous system.
Explanation:
The enteric nervous system also called the intrinsic nervous system is part of the autonomy nervous system and it is found in the lining of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
It is responsible for directing the functions of the GI tract.
The nerves of the GI tract are thus collectively known as the enteric nervous system.
In Drosophila, normal eyes are brick red in color. Homozygotes for recessive alleles at the brownlocus (bw/bw) have brown eyes. Homozygotes for recessive alleles at the cinnabar locus (cn/cn) have bright red eyes. The two genes interact: bw/bw; cn/cn have white eyes. If a pure-breeding brown is crossed to a pure-breeding cinnabar fly, color eyes will the F1 have and what proportion of the F2 will be white?
A.brown, 3/16
B.brick red, 9/16
C.bright red, 3/16
D.brick red, 1/16
E.answers not shown in those given here.
Answer:
answer is d
Explanation:
THe answer is D because this is dihybrid cross and we cross bwbw RR( normal red eye gene) x RR cncn. The F1 progeny has R in all locus of these genes so all will be R as heterozygous. When F1 progeny crossed, the 1/4 of bw cross and 1/4 of cn cross habe bwbw/cncn and will be white. So it will be 1/4x1/4 = 1/16
Hormones come in three categories. BLANK circulate in the blood and act at sites distant from their origin; BLANK pass through ducts; and BLANK act on their local tissue environment.
Paracrines
Exocrines
Endocrines
Answer:
ENDOCRINES circulate in the blood and act at sites distant from their origin;
EXOCRINES pass through ducts;
and PARACRINES act on their local tissue environment.
Explanation:
Exocrines are known for producing external secretions that are released through a duct, usually into the digestive system or the skin
Endocrine are known for producing internal secretions called HORMONES that are transported around the body by the bloodstream. They are also called ductless glands.
Paracrines are known for producing hormones that act on his immediate location or producing gland
Draw conclusions: Natural selectionis the process by which favorable traits tend to increase in frequency over time. How does this experiment illustrate natural selection?_This experiment illustrated this by showing how population were affected by the color____of moths in relation to the color of the tree bark. The light moths with light trees increased__because they had favorable traits that helped them camouflage better, which therefore, ___increased population_
Answer:
Evolution due to adaptation.
Explanation:
This is very much true to the process of the natural selection and the environment does provide the species with the natural resources and gives term the power to adapt to there surroundings and the experiment given illustrate the same set of conditions and shows that how the population of the peppered/light moths takes place as the change in the color of the species increases its survival rates.A fatty acid that contains a chain of ten carbons and one double bond is termed a fatty acid.A. saturated, medium chainB. saturated, long chainC. monounsaturated, medium chainD. monounsaturated, long chain
Answer:
C. monounsaturated, medium-chain fatty acid
Explanation:
Fatty acids are carboxylic acids and have hydrocarbon chains that are mostly four to 36 carbons long. A fatty acid with only single bonds but no double bonds is said to be a saturated fatty acid. The presence of one or more double bonds makes the fatty acids unsaturated ones.
A fatty acid with one double bond is a monounsaturated (mono= one) fatty acid. The fatty acids with a chain of 6 or 8 to 12 carbon atoms are said to be a "medium-chain" fatty acid. Therefore, a fatty acid that contains a chain of ten carbons and one double bond is a "monounsaturated, medium-chain fatty acid".
Weight change can be a positive step towards better health, but it should be achieved in a healthful way. Achieving this through disordered eating can lead to a wide range of complications and health implications.
Please choose the correct statements about disordered eating.
Select all that apply.
1- A person who obsesses over "clean" eating may have disordered eating habits, even if energy intake is adequate.
2- Anorexia is the only eating disorder that is life-threatening.
3- Individuals with bulimia nervosa always purge by vomiting.
4- Very low calorie diets can lead to dangerous electrolyte imbalances.
5- An individual can have disordered eating habits without having a clinically diagnosed eating disorder.
Final answer:
Disordered eating includes a range of harmful dietary habits and can lead to serious health issues. A focus on 'clean' eating can be a sign of disordered eating, and very low calorie diets can result in electrolyte imbalances. All major eating disorders, not just anorexia, can potentially be life-threatening, and there are various behaviors associated with bulimia beyond vomiting.
Explanation:
Disordered eating can present itself through various behaviors and does have significant health implications if not addressed properly. Let’s clarify which statements about disordered eating are correct:
A person who obsesses over "clean" eating may have disordered eating habits, even if energy intake is adequate. This statement is correct because an obsession with eating foods that are considered 'clean' or 'pure' can be indicative of an underlying issue with food and self-control, regardless of the adequacy of energy intake.Anorexia is not the only eating disorder that is life-threatening. Bulimia nervosa, binge eating disorder, and other eating disorders can also have serious health consequences.Individuals with bulimia nervosa do not always purge by vomiting. They may use other methods such as excessive exercise, fasting, or the use of laxatives and diuretics.Very low calorie diets can lead to dangerous electrolyte imbalances. This is a correct statement as such diets can disrupt the balance of minerals necessary for vital organ functions.An individual can have disordered eating habits without having a clinically diagnosed eating disorder, which is also true. Disordered eating includes a range of irregular eating behaviors that may or may not warrant an eating disorder diagnosis.Food mutagens can cause many different types of DNA damage, from single nucleotide alterations to gross chromosomal aberrations. Which of the following are known mutagens in today’s conventional diet?
a. Nitrates and nitrites (N-nitrosamines), naturally occurring chemical compounds that are legal preservatives used to suppress harmful bacteria in a variety of cured meats and some cheeses.
b. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs); food contamination by PAHs arises from processing of food (drying, smoking) and cooking of food at high temperatures (grilling, frying, roasting).
c. Heterocyclic amines (HCAs), many of which are present in burnt and charred foods, especially blackened meat.
d. All the above
e. None of the above
Answer:
The correct option is D. All of the above.
Explanation:
known mutagens in today’s conventional diet includes:
1.)Nitrates and nitrites (N-nitrosamines), naturally occurring chemical compounds that are legal preservatives used to suppress harmful bacteria in a variety of cured meats and some cheeses.
2.)Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs); food contamination by PAHs arises from processing of food (drying, smoking) and cooking of food at high temperatures (grilling, frying, roasting).
3.) Heterocyclic amines (HCAs), many of which are present in burnt and charred foods, especially blackened meat.
8. Complementary bases in DNA bond to each other via a. Hydrophobic interactions b. Covalent bonds c. Strong ionic interactions d. Weak H-bonds between partial (+) charge of H and partial (-) charge from the unpaired electron of N or O e. Weak H-bonds between partial (-) charge of H and partial (+) charge from the unpaired electron of N or O
Answer:
Weak H-bonds between partial (+) charge of H and partial (-) charge from the unpaired electron of N or O.
Explanation:
_________provide essential information about research projects to potential study participants so that they can make a reasoned decision about whether to enroll in the study
A. Surveys
B. Interviews
C. Informed consent statements
D. Research protocols
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Informed consent is a document or process that aims at providing research relevant information (all key elements) to the participants. It is a practice followed to cater the ethical issues involved in the research.
A written consent document is provided to the participants and they are asked to provide their approval and consent on the same.
Hence, option C is correct
Some people have freckles, and some people do not have freckles. If a child has freckles, at least one parent has freckles. However, the child may have a sibling that does not have freckles. Which statement best describes the presence of freckles? Freckles are not determined by DNA. There are two alleles for freckles. There is no dominant allele for freckles. Freckles are determined by two genes instead of by one.
The statement that correctly describes the presence of freckles is there are two alleles for freckles, hence option B is correct.
What is alleles?An allele is a variation of the same sequence of nucleotides at the same place on a long DNA molecule, as described in leading textbooks on genetics and evolution.
Small, brownish to reddish dots on your skin are known as freckles. They frequently appear on your face, neck, back, upper chest, hands, and arms, as well as other sun-exposed places. Even though freckles are typically not harmful, it is always a good idea to keep an eye out for any changes.
Therefore, the statement that correctly describes the presence of freckles is there are two alleles for freckles, hence option B is correct.
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Trace minerals are needed in much smaller amounts than major minerals, but they are just as essential for good health. They are stable in cooking, and the amounts found in plant foods are somewhat dependent on mineral content of the soil where those foods are grown. Some are removed during processing, so whole grains are higher in trace minerals than refined grains are. This section will review these substances.
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
zinc
manganese
copper
heme iron
nonheme iron
fluoride
selenium
1. --------------------- is found in animal foods like meat and poultry, whereas the-------------------- form is found in plant foods like grains and vegetables.
2. The metal and trace mineral ------------------------------ is part of several enzymes and proteins.
3. Adequate ------------------------------------------- is important for maintaining a healthy immune system and may aid in wound healing.
4. ------------------------------- acts as an antioxidant and aids in thyroid function.
5. ----------------------------------- is not considered essential, but it is very important for maintaining strong, healthy teeth.
6. The deficiency disease goiter was much more common before -------------------------was added to salt in the United States.
7. --------------------------------acts as a cofactor for a variety of enzymes and also plays a role in synthesis of bone.
Trace minerals, including heme iron, nonheme iron, manganese, zinc, selenium, fluoride, and copper, have various functions essential to our health, such as supporting the immune system, acting as a cofactor for enzymes, and maintaining healthy teeth and thyroid function.
Explanation:Trace minerals are essential for good health, aiding in various important bodily functions. Here's how the given trace minerals match with the sentences provided:
heme iron is found in animal foods like meat and poultry, whereas the nonheme iron form is found in plant foods like grains and vegetables.The metal and trace mineral manganese is part of several enzymes and proteins.Adequate zinc is important for maintaining a healthy immune system and may aid in wound healing.Selenium acts as an antioxidant and aids in thyroid function.Fluoride is not considered essential, but it is very important for maintaining strong, healthy teeth.The deficiency disease goiter was much more common before iodine was added to salt in the United States.Copper acts as a cofactor for a variety of enzymes and also plays a role in synthesis of bone.Remember, while some trace minerals can be lost during the processing of foods, eating a varied diet with whole foods such as whole grains, seafood, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and legumes can help ensure adequate intake of these essential nutrients.
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Final answer:
Trace minerals such as zinc, manganese, copper, heme iron, nonheme iron, fluoride, selenium, and iodized salt are matched with their specific functions or characteristics, highlighting their importance in health.
Explanation:
The activity requires matching specific trace minerals to their functions or characteristics. Here are the matches based on the information provided:
Heme iron is found in animal foods like meat and poultry, whereas the nonheme iron form is found in plant foods like grains and vegetables.The metal and trace mineral manganese is part of several enzymes and proteins.Adequate zinc is important for maintaining a healthy immune system and may aid in wound healing.Selenium acts as an antioxidant and aids in thyroid function.Fluoride is not considered essential, but it is very important for maintaining strong, healthy teeth.The deficiency disease goiter was much more common before iodized salt was added to salt in the United States.Copper acts as a cofactor for a variety of enzymes and also plays a role in the synthesis of bone.In sickle-cell disease, a glutamate -> valine substitution results in the formation of Hb5 (sickle cell hemoglobin) molecules that: a. Stabilize the wall of the red blood cell against oxidative damage b. aggregate abnormally to form fibers and cannot adequately carry oxygen c. have abnormally High Affinity to bind oxygen d. cause high levels of repulsion between neighboring Hb5 molecules
Answer:
b. aggregate abnormally to form fibers and cannot adequately carry oxygen
Explanation:
The sickle cell hemoglobin is an abnormal form of hemoglobin. As the sickle cell hemoglobin release oxygen to the interstitial fluid, it forms long, stiff, and rod-like fibers. These aggregates of hemoglobin tend to bend the erythrocyte into a sickle shape. The sickled erythrocytes rupture easily and do not move easily through blood vessels. Sickled cells tend to stick together and form clumps which in turn cause blockages in blood vessels. Therefore, the presence of sickle cell hemoglobin adversely affects the ability of RBCs to carry oxygen.
What can the sperm do inside the fallopian tube in order to get as many nutrients as possible?
Final answer:
Once inside the fallopian tube, tubular fluids help carry the sperm toward the secondary oocyte, where the egg releases molecules that allow the sperm to attach and be absorbed for fertilization.
Explanation:
In order to get as many nutrients as possible, once the sperm enters the fallopian tube, tubular fluids help carry them through the tube toward the secondary oocyte at the other end. The secondary oocyte releases molecules that guide the sperm and allow the surface of the egg to attach to the surface of the sperm. The egg can then absorb the sperm, allowing fertilization to occur.
The principle underlying how salmon were genetically engineered to grow faster is the_________. A) removal of a gene responsible for feeling full after eating. B) replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production. C) resistance to bacterial infections which waste metabolic energy in the salmon to fight off. D) addition of genes to enhance blood circulation and tissue development.
Answer: option B - replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production.
Explanation:
During Inducible hormone production, the hormones secreted are highly regulated; however, during constitutive hormone production there is direct secretion/release of synthesized hormones from secretory vesicles to the target organs.
Hence, genetically engineered Salmons have their growth hormone on active secretion REGARDLESS of seasons, thus their growth is faster and all-year round.
The Vocabulary of Nutrition for Children, Adolescents, and Older Adults
In order to understand nutrition-related problems that occur within different age groups, you must first be able to use the vocabulary. Review the sentences below and select the term that best completes the sentence.
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
picky eating
peak bone mass
life expectancy
obesity
arthritis
bone mineral density (BMD)
food jag
congregate meal
food insecurity
epiphyseal plates
1. ---------------------- usually involves avoidance of new foods, while a---------------------------------- represents a preference for a certain limited number of foods at the exclusion of others.
Answer: 1.Picky eat and food jag.
2.Epiphysial plate 3. Peak bone mass.
4.Obesity. 5. Food insecurity.6.life expectancy.7.anthiritis 8. Congregate meal.
Completion of question.
2. Adolescent bone growth occurs along the -------------------------------------- .
3. In healthy individuals,--------------------------- increases through early adulthood.
4. Rates of ------------------------------------- have doubled in children in the past 30 years.
5. Many older adults experience ------------------------------------- due to factors like limited income, poor health, or impaired mobility.
6. For individuals born around 1900, the ------------------------------ was around 47 years.
7. Severe ---------------------------------------- can impact mobility, making it difficult to obtain and prepare meals.
8. A ------------------------------------------------- can provide nutritious food and socialization for older adults.
Explanation:
True/False
A microphyll is a simple leaf with only one vasuclar bundle.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
microphyll leaves are small leaves with an unbranched vein (simplevascular system) running through the center
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In plant anatomy and evolution a microphyll (or lycophyll) is a type of plant leaf with one single, unbranched leaf vein. Few of plants with microphyll leaves exist today.
There are three layers of neurons in the retina.
Тhe axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?
a. rod cells
b. bipolar cells
c. cone cells
d. ganglion cells
Answer:
d. ganglion cells
Explanation:
There are 10 ten layers of retina from outermost to innermost:
Layer of retinal pigment epithelium ( this is the outermost layer of retina)Layers of rods and cones (this is the layer of photoreceptors i.e. the cells that are responsible for vision)External Limiting membrane (also known as Outer limiting membrane, it is a network like structure))Outer Nuclear Layer (this layer contains the nuclei of rods and cones i.e. photoreceptors)Outer plexiform Layer (this layer contains synapses of rods and cones i.e. photoreceptors with dendrites of bipolar cells)Inner Nuclear Layer (this layer contains nuclei of bipolar cells)Inner plexiform Layer (this layer contains synapses of bipolar cells with dendrites of ganglion cells)Ganglion cell layer (this layer contains nuclei of ganglion cells)Nerve fiber layer (this layer contains axons of ganglion cells, it is these axons that form the optic nerve)Internal limiting membrane (this layer lies next to the vitreous body which is a jelly-like, transparent substance that fills the space between the retina and the lens)QUESTION:
a. rod cells
This is the incorrect answer choice as the axons of rods synapse with dendrites of bipolar cells in outer plexiform layer.
b. bipolar cells
This is the incorrect answer choice as the axons of bipolar cells synapse with dendrites of ganglion cells in inner plexiform layer.
c. cone cells
This is the incorrect answer choice as the axons of cones synapse with dendrites of bipolar cells in outer plexiform layer.
d. ganglion cells
This is the correct answer choice as axons of ganglion cells form the fibers of optic nerve (Cranial Nerve II/ CNII).
Originally a marine species, stickleback fish now live in both marine and freshwater environments. Marine sticklebacks have pelvic spines that protect them from marine predators. Freshwater sticklebacks do not have pelvic spines, which reduces their likelihood of being caught by freshwater predators that can grasp onto these spines. The lack of spines in freshwater sticklebacks results from a heritable mutation that modifies the function of the Pitx1gene. This mutation occurred:
a.
in the mRNA that is transcribed from the Pitx1 gene in pelvic cells.
b.
in the regulatory region of the Pitx1 gene.
c.
in the coding region of the Pitx1 gene.
d.
in the cells of the pelvis of freshwater sticklebacks.
Answer: option c - in the coding region of the Pitx1 gene
Explanation:
Note that there is LACK OF SPINE, not the presence of defective spine; so, an heritable mutation must have occurred in the coding region of pix1 gene of freshwater sticklebacks resulting in absolute LACK OF SPINE
Final answer:
The lack of pelvic spines in freshwater sticklebacks is due to a mutation in the regulatory region of the Pitx1 gene, specifically in an enhancer sequence upstream of the gene's exons, which affects gene expression in the pelvic area.
Explanation:
The mutation that resulted in freshwater sticklebacks lacking pelvic spines, compared to their marine counterparts, occurred in the regulatory region of the Pitx1 gene. This finding was reported in a significant study published in the Nature journal on April 15, 2004. The mutation affects a noncoding region, specifically an enhancer sequence upstream of the Pitx1 gene exons. This enhancer, when unmutated, activates the Pitx1 gene in the developing pelvic area, leading to the development of spines. However, in freshwater sticklebacks, a mutation in this regulatory region prevents the expression of Pitx1 in the pelvic region, thereby inhibiting the growth of pelvic spines. This adaptation likely offers a survival advantage in freshwater environments where being spineless decreases the likelihood of predation from certain types of predators.
You are a graduate student working with isolated aortic rings in a muscle bath. You measure vessel contraction (force in mN) in response to compounds that are thought to bind to G protein coupled receptors. When you expose aortic rings to drug X alone you get no response. When you expose the aorta to drug Y alone the vessel contracts generating a force of 17mN. When you expose the aorta to drugs X and Y together the aorta contracts more than with drug Y alone and generates a force of 24mN.
Where on the receptor does drug X bind?
Where on the receptor does drug Y bind?
Explain why drugs X and Y have an additive effect.
Answer:
Explanation:
a) Drug X binds to the secondary site or co-agonist site of the receptor since it has no effect on contraction.
b) Drug Y binds to the primary site or agonist site of the receptor since it elicits contraction when aorta is exposed to it.
c) Drugs X and Y have a synergistic effect because the sum of their forces measured independently is larger than when they are tested simultaneously.
____ transports large substances, such as viruses, and pinocytosis transports small substances, such as macromolecules, into cells.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- Phagocytosis
Explanation:
Phagocytosis or cell eating is a process performed by the living cell in which the cell engulfs or ingests the foreign material.
The engulfed material is usually a macromolecule or large substance which could be either another living cell or the organic compounds or some debris. The engulfed material through phagocytosis process is transported inside the cell through vesicles formed.
Thus, Phagocytosis is the correct answer.
Answer:
Endocytosis
Explanation:
Endocytosis: is a type of active transport that moves or transports particles, such as large molecules, parts of cells, and even whole cells, into a cell.
The ability of the human body to break down the red color in beets is controlled by an autosomal dominant allele. The inability is recessive, detected by red coloration of the urine (we will call this phenotype 'secretor'). If a nonsecretor woman with a secretor father has children with a nonsecretor man who in a previous relationship had a secretor daughter, what is the probability that their first child will be a secretor girl?A)1/2B)1/4C)1/8D)3/8E)1/3
Answer:
c. 1/8
Explanation:
Let's assume that the recessive allele "s" gives the "secretor" phenotype in the homozygous state while the dominant allele "S" is responsible for the "nonsecretor" phenotype.
According to the given information, the nonsecretor woman has a “secretor” father (ss). This makes the woman heterozygous dominant (Ss) for the trait. Likewise, the man has a “secretor” daughter (ss) from the previous relationship. Therefore, the man is also heterozygous dominant (Ss) for the trait.
A cross between two heterozygous dominant parents (Ss x Ss) would produce progeny in following ratio= 3/4 Nonsecretor (1/4 SS and 1/2 Ss): 1/4 Secretor (1/4 ss)
During each reproductive cycle, there are 1/2 chances for a couple to have a girl child (XX x XY= 1/2 XX: 1/2 XY). Therefore, the probability that their first child will be a “secretor girl”= 1/4 x 1/2= 1/8 .
how are the trait groups organized? are they organized like they were for your independently designed lizards, or like they were for your evolved lizards?
Answer:
By using the subsets.
Explanation:
Evolution is the change in the species characteristics with the changing environment and the passage of the time. Different ideas has been put forward by the scientists to study the evolution.
The organization of the trait groups can be done by using the different subsets. Different sets can be used for example A and B. The set A that is used can be used as the subset of the B group and vice-versa. The traits present in the A set must be present in the B subset as well.
Thus, the answer is by using the subsets.
Explanation:
The resulting pattern is very distinguishable from the patterns of traits created by individual development as evolution creates species whose evolutionary developments become defeats. For evolution that lacks traits the groups for shared traits are nestled within each other while the groups with shared traits produced by individual design converge in an unsystematic way and display no trend.
Independent development is likely to create species whose characteristics are arranged just as We found, because the characteristics were given to the lizards individually instead of originating from a common ancestor, so that some of the lizards have completely different characteristics than another lizard or may have a characteristic that none of the other lizards have ever had.
The best sites for tidal hydroelectric plants are Select one:
a. fast flowing rivers near the coast.
b. near small islands in the Pacific Ocean.
c. bays with narrow openings.
d. adjacent to wide beaches near the equator.
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
Some of the prominent characteristics of site for a hydroelectric power plant are as follows –
A) Sufficient amount of flow
B) Good head or height
C) Site must be confined in order to reduce construction cost and it must have good access.
D) Must not be environmentally sensitive.
Considering the above point, it is clear that “flow” or speed of water is a prominent characteristic to determine the location of hydroelectric power plant. Keeping this in mind the most prominent site would be option A.
Heart rate, respiration, blood pressure and other functions vital to maintain life are controlled by the _____
Heart rate, respiration, blood pressure and other functions vital to maintain life are controlled by the brain stem.
The brain stem is made up of midbrain, pons, and medulla which is located beneath the limbic system. The limbic system is the part of the brain that is responsible for our behavioural and emotional responses such as feeding, reproduction and fight responses.
Brain stem is responsible for breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure which is vital and necessary functions for our survival so we can conclude that brain stem controls heart rate, respiration, blood pressure and other functions vital to maintain life.
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Suppose you are trying to identify an unknown bacterial species. You perform a Gram stain and the slide is a blue/purple color when you are finished. Are the bacteria gram-positive or gram-negative?
Answer:
IN GRAMS stain bacteria having blue /purple colour are GRAM positive bacteria.
Explanation:
GRAM staining is the technique to differentiate bacteria on the basis of stain. In this procedure bacterial cells with blue/purple colour are Gram positive and cells with pink colour are Gram negative.
PROCEDURE
In the first step cells are stained with crystal violet dye which is blue in color.Then Grams iodine solution is added, it forms a complex between dye and iodine. This complex is insoluble in water.Next step is addition of ethyl alcohol as a decolorizing agent. It shrinks the peptidoglycan layer by dehydrating it. In gram negative bacteria on the treatment of alcohol this complex( crystal violet- iodine complex) comes out from the outer membrane because of thin peptidoglycan layer. Gram negative bacteria lost color and decolorized. While in Gram positive bacteria because of thick peptidoglycan ,crystal violet-iodine complex trapped in the membrane. And cells don't give violet color of dye.After this a counterstain safranine is used, which can not color the stained Gram positive bacteria. Gram negative decolorized bacteria stain pink with safranine.
The blue/purple coloration after a Gram stain identifies the bacteria as Gram-positive, characterized by a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the crystal violet stain.
If you have performed a Gram stain and the slide shows blue/purple color, this indicates that the bacteria are Gram-positive. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet stain used in the procedure.
This thick peptidoglycan layer is characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria and differentiates them from Gram-negative bacteria, which typically appear pink after a Gram stain due to their thinner peptidoglycan layer and presence of an outer membrane.
Heart murmurs caused by a stenotic mitral valve ______.
Choose the correct answer:
A) are heard as a high pitched click when the valve should be—but is not—wide open during systole.
B) are detected due to the turbulent blood flow that occurs as blood backflows into the left atrium
C) are detected if the valve's cusps are thin and flexible
D) All of the listed responses are true.
The correct answer is B. Heart murmurs caused by a stenotic mitral valve are detected due to the turbulent blood flow that occurs as blood backflows into the left atrium.
Explanation:The correct answer to this question is B) are detected due to the turbulent blood flow that occurs as blood backflows into the left atrium. A heart murmur is characterized by the unusual sounds heard during a heartbeat, caused by blood flowing through the heart's chambers and valves or through blood vessels near the heart. Mitral valve stenosis refers to the narrowing of the mitral valve, impeding blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This impeded flow causes turbulence, which can be heard as a heart murmur. The other options given, i.e., a high-pitched click during systole or thin, flexible cusps, are not characteristics of a murmur caused by a stenotic mitral valve.
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