A client is admitted with a possible electrolyte imbalance. The client is dis-oriented and weak, has an irregular pulse, and takes furosemide (Lasix). The client most likely suffers from:_______.
Answer:
Hypokalemia
Explanation:
The level of potassium in blood is too low
Under HIPAA means:______.a) a health plan.b) healthcare clearing house.c) a healthcare provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a HIPAA transaction.
Answer:
c) A healthcare provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a HIPAA transaction.
Explanation:
Under HIPAA means a healthcare provider who transmits any health information in electronic form in connection with a HIPAA transaction.
Healthcare Insurance portability and Accountability Act also known as HIPAA was established in 1996. According to this act, the government will provide healthcare supervision, healthcare data storage and security facilities to the medical institutions for better medical tracking and cures.
A client with esophageal varices has severe hematemesis, and a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is inserted. What design and purpose does the tube have?
The nurse determines that a client recently diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis understands discharge teaching upon which client statement?
Answer:
"I have to call my doctor so I can get antibiotics before seeing the dentist."
Explanation:
Once an individual is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis, there is a high risk for repeated episodes. Thus, such client is placed on Antibiotic prophylaxis before or after dental procedures so that this will prevent the client from having any further infections. Unless there is an evidence of heart failure, such patient has no routine restriction on sodium.
The __________ of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise. A. frequency B. intensity C. time D. type Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Answer:
The "Type" of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise
Explanation:
The type of the exercise we perform will determine the health of the person and also the fitness potential of the person but when we talk about the frequency or the intensity and the time will not help us in determining the health benefit and fitness benefit. Various types of exercises are there that helps in reducing weight, maintaining heart health and also exercises are there which can help in maintaining the blood pressure and also decrease the risk of cancer.
The Type of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise. The correct option is C.
Thus, The type of exercise we do will define our health as well as our fitness potential.
The frequency, intensity, and time of the activity will not assist us determine the benefits to our health and fitness.
There are many different sorts of workouts that can help with weight loss, heart health maintenance, blood pressure maintenance, and even lowering the chance of cancer.
Thus, The Type of exercise determines the health and fitness benefit of the exercise. The correct option is C.
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What was the most important role of Tolman’s "cognitive maps" study in the development of cognitive psychology? a. It made us aware of the importance of taking a scientific approach to understanding the mind. b. It forced us to question our prior conceptualization of the mind. c. It made us seriously consider the benefits of using rats in experiments related to human cognition and behavior. d. It entirely refuted the tenets of behaviorism and then led Tolman to establish the "new" view of cognition.
Answer:
Option D is correct
Explanation:
Tolmans experiment demonstrated that organisms can learn even without receiving immediate reinforcement in the form of practice which the behavioral theory emphasizes.
A newly promoted nurse manager is studying the critical factors that are needed to be an effective leader according to situational-contingency theory. Which statement by the nurse manager indicates the need for further study?
Answer:
"The leader should provide specific feedback for positive performance."
"The leader should elicit feedback from peers, followers, and higher authority."
Explanation:
Humanlike features start to develop around 9 weeks after conception. What is the developing human called at this point in development?
Answer: Fetus
Explanation:
Anya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Anya's brain development will likely be ______.a. the same as peers raised in enriched environments.b. greater than peers raised in enriched environments.c. depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
d. greater than her biological parents.
Answer:
c. depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
Explanation:
Anya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Anya's brain development will likely be depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
This is because the other peers are getting more stimulus and nutrition that is important for the development and upbringing of the a healthy and active mind.
The nurse is assessing a client's risk for sexually transmitted infections. Which statement by the client would be cause for concern?A. "I needed RhoGAM after my last pregnancy. Will I need it again?" B. "I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone." C. "I only want my family to see the baby after it is born." D. "I am not sure if I want to keep the baby. It is a hard decision."
Answer:
B. "I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone.
Explanation:
This statement "I am unsure who the father of the baby is. I will be raising it alone." is a big and enough concern for the nurse assessing a client's risk for sexually transmitted infections. That statement clearly depicts that she has been having multiple sex partners in the past. Sex with multiple partners have a greater and higher tendency of putting the client and fetus in bad places of being at risk for a sexually transmitted infection.
The nursing instructor is discussing assessment of the head and neck with the class. What identifying characteristic would the instructor use for the thyroid cartilage?
Answer:
The notch on its superior edge
The thyroid cartilage is readily identified by the notch on its superior edge.
Explanation:
Thyroid cartilage also known as hyaline cartilage structure that sits in front of the larynx and above the thyroid gland.There are two composition of the cartilage or two halves which meet in the middle of the peak which is known as the also called the Adam's apple.It's important function is that it plays a vital role in the production of the human voice.Final answer:
The thyroid cartilage is the largest piece of cartilage in the larynx, noted for its laryngeal prominence or "Adam's apple" and a V-shaped structure that is more prominent in males.
Explanation:
The thyroid cartilage is a key identifying characteristic when assessing the head and neck. It is the largest piece of cartilage of the larynx, known for its shield-shaped structure made of hyaline cartilage. A distinctive feature of the thyroid cartilage is the laryngeal prominence, commonly referred to as the "Adam's apple," which is more pronounced in males, largely due to the effects of testosterone.
This cartilage consists of two V-shaped plates that meet in the front at the point of the laryngeal prominence. Inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the cricoid cartilage, which forms a complete ring and is also made of hyaline cartilage. The structure and positioning of the thyroid cartilage make it palpable and visible on the anterior aspect of the neck.
A Chemical Hygiene Officer (CHO) is responsible for implementing, updating, and administering the Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The chemical hazard may be defined as the harmful effect of the particular chemical on the living organisms. The chemical hazard can cause mutation in DNA or can cause environmental pollution.
The chemical hygiene officer is the respected post that regulated the implementing and safety of the healthy hazard. The officer maintains the guidelines and made specific regulation regarding the use of the particular substance that can cause chemical hazard.
Thus, the answer is true.
Erica was supposed to be going to the prom this weekend; instead she is in bed. When her parents tell the pediatrician that Erica __________________, the pediatrician tells the parents to bring Erica in immediately to be evaluated for depression.
Answer: Erica was trying to end with her life
Explanation:
Thoughts and attempts of ending life are one of the most common symptoms of depression.
Depression is a mental illness that is characterized by a feeling of sadness and hopelessness that persists for most of the day. Other symptoms of depression are irritability, guilt, loss of interest in activities that the person enjoyed before, little contact with other people and sleeping for most of the day.
The reasons why a person can develop depression involves environmental and genetic factors. There is clinical evidence that people can inherit depression and be more likely to develop if one of their relatives had it. Regarding environmental factors, events such as the loss of a job or the lost of a loved one can lead to a person developing depression.
A person with depression has difficulty developing their daily activities. The symptoms of this mental illness can interfere with their work or with their studies, causing the person to lose interest and isolate themselves from others. The World Health Organization states that more than 300 million people around the world suffer from depression and will be the leading cause of disability in 2020.
Women are more likely to develop depression due to hormonal changes they experience such as the menstrual period and pregnancy.
A person who has depression does not want to be in that state but in turn, finds it difficult to overcome the symptoms of the disease. Depression is a mental illness that does not heal on its own, which needs urgent medical attention because if it is not treated, it can have serious consequences. Among the treatments for depression are those focused on psychological therapy and drug therapy, which will be applied by a mental health professional.
In a study of a disease in which all cases that developed were ascertained, if the relative risk for the association between a factor and the disease is equal to or less than 1.0, then:a. There is no association between the factor and the diseaseb. The factor protects against development of the diseasec. Either matching or randomization has been unsuccessfuld. The comparison group used was unsuitable, and a valid comparison is not possiblee. There is either no association or a negative association between the factor and the disease
Answer:
The correct option is E: There is either no association or a negative association between the factor and the disease
Explanation:
Relative risk is a ratio that compares the risk of a health event between two groups. When the relative risk is 1, this means that the risk among the two groups are identical. When the relative risk is more than one, this means there is an increased risk for the exposed group. A risk ratio of less than 1, means that there is decreased exposure, which means negative association, which implies that exposure protect against the disease. Hence from the question, a value of relative risk less than or equal to one signifies no association or negative association.
A 42-year-old fair-skinned woman of Irish origin presents with an abnormal skin growth that was first noted 7 years ago. On examination, a 2 X 3 cm lesion is noted over her left bicep. Which of the following historical elements most increases the suspicion that the lesion is malignant?
A) No evolution in size since onset, but mild intermittent pruritus over the last 2 years.
B) Proximal location, that is, over the bicep rather than the distal arm.
C) Minimal but discernible increase in size over the past 6 months.
D) No evolution in size since onset, but uniformly darkly pigmented color.
E) Presence of similar pinkish tan lesions on the sun‐exposed areas including the face and hands.
Answer:C) Minimal but discernible increase in size over the past 6 months.
Explanation:
Irrespective of the presence and length of a lesion, any discernible alteration in size or other characteristics (such as color or regularity of borders) requires further evaluation. Since its start, no change in size but moderate sporadic pruritus over the last 2 years is wrong. While any skin lesion may develop into malignancy, a long-standing, essentially unchanged lesion carries a very low probability of malignancy. Since the beginning no evolution in size but uniformly darkly pigmented color is wrong. Although dark lesions are sometimes of concern, lesions should be assessed specifically for color variation, in particular blue and black mixed with white and red(Which represents inflammatory processes and melanoma scarring characteristics). It is wrong to have identical pink tan lesions in the exposed areas of the skin, including the face and hands. In general, skin cancer is characterized by an initial focus of malignancy with distal metastases on organs other than the skin; multiple similar skin findings that do not meet the criteria in the mnemonic ABCDE‐EFG (Asymmetry, Border Irregularity, Color Variations, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolving, Elevated, Solid, Growing) are more likely to be benign. The proximal position is incorrect, that is to say, over the bicep rather than the distal limb. Proximal or distal location has no effect on the risk of malignancy.
Valerie has established that Mr. Goodman does not have a pulse and is not breathing, and she has exposed the chest. She must immediately begin CPR while Joanne retrieves and sets up the AED. Which actions should the team take to ensure that they are providing high-quality CPR?
Answer and explanation:
Following points should be kept in mind while doing or observing CPR.
1)Rate should be 100-120 compressions per minute.
2)Compression depth should be atleast 2 inches.
3)Push hard and fast.
4)Interruptions of almost 10 seconds
5)Give effective breaths to make the chest rise.
6)Ventilation.
The actions that should be taken by the team in order to ensure that they are providing high-quality CPR include:
There should be smooth compressions which should be at rate of 100 - 120 compressions in every minute.The chest should be fully allowed to recoil after every compression had been done.The interruptions in the compression should be reduced to less than 10 seconds.Excessive ventilation should be avoided.Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) refers to the emergency procedure that's performed on a person that has cardiac arrest. When the heart of a person stops, this is done in order to keep the blood flowing in the person's body and preserve the person from dying.
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An analyst produces a table of financial ratios on liquidity and profitability for a healthcare firm. The most likely phase of the financial statement analysis framework is:_____________.
Answer:
Processing Data
Explanation:
The Data processing or the processing of data is the term which defines a series of operations which uses information provided to produce an understandable result.
Common data processing operations includes
ValidationcalculationClassificationSortingInterpretationorganization and transformation of data.An analyst producing financial ratios on liquidity and profitability is in the phase of financial statement analysis that involves computing and interpreting these ratios to understand the financial health of a firm.
When an analyst produces a table of financial ratios focusing on liquidity and profitability for a healthcare firm, they are likely engaged in the phase of the financial statement analysis framework where the computation and interpretation of ratios are center stage. This phase involves evaluating an organization's assets and their capacity to cover day-to-day expenses. Liquidity ratios assess the quickness with which assets can be converted to cash to meet short-term liabilities, while profitability ratios measure the ability of the firm to generate returns relative to its revenue or assets. This detailed analysis helps to determine the health of a firm's financial position in comparison to industry benchmarks and trends over time.
Kendyl is born with a congenital disorder that prevents her eyes from sensing light; her fraternal twin brother Gabe is born with normal vision. Compared to Gabe, Kendyl will likely have _______.a. no circadian cycle
b. a shorter circadian cycle
c. a longer circadian cycle
d. the same circadian cycle
Answer:
C) a longer circadian cycle
Explanation:
Circadian cycle is a 24-hour physiological cycle which runs internally in the biological organisms in the brain and controls the sleepiness and alertness in individuals thus is also known as the sleep-wake cycle. The cycle runs in organisms of animals, plants and fungi.
The circadian cycle is controlled by the hypothalamus but the external factors like the intensity of light and dark also influence the circadian cycle.
In the given question, if the person has a disease which prevents eyes from perceiving light or the phase of darkness increases then the circadian cycle changes and become longer as the low light sends a signal to the brain to release melatonin which makes your body tired.
Therefore longer darkness means the increased circadian cycle and thus Option-C is the correct answer.
You just finished a workout at the gym and ate a couple of eggs washed down with a chocolate soy protein drink. The dietary protein replenishes ___________ first.
Answer: Body Protein
Hope it helps youre welcome
Answer:
The body protein
Explanation:
After a work out, the protein replenished first when an individual takes in a high protein diet is the body protein.
A 69 Y/O female with a right hip fracture was admitted to the orthopedic unit from the emergency department shortly after falling in her yard. Thirty-two hours later she underwent surgery to repair the hip and returned to the orthopedic unit post operatively. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over the coccyx.
Question :
The question is incomplete. The full question is as follows :
A 69 Y/O female with a right hip fracture was admitted to the orthopedic unit from the emergency department shortly after falling in her yard. Thirty-two hours later she underwent surgery to repair the hip and returned to the orthopedic unit post operatively. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over the coccyx.
Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed incomplete assessment of this area due to difficulty turning the patient related to her level of pain and large size. Documentation during her 8 hour stay in the emergency department record was also incomplete. Initial documentation of the pressure injury on the coccyx was found in the patient's operating room record.
For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
B) Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only .
Explanation:
The reason for the above mentioned answer is that pressure injury was first documented greater than 24 hours after arrival to the hospital.
It is unknown if the patient obtained the pressure injury in the emergency department or on the orthopedic unit.
Therefore, this pressure injury is recorded as a hospital acquired pressure injury.
Hence option B) hospital acquired pressure injury. is the right answer.
Dr. Grath believes that imitation and reinforcement contribute to language development. Dr. Grath’s views are most consistent with those of…
Final answer:
Dr. Grath's views on language development through imitation and reinforcement are most consistent with B. F. Skinner's reinforcement theory and Albert Bandura's social learning theory, highlighting a combination of environmental influences and biological predispositions in language acquisition.
Explanation:
Dr. Grath's belief that language development is influenced by imitation and reinforcement aligns with behaviorist B. F. Skinner's views. Skinner's well-known theory posits that language is learned through reinforcement and feedback, such as parental approval or comprehension in social interactions. Accordingly, simple phrases like "me juice" from a child are positively reinforced when a caregiver responds appropriately, enhancing language learning.
However, Noam Chomsky challenged this view, introducing the concept of an innate language acquisition device (LAD), suggesting that humans are biologically predisposed to learn language. Modern researchers bridge these theories, recognizing that language development is a complex interplay of nature and nurture.
Additionally, Albert Bandura's social learning theory underscores the importance of imitation and observational learning in acquiring not just language, but a range of behaviors and social norms. This context adds weight to theory that language learning is influenced by social and environmental factors, as well as biological predispositions, within a supportive cultural and societal framework.
A defining characteristic of high reliability organizations (HROs) is sensitivity to operations. Which of the following is a manifestation of this characteristic?
a. Near misses are treated as opportunities for improvement.b. Process anomalies and outliers are quickly identified.c. Ongoing efforts are to simplify solutions to problems.d. Decision making is strongly hierarchical.
Answer: B.Process anomalies and outliers are quickly identified.
Explanation: (HROs) known as high reliability organizations are organizations that have successfully Prevented, avoided or averted the recurrence of a given or some hazards which were being expected to occur.
High reliability organizations are very efficient and effective in management of it operations, they are very quick to identify process anomalies and outliers are quickly handled to avert future reoccurrence.
The _________ to personality assumes that psychological processes are not just influenced by culture but are thoroughly culturally constituted.
Answer:
Cultural perspective.
Explanation:
The cross culture psychology may be defined as the psychology that studies humans behavior on the basis of their culture. The behavior and psychology of humans get change with the change in the culture.
The cultural perspective of the psychology determines the effect of the culture on the members the group. The cross culture is broad term as compared with the culture psychology. The culture psychology explains that psychology process are culturally constituted.
Thus, the answer is cultural perspective.
Answer:
The correct answer is - cultural perspective.
Explanation:
Cultural perspective is the thinking point of view which is based on the native environmental and social influence of an individual. The influence that culture and society have on the perspective.
This is the field of the theory that assumes that psychological process is not only influenced by society but are thoroughly culturally constituted.
Thus, the correct answer is - cultural perspective.
A woman is currently pregnant; she has a 5-year-old son and a 3-year-old daughter. She had one other pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks. Her gravida and para are___________.
Answer:
The correct answer is - Para is 2, Gravida is 4.
Explanation:
Gravida and para are both the terms related to the birth and pregnancy in medical field. Para is the short form of the parity is known for the number of the births has had after twenty week pregnancy.
Gravida is the terms that are the total number of confirmed pregnancy a woman had.
Thus, the correct answer is - Para is 2, Gravida is 4
Which points are important when giving practical knowledge to nursing students about preventing complications in the hospital?
Answer:
The most important points to prevent complications in the hospital are: teaching nursing students that they are not accountable if a patient is harmed, as well as encouraging them to work as nursing assistants when not attending classes and telling them they should notify the nursing supervisor when they are delegated tasks they are not prepared for.
Metabolic waste, such as excess sodium, appears in the __________, whereas food components that are not digested or absorbed, such as fiber, appear in the __________.
Answer:
Metabolic waste, such as excess sodium, appears in the _urine__, whereas food components that are not digested or absorbed, such as fiber, appear in the _stool_.
Explanation:
Urine includes metabolic waste. Metabolic waste consists of compounds, such as excess sodium, which have been absorbed out of the cells, blood, and elsewhere by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Stool contains non-digested or ingested products, such as fiber or a paperclip. Such objects travel into the large intestines, where the body extracts water and minerals, and stores the remains as stool
Answer: URINE;STOOL
Explanation: Metabolic wastes are wastes generated after the CATABOLISM (the breakdown of foods). These wastes are appears in forms of micro substances like excess Sodium and others like magnesium are sent out after FILTRATION by the KIDNEYS.
Foods that are not digested ( they are not broken down) through the CATABOLISM are removed from the body through the STOOL. Example include FIBRES.
After a cervical neck injury, a client is placed in a halo fixation device with a body cast. Which statement indicates the client’s concern about body image has been resolved successfully?
Answer:"I've gotten used to the brace. I may even miss it when it's gone."
Explanation:A halo fixation device is an external attachment for the upper thoracic spine and cervical parts of the spinal corded to immobilize your neck,it servesas a rigid frame and support that holds the head in a fixed position preventing movement around the head.
When Client admits that he or she has gotten used to the frame and can do without it,he has affirmed that his issues are resolved.
Inflammation of the normally air-filled middle ear with the accumulation of fluid and pus behind the tympanic membrane; occurring either unilaterally or bilaterallyTrue/false
Answer:
Inflammation of the normally air-filled middle ear with the accumulation of fluid and pus behind the tympanic membrane; occurring either unilaterally or bilaterally
True
Explanation:
A nurse says, "We have so many drills and safety checks for everything. It is almost like we are preoccupied with the possibility of failure." How should the charge nurse respond to this statement?
Answer:
"Highly reliable organizations think about the possibility of failure and what to do to avoid it."
Explanation:
This statement reflects the quality of highly reliable organisations (HRO) who develop an organizational culture reflecting quality assurance and management. HROs are not immune to adverse events but have strong systems and procedures to reduce the occurrence of adverse events and human errors causing medical emergencies. Moreover, these organizations also work on their emergency protocols to prevent any major life loss.
A ______________________ professional would most likely hold one of the following positions: cancer registrar, privacy officer, software analyst, or compliance officer.
Answer:
Registered Health Information Administrator (RHIA)
Explanation:
Health information administrators are responsible for the maintenance and security of all patient records. They have to be registered in RHIA for do this job. Recent federal government regulations require that all health care providers keep electronic records of their patients and that those records are safe. As a result, health information managers must keep up to date with information technology, as well as legal requirements. In addition, as patient data is used more frequently for quality management and medical research, health information managers must ensure that the databases are complete, accurate and available only to authorized personnel.
In collective practices, administrators work closely with doctors. While an administrator can deal with business issues in small medical groups, leaving policy decisions to the physicians themselves, larger groups usually employ a full-time administrator to help them formulate the strategies for business and coordinate daily activities.