Adrenalin (epinephrine) is the "fight-or-flight hormone". One of its physiological roles is to mobilize fuel stores in preparation for activity. Given this, which of the following does NOT typically occur in response to the release of adrenalin? A) Glycolysis in the muscle B) Glycogen synthesis in the liver C) Gluconeogenesis in the liver D) Glycogen breakdown in the muscle
Answer:
B) Glycogen synthesis in the liver
Explanation:
Adrenaline (epinephrine) is the hormone which is released in the situation of stress like fight-or-flight and causes sympathetic autonomic nervous system (ANS) to get activated. At the time of fear/fright or during fight we need more energy. In case of fright like when we see a lion, we need more energy so as to run while in case of fight we need more energy to act. So in these situations our body causes stored energy reserves to breakdown so that more and more ATP could be produced. Glycolysis in muscles, glycogen breakdown in muscles and gluconeogenesis in the liver, all these processes produce ATP in our body but option C which talks about glycogen synthesis will not lead to the production of ATP in the body in response to release of adrenaline.
The time period during which an organ is coming ""on-line"" during pre-natal development is referred to as the:________.
Answer:
Embryonic period
Explanation:
During Prenatal development, the development of an organism takes place in three stages
1) Stage I – When the organism is at the stage I i.e the germinal stage a zygote is formed after a sperm fuses with an egg. The mass of cell move through the fallopian tube and gets embedded in the uterus wall. This process is called implantation.
2) Stage II – In the second stage i.e Embryonic Stage major organs start developing and come in line. After this stage, the embryo is one inch long.
3) Fetal stage – Sex organ, bone, muscle start forming.
The common garter snake (Thamnophis sirtalis) is found throughout North America. In the South, it is active year round. In the North, it is active during the warmer months but hibernates during the winter. It is commonly found basking on warm rocks during cool mornings. This lifestyle indicates that the snake is probably___________.
Answer:
The common garter snake (Thamnophis sirtalis) is found throughout North America. In the South, it is active year round. In the North, it is active during the warmer months but hibernates during the winter. It is commonly found basking on warm rocks during cool mornings. This lifestyle indicates that the snake is probably heterothermic.
Explanation:
Being heterothermic, like all reptiles, garter snakes bask in the sun to regulate their body temperature. During brumation (the reptile equivalent of hibernation), garter snakes typically commonly den together. Sometimes there will be as many as 100 snakes in one cave. A large, communal or group site is called a hibernaculum they occupy is called hibernacula. These snakes will migrate large distances to brumate.
Snakes do not actually hibernate, rather they become less active during cold weather. It is called "brumation." Brumation is an extreme slowing down of their metabolism. Snakes are awake, but just very lethargic so you don't see them moving around.
During fall, snakes go back to the previous year’s den. When a sudden cold catches them before they get there, they may die if not fortunate enough to find a suitable secondary den. They usually do not stay long at the den entrance, but hurry in for the long winter sleep.
Cold-blooded animals like snakes, fish, frogs, and turtles need to spend the winter inactive, or dormant, because they have no way to keep warm. Snakes will crawl into any area free from frost such as caves, hollow logs, holes under trees and stumps, under wood piles, in other animal's burrows, and occasionally in a person's basement.
The EHR that is currently being selected was initially planned for the inpatients at the hospital. Now the CIO has instructed the project management team to purchase one that works for both the inpatient and ambulatory services. This is an example of
Answer:
This is an example of scope creep.
Explanation:
In project management, scope creep signifies the changes, uncontrolled or continuous growth in the scope of a project, at any time after the initiation of the project. This can take place when the project's scope is not adequately documented, defined, or monitored.
The main reasons for scope creep are poor requirements analysis, underestimating the complexity of the project, not involving users early enough, and lack of change control. Thus, the given case is an illustration of scope creep.
After transcription begins, several steps must be completed before the fully processed mRNA is ready to be used as a template for protein synthesis on the ribosomes.
Which three statements correctly describe the processing that takes place before a mature mRNA exits the nucleus?
a. Noncoding sequences called introns are spliced out by molecular complexes called spliceosomes.
b. A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA.
c. Coding sequences called exons are spliced out by ribosomes.
d. A translation stop codon is added at the 3' end of the pre-mRNA.
e. A poly-A tail (50-250 adenine nucleotides) is added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
This may be rong, however I think this needs to happen before the mRNA can leave the nucleus. The cap helps prevent the mRNA from being destroyed by the cell itself once it leaves the nucleus.
The term diverticulosis refers to a condition characterized by:_____A. Polyps or growths on the colon wall.B. Inflammation of small pockets in the colon wall.C. Acquired herniations of the muscular colon wall mucosa and submucosa.D. Congenital herniations of the muscular colon wall mucosa and submucosa.
Answer:
C. Acquired herniations of the muscular colon wall mucosa and submucosa
Explanation:
Hernia refers to the development of outgrowth or protrusion of all or part of the organs through their cavity walls or membrane. Diverticulosis is herniation of mucosa and submucosa of the wall of the colon. Diverticulosis is one of the conditions caused by the imbalance of homeostasis. Many sac-like outgrowths develop in the wall of the colon. The outgrowths are in the form of pouches and are called diverticula.
The out-pouching occurs where the muscularis layer of the wall of the colon has weakened. The people with diverticulosis may have no symptoms and no complications. However, when diverticulosis causes inflammation, the person experiences several complications such as pain, vomiting, nausea, etc.
In humans, the maintenance of a stable internal temperature is a direct result of___________.
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
In humans, the maintenance of a stable internal temperature is a direct result of___________.
a. detection of and reaction to stimuli in the environment
b. digestion of starches and absorption of protein from the internal environment
c. diffusion of water and excretion of glucose to the external environment
d. transport of ATP and locomotion through the environment
Answer:
a. detection of and reaction to stimuli in the environment
Explanation:
Thermoreceptors present in skin layers of the human body sense the deviation of the body temperature from the normal range. As the body temperature rises above normal, the thermoreceptors send signals to the brain which n turn signals dermal blood vessels to dilate and sweat glands to secrete sweat. The heat from the body surface is lost to the surroundings to drop the body temperature towards the normal range.
On the other hand, when the body temperature goes below the normal range, thermoreceptors send signals to the brain which in turn signals dermal blood vessels to constrict to conserve the body heat. If body temperature continues to drop, muscles are signaled to contract involuntarily to generate body heat to raise the body temperature towards the normal range.
Place the layers of the trachea in order from deep to superficial.
a) mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia
b) submucosa, mucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia
c) adventitia, hyaline cartilage, submucosa, mucosa
d) adventitia, hyaline cartilage, mucosa, submucosa
e) hyaline cartilage, submucosa, mucosa, adventitia
Answer:
a) mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia
Explanation:
The wall of the trachea can be divided into four layers from the deep region to the superfacial region :
These are; mucosa, submucosa, the musculocartilaginous layer (hyaline cartilage), and the adventitia.
The adventitia is a connective tissue layer that combines with the musculocutaneous layer and with the connective tissue that encircles the trachea. It is composed of loose areolar tissue. This areolar tissue permits a considerable amount of movement of the trachea along its length.
The musculocartilaginous layer consists of the cartilaginous plates, fibroelastic tissue, and the tracheal muscle. The cartilaginous plates number and are composed of hyaline cartilage surrounded by perichondrium.
The submucosa contains many elastic fibers and fat cells and many small seromucous tubular glands, which open into the lumen of the trachea.
The mucosa has numerous low longitudinal folds and is lined with pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium, which contains numerous goblet cells and rests on a basement membrane.
I hope that helps!
Answer:
The correct answer is a) mucosa, submucosa, hyaline cartilage, adventitia.
Explanation:
The trachea is the conduit that allows the passage of air from the outside to the lungs, which is divided at its base into two bronchi.
The walls of the trachea have several layers of tissues, in order from deep to superficial:
Mucosa, has the same goblet cells that contain the pseudostratified epithelia that appear in most of the respiratory tract.
Submucosa, is dense connective tissue and continues with the perichondrium of the hyaline cartilage that constitutes the tracheal rings.
Hyaline cartilage, it is the most widely distributed cartilage. The tracheal cartilaginous ring is open, and the ends are joined by a fibroelastic ligament and bundles of smooth muscle that attach to the perichondrium (the outer layer of cartilage).
Adventitia, is the outermost layer and covers the outer part of the incomplete cartilaginous rings. It is connective tissue that may contain adipose tissue.
Describe how deep ocean trenches are related to deep ocean ridges.
pls help.
Final answer:
Deep ocean trenches are related to deep ocean ridges through the process of plate tectonics, with ridges creating new crust and trenches marking where old oceanic crust is subducted and recycled into the mantle.
Explanation:
Deep ocean trenches and deep ocean ridges are related through the process of plate tectonics. A deep ocean ridge, such as the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, is an underwater mountain range formed by plate separation where new oceanic crust is created by upwelling magma. Meanwhile, a deep ocean trench is a very long, narrow depression in the sea floor that is typically associated with a subduction zone, which is a type of convergent plate boundary.
As an oceanic plate moves away from a mid-ocean ridge, it ages and cools. Eventually, it becomes denser than the underlying asthenosphere and can be subducted into the mantle at a trench. This destroys old crust at roughly the same rate as new crust is formed at mid-ocean ridges, maintaining a balance in Earth's crustal budget.
Therefore, subduction at ocean trenches is directly related to spreading at mid-ocean ridges, with trenches marking zones where old crust is recycled into the Earth's mantle. This is part of the global cycle of crustal recycling that shapes the Earth's surface over geological timescales.
Fargga Ittal is 75 years old, and having some typical memory issues. She goes to explain this to her family, but cannot remember what was said. Help Fargo explain the typical memory process and failures at her age. (hint: this means a) explain the basic memory model of memory formation, b) explain where in that process and what things typically go wrong, c) which types of memory are most effected.)
Answer:
YEs sir
Explanation:
Data Center Energy Consumption
Modeling: A Survey
Miyuru Dayarathna, Yonggang Wen, Senior Member, IEEE, and Rui Fan
ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotension I to angiotensin II. Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, the use of ACE inhibitors often results in: a) spontaneous pneumothorax. b) respiratory depression. c) unrelenting cough. d) pneumonia
Answer:
c) unrelenting cough
Explanation:
ACE inhibitors stand for Angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors.ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of high blood pressure and heart diseases. These inhibitors perform their action by causing a relaxation of the blood vessels which results in decreased blood pressure. Further, these inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and the site of this conversion is the lungs, since this conversion is blocked by these inhibitors, an unrelenting persistent cough is a common side effect associated with the use of these inhibitors.ACE inhibitors commonly result in an unrelenting cough as a side effect due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
Explanation:ACE inhibitors work on the renin-angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This mechanism is crucial for regulating systemic blood pressure and kidney function. The question posed about the common side effect of the use of ACE inhibitors is related to the location of ACE production, which primarily occurs in the lungs. Among the listed options, the correct answer is that the use of ACE inhibitors often results in an unrelenting cough. This side effect is due to the inhibition of ACE which not only prevents the formation of angiotensin II but also increases levels of bradykinin, a peptide that can cause cough when not broken down by ACE.
Which is a weakness of traditional food webs when they are applied to complex ecological problems?
A) A food web does not represent all the links in an actual ecosystem.B) Food webs do not account for non-native species in the enviornmentC) The many food chains of a food web make it too complicated to use.D) Trophic levels are not taken into account when creating a food web.
Answer:
Answer is A. A food web does not represent all the links in the actual ecosystem.
Explanation:
A food web is a naturally interconnection of food chains. This means that, a food web consists of more than one food chain. Just like the food chain, the food web comprises of the same groups of organisms, that is, the producer, consumer and decomposed, but in large numbers or quantities.
A complete food web diagram is expected to have Sun as the source of light for a situation where plants are the producers.
What groove separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?
Answer:
The large deep groove or indentation that separates the parietal and frontal lobe is the central sulcus.
Explanation:
The central sulcus, one of several grooves seen between folds of the cerebral cortex, lies between the frontal and parietal lobes. It separates the parietal and frontal lobes.
Which of the following best describes why invertebrates isn't considered a scientifically valid word when classifying animals? A. The term invertebrates describes all animals, so is not helpful in classifying organisms within the animal kingdom. B. The term invertebrates is unhelpful because all animals possess some sort of backbone or notochord. C. The term invertebrates classifies animals haphazardly based on a missing characteristic rather than a common one. D. The term invertebrates is too vague, since all animals evolved from single-celled organisms without a backbone.
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
In general vertebrates are organism that has backbone/spine or a vertebral column derived from notochord. While invertebrates are organism that do not have any backbone or vertebra column.
All classification terminologies categorize animals or plants on the basis of some common characteristics. However, in the case of this word invertebrate there is no categorization on the basis of common characteristics, it simply distinguish animals from each other on the basis of presence of backbone/spine/notochord.
Hence, option C is correct
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Which information is important to obtain during the nursing assessment of a female who is taking oral contraceptives?
During the nursing assessment of a female who is taking oral contraceptives, it is important to obtain information like history of menstrual cycle, weight gain/weight loss details etc.
Explanation:
Oral contraceptives are medications that prevent pregnancy. They are also known as birth control pills. They are hormonal preparations that may contain combinations of the hormones estrogen and progestin or progestin alone.
During the nursing assessment of a female who is taking oral contraceptives it is important to know about the patient's history. They should get information like head ache, weight gain/ weight loss details, irregular bleeding and mood changes.
Other important details that need to be taken are age of the patient, how frequently patient is taking oral contraceptive, number of children the patient have, any previous abortion etc.
Which of the following best describes how mitosis and meiosis result in daughter cells with different numbers of chromosomes?
Answer:
In Meiosis, cells are divided twice to the give haploid cells ( four cells) with half the number of chromosomes in the original cell, while in mitosis, cells only divide once to give identical cell with the same number of chromosomes as its origin.
Explanation:
Meiosis is a process where a cell divides to give four cells, with the chromosomes half of that of the original cell. This cell division helps produce your genital cells like sperm and female egg. There are nine stages in meiosis.
Mitosis is a process of cell division where a single cell divides just once to produce two identical cells with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
Answer:
D. Mitosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells after one round of division. Meiosis produces four haploid daughter cells after two rounds of division.
Explanation:
(if this is the apclassroom one lol)
The photos shown below illustrate a case of synpolydactyly, a genetic abnormality characterized by two phenotypes: partially or completely duplicated fingers or toes, and webbing between fingers or toes. The same mutations that give rise to the human phenotype also give rise to a similar phenotype in mice. In which family of genes do you think these mutations occur?
Answer:
Hox gene complex is the set of genes responsible for maintaining the basic body plan of an organism. Synpolydactyly syndrome was the first disorder discovered in human beings that resulted from the mutation in the Hox gene complex. As a result of mutations in the Hox gene complex, syndactyly is inherited, which results in the fusion of fourth and fifth toes and third and fourth fingers.
hope it helps:)
Hox gene complex is the set of genes responsible for maintaining the basic body plan of an organism. Synpolydactyly syndrome was the first disorder discovered in human beings that resulted from the mutation in the Hox gene complex.
What is the result of mutation?
As a result of mutations in the Hox gene complex, syndactyly is inherited, which results in the fusion of fourth and fifth toes and third and fourth fingers.The photos shown below illustrate a case of synpolydactyly, a genetic abnormality characterized by two phenotypes: partially or completely duplicated fingers or toes, and webbing between fingers or toes.
The same mutations that give rise to the human phenotype also give rise to a similar phenotype in mice.As a result of mutations in the Hox gene complex, syndactyly is inherited, which results in the fusion of fourth and fifth toes and third and fourth fingers.
Therefore, Hox gene complex is the set of genes responsible for maintaining the basic body plan of an organism. Synpolydactyly syndrome was the first disorder discovered in human beings that resulted from the mutation in the Hox gene complex.
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Ms. Carroll went to her doctor's office with pain in her right shoulder blade and learned she was having a gallbladder attack. You're not surprised to hear about the unusual location of her pain since it is known as:
A) the receptive field.
B) phantom limb pain.
C) referred pain.
D) chronic pain.
Answer: option C - referred pain
Explanation:
A gallbladder attack will induce pain in ANY part of the body UNDER the term REFERRED PAIN. For MS. Carroll, the pain was "referred" to the shoulder blade.
Note that whenever pain is felt at a body part different from the origin of the pain, It is due to the coordinated network of sensory nerves, supplying different tissues of the body
So, referred pain has affected Ms Carroll
Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? 1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA. 2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA. 3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added. 4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. 2, 1, 4 3, 4, 2 3, 4, 1, 2 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer:
2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
2
Denaturation by Heat to separate double-stranded DNA into two single strands
1
Annealing Primer to Target Sequence
The primers that anneal (bind) to the complementary sequence marks the DNA target sequence
4
Extension
New double stranded DNA molecules that is identical to the original double stranded target DNA region is formed
3
End of the First PGR Cycle
Fresh DNA polymerase is added
The correct sequence of steps in a PCR cycle is 2 (denaturation), 1 (annealing), and 4 (extension), where DNA is first denatured, then primers anneal, and lastly, DNA polymerase extends the primers to create new DNA strands.
The process begins with denaturation, where the mixture is heated to a high temperature (around 95 0C) to separate the double-stranded target DNA. Following that, annealing occurs when the temperature is decreased to allow the primers to hybridize to the target DNA. The final step is extension, where DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. Therefore, the sequence is denaturation (2), annealing (1), and then extension (4).
It should also be noted that fresh DNA polymerase is not added in every cycle, because the DNA polymerase used in PCR is heat-stable and can withstand multiple cycles of PCR without degradation. The optimal temperature for the DNA polymerase's activity is around 72 0C, which facilitates the synthesis of a new DNA strand complementary to the DNA template strand.
Which agent would be most appropriate to administer to a client with Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Omeprazole
b. Atropine
c. Granisetron
d. Donepezil
Answer: d. Donepezil
Explanation:
Alzheimer is a brain disorder. It destroys the memory as well as thinking skills. The person looses ability to perform simplest tasks. This disorder appears in mid-60s.
Donepezil is the agent which can be used for the treatment of Alzheimer disease. It helps in improving the memory, and awareness. It restores the functioning of the neurotransmitters in the brain.
A nurse is giving medication instruction to a client who is taking metoprolol (Lopressor). Which statement by the client would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Answer:
Lopressor may be defined as the drug used for the treatment of the hypertension and angina. The death of the risk can be minimized if the individual has heart failure.
This drug acts as the beta blocker that affects the heart circulation. This drug is taken in the case of the serious heart attacks only. The client statement that he shall never stop taking of this drug abruptly indicated the nurse teaching has been effective.
I NEED HELP SOMEONE HELP ME
The type of chemical reaction represented by the equation
AgNO3 + NaCl → NaNO3 + AgCl is a
a. synthesis reaction.
b. decomposition reaction.
c. single replacement reaction.
d. double replacement reaction.
Answer:
The correct answer is d double replacement reaction.
Explanation:
AgNO3 + NaCl ⇒ AgCl + NaNO3
In this reaction silver nitrate undergo chemical reaction with sodium chloride to generate sodium nitrate and silver chloride.
During this reaction NO3 of AgNO3 is replaced by Cl of NaCl resluting in the formation of AgCl or silver chloride.
on the other hand Cl of NaCl is replaced NO3 of AgNO3 resulting in the formation of NaNO3.
From this point of view it can be said that the given reaction is a double replacement reaction.
When would it be important for a scientific investigation to be replicated
Answer:
To check the accuracy of claims from the investigationsTo see if the outcome of the investigation is applicable to a variant populationTo see if there are gaps in the procedures or results that can provoke further investigationsExplanation:
Replication is the reproducibility of results from scientific investigations. In order for the outcome of an investigation to be deemed correct, the outcome must be reproducible under somewhat similar conditions.
Replication of scientific investigation is important for a number of reasons:
To check the accuracy of claims from investigationsTo see if the outcome of a particular research is applicable to a variant populationTo see if there are gaps in the procedures or results that can provoke further investigationsYou have a pea plant with round, yellow seeds. A cross test with green, wrinkled seeds (rryy) gives the following data: 50% of the offspring make round seeds, 50% of the offspring make wrinkled seeds, and 100% of the offspring make yellow seeds. What was the genotype of the original plant?
Answer:
RRYy
Explanation:
from the result of the progeny, it is obvious that the gene for yellow colouration is homozygous dominant while the genetype for seed shape round is heterzygous dominant.
Comparing the body structures of organisms to find evidence of a shared evolutionary history is called ________.
A) outgroupingB) relativistic physiologyC) comparative anatomyD) analogous reconstruction
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
Comparative anatomy is the branch of study which studies anatomy or skeletal structure of the different species and comparing them to study the relationship between them.
The comparative anatomy is studied to study the evolutionary relationship between the different species which acts as evidence of the evolution. The study has distinguished the skeletal structure as homologous structures or analogous structure.
The correct answer will be option-C.
Comparative anatomy is the term for comparing body structures of organisms to find evidence of shared evolutionary history. It's an essential concept in evolutionary biology and provides evidence of common ancestry and evolutionary processes.
Explanation:The term for comparing the body structures of organisms to find evidence of a shared evolutionary history is called comparative anatomy. This concept is vital in the field of evolutionary biology, where scientists examine the physical features of different organisms to establish common ancestors and track the process of evolution. For instance, the similar bone structures in the forelimbs of humans, bats, and whales suggest a common lineage, even though these limbs perform different functions in each organism.
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Prevalence refers to
A) the number of individuals having a particular exceptionality.
B) the probability of having a child with a particular exceptionality.
C) the percentage of a population having a particular exceptionality.
D) the distribution of exceptionalities across different segments of the population.
Answer:
C) the percentage of a population having a particular exceptionality.
Explanation:
Prevalence is a statistical term used to express the total number of persons having a condition as a percentage of a particular population, at a particular period of time. For example, if stated that: the prevalence of autism as an exceptionality is put at 6% of the population of children in a state, it means 6 out of every 100 children in that state have autism as exceptionality.
Which event (s) corresponded with a rapid increase in the population growth rate of Las Vegas, NV
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the
The vessel that carries blood away from the glomerulus, a network of capillaries in the kidney, is called the efferent arteriole. This blood vessel is essential in removing waste products and unneeded substances after the process of filtration has occurred in the glomerulus.
Explanation:Blood leaves the glomerulus, a small network of capillaries in the kidney, through a blood vessel known as the efferent arteriole. The function of the efferent arteriole is to carry the blood away from the glomerulus after the process of filtration. Once blood is filtered through the glomerulus, it carries away waste products and unneeded substances. The blood then enters the efferent arteriole, which flows into the peritubular capillaries and continues the process of urine formation.
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What is the amino acid sequence for AUGUCGCCUUAA?
Answer:
Met-Ser-Pro.
Explanation:
The last 3 letters (UAA) are the Stop codons so they are not included in the sequence.
A fracture in which cranial bones are pressed down inwardly toward the brain is called a depressed fracture
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The neurocranium consists of the eight bones that forms the cranial bones. The cranial cavity protects the brain and spinal cord from the injury and the shock.
A depressed fracture may be defined as a type of skull fracture that might occur due to trauma. If excess force is applied toward the brain this might cause the depressed fracture. The epidermis and meninges may gets breakdown during the fracture.
Thus, the answer is true.