Answer:
Option A.
Explanation:
In quantum physics there is a law to relate the position and the momentum of the particle, it says that if we know with precision where is a quantum particle, we can not know the momentum of this particle, in other words, the velocity of the particle. So, when we measure the velocity of the particle we find the correct value of the particle, but we can not determine with accuracy where is the particle. This law is known as the Heisenberg's uncertainty principle and, its expressed as follows:
[tex] \Delta x \Delta p \geq \frac{h}{4 \pi} [/tex]
where Δx: is the position's uncertainty, Δp: is the momentum's uncertainty and h: is the Planck constant.
Therefore, the correct answer is A: measuring the velocity of a tiny particle with an electromagnet has no effect on the velocity of the particle. It only affects the determination of the particle's position.
I hope it helps you!
What happens to the amount of kinetic energy if the mass is tripled at constant speed?
Answer:
If the mass is tripled, the kinetic energy is also tripled
Explanation:
Kinetic Energy: This is the energy possessed by a body due to motion.
The S.I unit of kinetic energy is Joules.
Mathematically it can be represented as,
Ek = 1/2mv²................ Equation 1
Where Ek = kinetic energy, m = mass, v = velocity of the body.
From the equation above,
(i) Kinetic Energy is directly proportional to mass
(ii) Kinetic energy is directly proportional to velocity squared.
When the mass is tripled,
Ek₁ = 3/2mv².................... Equation 2
Comparing equation 1 and 2,
Ek₁ = 3×Ek
Therefore if the mass is tripled, the kinetic energy is also tripled
Tanungin mo si mama mo Alam nya yan
Explanation:
Or search ka sa google
A physics professor did daredevil stunts in his spare time. His last stunt was an attempt to jump across a river on a motorcycle. The takeoff jump was inclined at 53.0 degrees, the river was 40.0 m wide, and the far bank was 15.0m lower than the top of the ramp. The river itself was 100 m below the ramp. You can ignore air resistance.
a. What should his speed have been at the top of the ramp to have just made it to the edge of the far bank?
b. If his speed was only half the value found in (a), where did he land?
Answer:
a) 17.8 m/s
b) 28.3 m
Explanation:
Given:
angle A = 53.0°
sinA = 0.8
cosA = 0.6
width of the river,d = 40.0 m,
the far bank was 15.0 m lower than the top of the ramp h = 15.0 m,
The river itself was 100 m below the ramp H = 100 m,
(a) find speed v
vertical displacement
[tex]-h= vsinA\times t-gt^2/2[/tex]
putting values h=15 m, v=0.8
[tex]-15 = 0.8vt - 4.9t^2[/tex] ............. (1)
horizontal displacement d = vcosA×t = 0.6×v ×t
so v×t = d/0.6 = 40/0.6
plug it into (1) and get
[tex]-15 = 0.8\times40/0.6 - 4.9t^2[/tex]
solving for t we get
t = 3.734 s
also, v = (40/0.6)/t = 40/(0.6×3.734) = 17.8 m/s
(b) If his speed was only half the value found in (a), where did he land?
v = 17.8/2 = 8.9 m/s
vertical displacement = [tex]-H =v sinA t - gt^2/2[/tex]
⇒ [tex]4.9t^2 - 8.9\times0.8t - 100 = 0[/tex]
t = 5.30 s
then
d =v×cosA×t = 8.9×0.6×5.30= 28.3 m
You observed three different star clusters and found that the main-sequence turnoff stars in cluster 1 had spectral type A, the main-sequence turnoff stars in cluster 2 had spectral type B, and the main-sequence turnoff stars in cluster 3 had spectral type G. Which star cluster is the oldest
The oldest star cluster is cluster 2, which has B type main-sequence turnoff stars. These stars are cooler and less massive, implying that they have been burning their hydrogen fuel longer than the A and G types in the other clusters.
Explanation:The age of a star cluster can be determined by the spectral type of its main-sequence turnoff stars. In the main sequence, stars with higher masses tend to burn out faster because they deplete their hydrogen fuel more quickly. When these stars fuse all their hydrogen, they leave the main sequence, becoming red giants. This point is the 'turn-off' point.
Spectral type is related to a star's mass and temperature. Type A stars are hotter and more massive than type G, who are in turn hotter and more massive than type B. As a result, cluster 1 with the A type turn-off stars is the youngest, followed by the G type in cluster 3 and finally, the B type in cluster 2 is the oldest.
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The oldest star cluster can be determined by looking at the main-sequence turnoff point in an H-R diagram. In this case, the cluster with main-sequence turnoff stars of spectral type G is the oldest.
Explanation:The main-sequence turnoff point in an H-R diagram is a key indicator of the age of a star cluster. The turnoff point represents the stage at which stars begin to leave the main sequence and evolve into red giants. In general, the lower the turnoff point, the older the cluster. Therefore, based on the given information, cluster 3 with main-sequence turnoff stars of spectral type G is the oldest.
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Transform active margins are associated with which type of boundary? Convergent Transform Divergent
Answer:
Transform active margins are associated with which type of boundary?
Transform boundary
Explanation:
The transform boundary is a boundary where one plates(crust) slides past another plate horizontally. This kind of plate movement have been detected to exist between the interaction of the North pacific plates(continental plate) and the pacific plates(oceanic plates) .
At the transform margin the crust are usually broken. But overall crust are neither created nor destroyed . The transform margin region are active as it is marked by shallow-focus earthquakes .
Along the fractured zone where this transform movement occurs is known to create extensive transform faults .Notable transform fault that exist in this kind of boundary(transform) is the San Andrea fault and Alpine Fault.
The motion of this plates can occur on a single fault or on a group of faults.
If you experience __________, do not use brakes, concentrate on steering, slow down gradually, brake softly when the car is under control, and pull completely off the pavement.
Answer:
Tire blowout
Explanation:
Tire Blowout
A tire experiences a blowout when it rapidly and explosively loses the inflation pressure. It can happen when some sharp object cuts or tears the surface and the air is suddenly released, making things worse.
The driver frequently loses control of the traveling direction and can be involved in serious accidents. It is recommended not to use brakes during or after the blowout because it could bring little help or make things worse.
Focusing on steering and let the vehicle softly brake.
A satellite orbits the earth a distance of 1.50 × 107 m above the planet's surface and takes 8.65 hours for each revolution about the earth. The earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m. The acceleration of this satellite is closest to___________.
Answer:
The acceleration of the satellite is [tex]0.87 m/s^{2}[/tex]
Explanation:
The acceleration in a circular motion is defined as:
[tex]a = \frac{v^{2}}{r}[/tex] (1)
Where a is the centripetal acceleration, v the velocity and r is the radius.
The equation of the orbital velocity is defined as
[tex]v = \frac{2 \pi r}{T}[/tex] (2)
Where r is the radius and T is the period
For this particular case, the radius will be the sum of the high of the satellite ([tex]1.50x10^{7} m[/tex]) and the Earth radius ([tex]6.38x10^{6} m[/tex]) :
[tex]r = 1.50x10^{7} m+6.38x10^{6}m [/tex]
[tex]r = 21.38x10^{6}m [/tex]
Then, equation 2 can be used:
[tex]T = 8.65 hrs \cdot \frac{3600 s}{1hrs}[/tex] ⇒ [tex]31140 s[/tex]
[tex]v = \frac{2 \pi (21.38x10^{6}m)}{31140s}[/tex]
[tex]v = 4313 m/s[/tex]
Finally equation 1 can be used:
[tex]a = \frac{(4313m/s)^{2}}{21.38x10^{6}m}[/tex]
[tex]a = 0.87 m/s^{2}[/tex]
Hence, the acceleration of the satellite is [tex]0.87 m/s^{2}[/tex]
The acceleration of the satellite is 0.87 m/s²
The given parameters;
distance of the satellite, r₁ = 1.5 x 10⁷ m
radius of the earth, r₂ = 6.38 x 10⁶ m
time of motion, t = 8.65 hours
The radius of the satellite is calculated as;
R = r₁ + r₂
R = (1.5 x 10⁷) m + (6.38 x 10⁶) m
R = 2.138 x 10⁷ m
The time of motion of the satellite in seconds;
T = 8.65 hours x 3600 s
T = 31,140 s
The velocity of the satellite is calculated as;
[tex]V = \frac{2\pi R}{T} \\\\V = \frac{2\pi \times (2.138\times 10^7)}{31, 140} \\\\V = 4314.45 \ m/s[/tex]
The acceleration of the satellite is calculated as;
[tex]a_c = \frac{V^2}{R} \\\\a_c = \frac{4314.45^2}{2.138\times 10^{7}} \\\\a_c = 0.87 \ m/s^2[/tex]
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In what state must matter exist for fusion reactions to take place
Answer:
Plasma
Explanation:
For a fusion reaction to take place, there must be conditions in which the particles have extreme thermal kinetic energies, in this way the collisions that cause the nuclear fusion are generated. Therefore, it is necessary to reach very high temperatures, in which the state of matter will necessarily be plasma.
what are the charge and the charge density on the surface of a conducting sphere of radius 0.15 m whose potantial is 200v?
Answer:
The charge and the charge density on the surface of a conducting sphere is [tex]3.34\times 10^{-9}\ C[/tex] and [tex]1.18\times 10^{-8}\ C/m^2[/tex] respectively.
Explanation:
It is given that,
Radius of the conducting sphere, r = 0.15 m
Potential, V = 200 V
Potential on the surface of sphere is given by :
[tex]V=\dfrac{kq}{r}[/tex]
q is the charge on the sphere
[tex]q=\dfrac{Vr}{k}[/tex]
[tex]q=\dfrac{200\times 0.15}{9\times 10^9}[/tex]
[tex]q=3.34\times 10^{-9}\ C[/tex]
Charge per unit area is called charge density on the surface. it is given by :
[tex]\sigma=\dfrac{q}{A}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma=\dfrac{q}{4\pi r^2}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma=\dfrac{3.34\times 10^{-9}}{4\pi (0.15)^2}[/tex]
[tex]\sigma=1.18\times 10^{-8}\ C/m^2[/tex]
So, the charge and the charge density on the surface of a conducting sphere is [tex]3.34\times 10^{-9}\ C[/tex] and [tex]1.18\times 10^{-8}\ C/m^2[/tex] respectively. Hence, this is the required solution.
Final answer:
The charge on the conducting sphere with a radius of 0.15 m and a potential of 200V is approximately 3.34 × 10⁻⁶ C, and the surface charge density is approximately 1.18 × 10⁻⁵ C/m².
Explanation:
To find the charge (q) and the surface charge density (σ) on the surface of a conducting sphere with a given potential (V), we can use the relationship between potential, charge, and radius of a sphere, along with the equation that relates charge to surface charge density.
The potential (V) of a conducting sphere is given by V = (k × q)/R, where k is Coulomb's constant (k = 8.99 × 10⁹ N.m²/C²), q is the charge on the sphere, and R is the radius of the sphere.
In this case, V = 200V and R = 0.15m. Using the formula, we can find the charge q on the sphere:
V = (k × q)/R
200V = ((8.99 × 109 N.m²/C²) × q)/0.15m
q = (200V × 0.15m)/(8.99 × 10⁹ N.m²/C²)
q ≈ 3.34 × 10⁻⁶ C
Once we have q, we can use the equation q = σ(4πR2) to find the surface charge density σ:
σ = q / (4πR²)
σ ≈ 3.34 × 10⁻⁶ C / (4π × (0.15m)²)
σ ≈ 1.18 × 10⁻⁵ C/m²
You’re responsible for server room security. You’re concerned about physical theft of computers. Of the following, which would best be able to detect theft or attempted theft?
A) Motion-sensor activated cameras
B) Smart card access to the server rooms
C) Strong deadbolt locks for server rooms
D) Logging everyone who enters the server room
Answer:
A) Motion-sensor activated cameras
Explanation:
Motion sensor activated cameras are the ones which actuate a trigger when any sort of motion is detected by them. They can play alarming sound, send e-mails and zoom the frame of motion as a response to the detected motion.
Motion sensor cameras can be of two types:
1. Fixed view camera
2. Rotating view camera
Fixed view cameras are in fixed position and they always point in the same direction for the view while the rotating cameras are the ones which can change their direction of view.
For a small and high security space we can use the fixed type camera so that we do not miss any suspicious movements. For wide areas and distant vision we use rotating cameras.
How many of following statements about the photoelectric effect are true? (a) The greater the frequency of the incident light is, the greater is the stopping potential. (b) The greater the intensity of the incident light is, the greater is the cutoff frequency. (c) The greater the work function of the target material is, the greater is the stopping potential.
Answer:
(a) The greater the frequency of the incident light is, the greater is the stopping potential.
Explanation:
The stopping potential is crucial to terminate the braking of the photoemitted electrons, stopping the current completely.
Since the kinetic energy of electrons depends on the light's incidence frequency (rather than the intensity), therefore, the stopping potential is proportional to the light's incidence frequency.
The cutoff frequency, in turn, is a limiting frequency below which no photoelectric effect occurs. The cutoff frequency depends on the material from which it is made the emitting surface (and its work function).
What is the formula for the expected number of successes in a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p?
Answer:
np
Explanation:
If
n= number of trials
p= probability of success
then the expected number of successes in a binomial experiment is given by
E(X) = n×p.
standard deviation
σ= √(npq)
where q is probability of failure.
The expected number of successes in a binomial experiment is calculated as μ = np, where 'n' is the number of trials and 'p' is the probability of success on each trial. The trials are independent and occur under identical conditions. The binomial distribution can approximate the normal when np and nq are both greater than five.
Explanation:The formula for the expected number of successes in a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p is given by μ = np, where 'n' denotes the number of independent trials and 'p' represents the probability of success on one trial. For a binomial distribution, there are only two possible outcomes per trial, labeled success and failure. These trials are independent and possess identical conditions. Moreover, the outcomes of a binomial experiment fit a binomial probability distribution. The random variable X signifies the number of successes, with outcomes x = 0, 1, 2, 3, ..., n.
Further, it's crucial to note that the probability of failure, 'q', is represented by q=1-p. So, both np (number of trials times probability of success) and nq (number of trials times probability of failure) should be greater than five (np > 5 and nq > 5) for the binomial distribution of a sample to approximate the normal distribution.
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We have seen in lab that when adhesive tape is pulled from a dispenser, the detached tape has a positive charge. If the tape pulled from the dispenser was electrically neutral before it was pulled, and if it has 0.14 microcoulombs of charge per centimeter after being pulled, approximately what length of tape must be pulled if a total of 1.8 10^13 electrons are transferred during the pulling ?
Answer:
20.6 cm
Explanation:
charge per cm = 0.14 μC
number of electrons (e) = [tex]1.8 x 10^{13}[/tex]
to get the length of tape pulled we can apply the formula below
length of tape = [tex]\frac{magnitude of charge of the electrons}{charge per cm}[/tex]
therefore we need to find the magnitude of the charge of the electrons
1 electron = [tex]1.602 x 10^{-19}[/tex] C[tex]1.8 x 10^{13} electrons = 1.8 x 10^{13} x 1.602 x 10^{-19} = 2.88μC}[/tex]
now that we have the magnitude of the charge, we can find the length of the tape
length of the tape = [tex]\frac{2.88}{0.14}[/tex] = 20.6 cmA length of 20.6 cm of tape must be pulled if a total of 1.8 × 10^13 electrons are transferred during the pulling, given that the tape acquires 0.14 microcoulombs of charge per centimeter.
Explanation:To find out what length of tape must be pulled if a total of 1.8 × 10^13 electrons are transferred during the pulling, we first need to determine the total charge in coulombs transferred to the tape. Since each electron has a charge of approximately -1.602 × 10^-19 coulombs, we can multiply this value by the number of electrons to get the total charge:
Total charge = Number of electrons × Charge per electron = 1.8 × 10^13 × -1.602 × 10^-19 C = -2.8836 × 10^-6 C.
Since the charge is negative and we are looking for the positive charge transferred to the tape, we take the absolute value of this charge. Now, given that each centimeter of tape acquires 0.14 microcoulombs (or 0.14 × 10^-6 C), we can divide the total charge by the charge per centimeter to find the length of the tape:
Length of tape = Total charge / Charge per cm = 2.8836 × 10^-6 C / (0.14 × 10^-6 C/cm) = 20.6 cm
Therefore, a length of 20.6 cm of tape must be pulled to have 1.8 × 10^13 electrons transferred to it, assuming the tape was electrically neutral before being pulled.
When light energy hits the retina, the retinal changes from a _____ to a _____ configuration.
Answer:
Cis, Trans.
Explanation:
Rhodopsin also known as visual purple, pigment which contains sensory protein that helps to convert light into an electrical signal. Rhodopsin present in wide range of organisms from bacteria to vertebrates.
Rhodopsin is composed of opsin, and 11-cis-retinaldehyde which is derived from vitamin A. When the eye contact with light the 11-cis component converted to all trans-retinal, which results in the changes in configuration fundamental in the rhodopsin molecule.
Which statement is true about divorce in the United States? `
A. The divorce rate is lower for second marriages than first marriages.
B. Divorce usually leads to a higher income and higher standard of living.
C. Similarities between spouses guarantee that they will not divorce.
D. About half of first marriages end in divorce.
Answer:D
Explanation:
D. About half of first marriages end in divorce. - Gradpoint
Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related? Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related? amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths quality of a sound: frequency of the sound frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound
Explanation:
Here some of the pairs of terms are given. We need to find the incorrect relation. The relation are as follows :
1. amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound
2. frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths
3. quality of a sound: frequency of the sound
4. frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound
The intensity of sound is directly proportional to the square of its amplitude. So, relation 1 is correct.
If f is the frequency and [tex]\lambda[/tex] is the wavelength. Speed of sound wave is,
[tex]v=f\lambda[/tex]
So, relation 2 is correct.
The quality of sound wave depends on its amplitude. So, relation 3 is not correct.
The vibration depends on two factors i.e amplitude and the frequency. The loudness of sound depends on the amplitude of wave. So, relation 4 is incorrect.
The incorrectly related pair in the given set is "quality of a sound: frequency of the sound" because it is the unique combination of frequencies and intensities, and not only the frequency, that determines the quality (timbre) of a sound.
Explanation:In the provided set of term pairs, the pairing "quality of a sound: frequency of the sound" is incorrectly related. While the frequency of a sound wave indeed influences the pitch of a sound, it doesn't determine the quality (or timbre) of the sound directly. The timbre of a sound is determined by the unique set of frequencies and intensities produced by a musical instrument or a voice, not by the frequency of the sound alone.
On the other hand, aspects like the "amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound" and "frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths" are correctly related. Larger-amplitude waves indicate greater pressure maxima and minima, thus higher intensity sounds. Similarly, the frequency is related to the number of wavelengths that pass in a given amount of time.
The pair "frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound" can be both correct and incorrect depending on interpretation. Loudness is perceived volume and is influenced by both intensity and frequency. At the same frequency, greater intensity equates to more loudness. However, if the frequency changes without adjusting intensity, it can affect our perceived volume due to the varying sensitivity of human ears at different frequencies. Thus, frequency alone does not specify 'loudness'
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How can you reduce the exposure to ionizing radiation? A. Don't live near a nuclear facility. B. Stand at least two inches away from the radiation source. C. Spend as little time as possible in a radiation field. D. Avoid standing next to a metal doorway.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
A conveyor belt at a quarry lifts 1,800 kg of sand per minute up a vertical distance of 9.5 meters. The sand is initially at rest, then moves at a speed of 0.28 m/s along the conveyor belt. What is the instantaneous power generated by this machine?
2.8 kW
1.0 kW
3.9 kW
890 W
Answer:
The power of the quarry belt is, P = 2.8 kW
Explanation:
Given data,
The mass of the sand, m = 1800 kg
The displacement of the quarry belt, s = 9.5 m
The initial velocity of the sand, u = 0
The final velocity of the sand, v = 0.28 m/s
The acceleration of the belt, a = (v-u)/ t
= 0.28/10
= 0.028 m/s²
The net force acting on the quarry belt is,
F = mg + ma
= m (g +a)
= 1800 (9.8 + 0.028)
= 17690 N
The work done by the quarry belt,
W = F S
= 17690 x 9.5
= 168058 N
The power of the quarry belt,
P = W / t
= 168058 / 60
= 2800 W
= 2.8 kW
Hence, the power of the quarry belt is, P = 2.8 kW
help plEASE
1. if you push a ball and it rolls down a ramp, is it gravitational to kinetic energy?
2. if a ball that is rolling down a ramp hits a wedge that moves and pushes a car, it is kinetic to gravitational energy?
Answer:
1) It will be potential to kinetic energy. 2) kinetic energy is partly transformed into heat and partly spent in generating elastic waves within the two colliding bodies.
Explanation:
We have to first understand the principle of energy conservation and that it is that energy is transformed from one form to another, from potential energy to kinetics or vice versa. When a body is immobile at a height relative to a reference point it is said that at that height the body has potential energy, as the reference point is taken as a point where all potential energy is zero and has been transformed into kinetic energy
1)
In the moment when the ball is in the highest point of elevation with respecto to the reference point the potential energy will be:
[tex]E_{p} =m*g*h\\where:\\E_{p}= potential energy [J]\\m= mass [kg]\\h=elevation [m], respect to the reference point or level[/tex]
When the ball is in the lowest point the energy is kinetic and it will be defined by:
[tex]E_{k} =E_{p}\\E_{k} =\frac{1}{2}*m*v^{2} \\where:\\E_{k} =kinetic energy [J]\\v= velocity of the body [m/s][/tex]
2)
When the ball is rolling and moving with a velocity and hits a wedge it will be kinetic energy transformed into kinetic energy but with less amount of the initial energy because the lost kinetic energy is partly transformed into heat and partly spent in generating elastic waves within the two colliding bodies.
A pressure cooker is a pot whose lid can be tightly sealed to prevent gas from entering or escaping. Even without knowing how big the pressure cooker is
Answer:
3801.13 N
Explanation:
Pressure exerted on a surface is equivalent to applied force divided by the cross sectional area. Then, the applied force will be equal to the product of the pressure exerted and the cross sectional area.
Where given:
Atmospheric pressure (P1) = 1.013*10^5 Pa
T1 = 20+273.15 = 293.15 K
P2 = ?
T2 = 120+273.15 = 393.15 K
Using the gas equation: P1/T1 = P2/T2
Therefore, P2 = P1*T2/T1 = 1.013*10^5 *393.15/293.15 = 13.6*10^4 Pa
The net pressure = P2 - P1 = 13.6*10^4 - 1.013*10^5 = 34.6 kPa
The net force [tex]F_{120} = net pressure * area[/tex]
Area = 0.11 m^2
Thus:
The net force [tex]F_{120} = 34555.7*0.11[/tex] = 3801.13 N
Explains the concept of pressure cookers and the force latches must withstand due to high pressure inside. Uses physics principles to calculate the force required.
Pressure cookers work by increasing the boiling temperature through high pressure inside the sealed vessel. In this scenario, to calculate the force the latches must withstand, you can utilize the formula for pressure, force, and area.
Your car is stalled in the middle of a large patch of ice (assumed to be frictionless). You have a friend that has thrown a rope to you and you attach it to the car.Your friend then applies a continuous horizontal force of 550 N to you and the car. If you and the car have a total mass of 1430 kg, how long will it take for you to reach
Answer:
The time depends on the distance that they have to travel
[tex]x(t) = \frac{0.3846t^{2} }{2}[/tex]
Explanation:
The only horizontal force exerts over the car and you, it is the force that your friend is applied
Newton's Second Law of Motion defines the relationship between acceleration, force, and mass, thus
[tex]\sum{F} = ma[/tex]
550 = 1430a
a = 0.3846 m/s2
The car and you have a motion under constant acceleration, then theirs position to a time-based is:
[tex]x(t) = x_{0} + v_{0}t +\frac{at^{2} }{2}[/tex]
By the initial conditions
[tex]x(t) = \frac{at^{2} }{2}[/tex]
[tex]x(t) = \frac{0.3846t^{2} }{2}[/tex]
The time depends on the distance that they have to travel
If you hold a bar magnet in each hand and bring your hands together, will the force be attractive or repulsive if the magnets are held:
a) with the two north poles together?
b) with a north pole and south pole together?
a) The force is repulsive
b) The force is attractive
Explanation:
Every magnet has a magnetic field around it. It is possible to distinguish two different poles in the magnet, according to the direction of the magnetic field: in particular, the lines of the field go out from the North pole and go into the South Pole. When a magnet is broken, two new magnets are formed, each of them having its own north and south pole.
The force between two magnets can be either attractive or repulsive, depending on which poles are facing each other. We have the following situation:
The magnetic force between two like poles (north-north and south-south) is repulsiveThe magnetic force between two opposite poles (north-south) is attractiveTherefore, we have the following situations in this problem:
a)
Here we are holding the two north poles together: since they are like poles, they repel each other, so the force in this case is repulsive
b)
Here we are holding a north pole and a south pole together: since they are opposite poles, they attract each other, so the force in this case is attractive
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Difference between global warming and climate change
Answer:
Global warming refers only to the Earth’s rising surface temperature, while climate change includes warming and the “side effects”
Someone plans to float a small, totally absorbing sphere 0.500 m above an isotropic point source of light,so that the upward radiation force from the light matches the downward gravitational force on the sphere. The sphere’s density is 19.0 g/cm3, and its radius is 2.00 mm. (a) What power would be required of the light source?
Answer:
468449163762.0812 W
Explanation:
m = Mass = [tex]\rhoV[/tex]
V = Volume =[tex]\dfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3[/tex]
r = Distance of sphere from isotropic point source of light = 0.5 m
R = Radius of sphere = 2 mm
[tex]\rho[/tex] = Density = 19 g/cm³
c = Speed of light = [tex]3\times 10^8\ m/s[/tex]
A = Area = [tex]\pi R^2[/tex]
I = Intensity = [tex]\dfrac{P}{4\pi r^2}[/tex]
g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²
Force due to radiation is given by
[tex]F=\dfrac{IA}{c}\\\Rightarrow F=\dfrac{\dfrac{P}{4\pi r^2}{\pi R^2}}{c}\\\Rightarrow F=\dfrac{PR^2}{4r^2c}[/tex]
According to the question
[tex]F=mg\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{PR^2}{4r^2c}=\rho \dfrac{4}{3}\pi R^3g\\\Rightarrow P=\dfrac{16r^2\rho c\pi Rg}{3}\\\Rightarrow P=\dfrac{16\times 0.002\times 19000\times \pi\times 0.5^2\times 9.81\times 3\times 10^8}{3}\\\Rightarrow P=468449163762.0812\ W[/tex]
The power required of the light source is 468449163762.0812 W
Final answer:
To calculate the power required of the light source, you need to find the upward radiation force exerted on the sphere, which should match the downward gravitational force acting on the sphere. The power is given by P = I * A.
Explanation:
To calculate the power required of the light source, we first need to find the upward radiation force exerted on the sphere, which should match the downward gravitational force acting on the sphere. The radiation force is given by the formula:
Fr = (P / c)A
where Fr is the radiation force, P is the power of the light source, c is the speed of light, and A is the cross-sectional area of the sphere.
Since the sphere is totally absorbing, all the light incident on it is absorbed, so the intensity of the light is given by:
I = P / A
where I is the intensity of the light. Rearranging the equation, we get:
P = I * A
Substituting the value of A for the area of the sphere, we can find the power required.
On the planet Zorb, the acceleration due to gravity is 10 meters per second squared. If you were to launch a projectile at an angle of 30 degrees with an initial velocity of 10 meters per second, in seconds, how long would it take for the projectile to fall to the ground?
Answer:
The time taken by the projectile to fall to the ground is 1 second.
Explanation:
It is given that,
Acceleration due to gravity on the planet Zorb, [tex]a=10\ m/s^2[/tex]
Angle of projectile is 30 degrees
Initial velocity of the projectile, u = 10 m/s
Let t is the time taken for the projectile to fall to the ground. Using second equation of motion to find it
[tex]h=u\ sin\theta t+\dfrac{1}{2}at^2[/tex]
When it fall to the ground, h = 0 and a = -g
[tex]10\ sin(30)t-\dfrac{1}{2}\times 10t^2=0[/tex]
On solving the above quadratic equation, we get the value of t as,
t = 1 second
So, the time taken for the projectile to fall to the ground is 1 second. Hence, this is the required solution.
how many seconds of space should you keep between you if you're driving a 100 foot truck 30 mph?
Answer:
The space in seconds that will be kept = 2.27 seconds
Explanation:
S = d/t..................... Equation 1
making t the subject of formula in the equation above,
t = d/S.................... Equation 2
Where S = speed, d = distance, t = time.
Conversion: (i)if 1 mph = 0.44704 m/s,
then, 30 mph = 30×0.44704
= 13.41 m/s
(ii) If 1 foot = 0.3048 m
then, 100 foot = 30.48 m.
Given: S = 30 mph = 13.41 m/s, d = 100 foot = 30.48 m
Substituting these values into equation 2
t = 30.48/13.41
t = 2.27 seconds.
Therefore the space in seconds that will be kept = 2.27 seconds
Water is pumped through a pipe of diameter 15.0 cm, from the Colorado River up to Grand Canyon Village, located on the rim of the canyon. The river is at an elevation of 564 m, and the village is at an elevation of 2096 m. What is the minimum pressure at which the water must be pumped if it is to arrive at the village?
Answer:
p= 1.50289×10⁷ N/m²
Explanation:
Given
HA = (564 m)................(River Elevation)
HB = (2096 m).............(Village Elevation)
Area = A =(π/4){Diameter}² = (π/4){0.15 m}² = 0.017671 m²
ρ = (1 gram/cm³) = (1000 kg/m³)........(Water Density)
p(pressure)=?
Solution
p=PA - PB
p= ρ*g*HB - ρ*g*HA
p= (ρ*g)*(HB - HA)
p= (1000×9.81 )×{2096 - 564}
p= 1.50289×10⁷ N/m²
A Ping-Pong ball moving East at a speed of 4 m/s collides with a stationary bowling ball. The Ping-Pong ball bounces back to the West, and the bowling ball moves very slowly to the East. Which object experiences the greater magnitude impulse during the collision?A car hits another and the two bumpers lock together during the collision. Is this an elastic or inelastic collision?In a game of pool, the white cue ball hits the #5 ball and stops, while the #5 ball moves away with the same velocity as the cue ball had originally. The type of collision is...In an inelastic collision, the final total momentum is...When a cannon fires a cannonball, the cannon will recoil backward because the.....
Answer:
Explanation:
During any collision whether elastic or inelastic, force of action and reaction are generated at the point of touch for a brief period during which they remain in touch with each other. These action and reaction forces are equal and opposite. Impulse is defined by force multiplied by time duration . Hence we can say that during any collision , the impulse generated are equal and opposite .
In inelastic collision , colliding objects coalesce with each other . Hence in the given case , collision is inelastic.
In elastic collision , when an object collides with a similar object at rest , there is exchange of velocity . In the given case also , similar objects are colliding and exchange of velocity is taking place.So it is an example of elastic collision.
In an inelastic collision , momentum is conserved. So final total momentum is equal to initial total momentum.
When a cannon fires a cannonball, the cannon will recoil backward because the total momentum is conserved.
If you double your speed, your kinetic energy will increase by: A. Double B. Triple C. Quadruple D. Quintuple
Answer:
C. Quadruple
Explanation:
[tex]m[/tex] = mass
[tex]v_{i}[/tex] = initial speed = [tex]v[/tex]
[tex]K_{i}[/tex] = initial kinetic energy
Initial kinetic energy is given as
[tex]K_{i} = (0.5) m v_{i}^{2}\\K_{i} = (0.5) m v^{2}[/tex]
[tex]v_{f}[/tex] = Final speed = [tex]2 v[/tex]
Final kinetic energy is given as
[tex]K_{f} = (0.5) m v_{f}^{2}\\K_{f} = (0.5) m (2v)^{2}\\K_{f} = 4 (0.5) m v^{2}\\K_{f} = 4 K_{i}[/tex]
Hence the kinetic energy is quadruple
Transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi is most likely to occur after a tick feeds a minimum of _______ hours
Answer:
36 hours
Explanation:
Transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi is most likely to occur after a tick feeds a minimum of 36 hours.
The infected ticks are most likely to transmit infection after approximately 2 or more days after feeding. If it remains unchecked, the B. Burgdorferi may trigger systemic infection by passing through the bloodstream and being rooted in different body tissues.
A newborn weighing 9 lb 14 oz (4479 g) is delivered by cesarean due to cephalopelvic disproportion. The Apgar scores are 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. Which nursing action should be taken after the initial physical assessment?
Answer:
Determine the blood glucose level
Explanation:
Determining the blood glucose level of the infant will uncover if the child is affected with hypoglycemia. The increase in the Apgar scores from 7 to 9 in five minutes shows that the newly born child is adapting very well to the outside life.
Explains the significance of Apgar scores in assessing a newborn's health after birth.
The Apgar score is a quick evaluation of a newborn's health status with scores ranging from 0 to 10 based on heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex response, and color. A score of 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes are generally positive signs, indicating improvements in the baby's condition after birth. Based on these scores, continuous monitoring and supportive care should be provided to ensure the baby's well-being.