Answer:
Income will be higher by $16 per unit
Explanation:
As per the data given in the question,
Direct material = $38
Direct labor = $50
Overhead = $21
Total variable cost = $38 + $50 + $21
= $109
Cost of supply = $125
Income increased per unit = cost of supply - total variable cost
=$125 - $109
= $16
Because the cost of inhouse is lower therefore net income will be more by $16 per unit
The Cook County Authority is considering the purchase of a small plane to transport government officials. It is hoped that the plane will save money on travel costs for government employees. Assume the county requires a 8 percent rate of return. Using the present value tables in Exhibits 26-3 and 26-4, If the plane’s cost is $306,840 and it can likely be sold in six years for $100,000, what minimum annual savings in transportation costs is needed in order to make the plane a good investment? (Round Present value factor to 3 decimal places and your final answer to nearest whole dollar)
Answer:
$52,745
Explanation:
The computation of annual saving in transportation cost is shown below:-
Cost of plane = Annual saving in transportation cost x PVAF (i%, n) + Residual value × PVF (i%, n)
306,840 = Annual saving in transportation cost × PVAF (8%, 6) + 100,000 (8%,6)
306,840 = Annual saving in transportation cost × 4.623 + 100,000 × 0.630
306,840 = Annual saving in transportation cost × 4.623 + 63,000
Annual saving in transportation cost = $306,840 - $63,000
= 243,840 ÷ 4.623
= $52,745
Therefore for computing the annual saving in transportation cost we simply applied the above formula.
Morgan Clinical Practice is considering an investment in new imaging equipment that will cost $400,000. The equipment is expected to yield cash inflows of $80,000 per year for a six year period. At the end of the sixth year, the firm expects to recover $150,000 from the sale of the equipment. Morgan set a required rate of return at 10%. What is the net present value of the investment
Answer:
$33,091.95
Explanation:
The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.
NPV can be found using a financial calculator:
Cash flow in year 0 = $400,000
Cash flow each year from year 1 to 5 =$80,000
Cash flow in year 6 = $80,000 + $150,000 = $230,000
I = 10%
NPV = $33,091.95
To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
I hope my answer helps you
Unlimited Airlines jet costs $ 40 comma 000 comma 000 and is expected to fly 400 comma 000 comma 000 miles during its 10-year life. Residual value is expected to be zero because the plane was used when acquired. If the plane travels 25 comma 000 comma 000 miles the first year, how much depreciation should Unlimited Airlines record under the units-of-production method?
Answer:
$2,500,000
Explanation:
Depreciation is the charge of capital expense to the P&L due to the annual wear and tear of the asset.
Units of production method depreciate an expense on the basis of the production made within a period as a percentage of total capacity of the asset.
In this flying miles are considered to the the basis for the depreciation.
As per given data
Value of Jet = $40,000,000
Total Capacity = 400,000,000 miles
Depreciable value = Cost of the Jet - Residual Value = $40,000,000 - $0 = $40,000,000
Depreciation per mile = $40,000,000 / 400,000,000 = $0.1 per mile
Flying in the year = 25,000,000 miles
Depreciation for the year = 25,000,000 x $0.1 = $2,500,000
Tonya had the following items for last year: Salary $40,000 Short-term capital gain 12,000 Nonbusiness bad debt (23,000) Long-term capital gain 8,000 For the current year, Tonya had the following items: Salary $45,000 Long-term capital gain 5,000 Determine Tonya's adjusted gross income for the current year. A. $43,000 B. $45,000 C. $48,000 D. $50,000 E. $53,000
Answer:
D) $50,000
Explanation:
Tonya's adjusted gross income = salary + long term capital gains = $45,000 + $5,000 = $50,000
Non-business bad debt is unrelated to the person's business, and must be totally worthless in order to be deducted. In this case, Tonya deducted the non-business bad debt last year, so it doesn't affect this year's AGI.
Tonya's adjusted gross income for the current year is calculated by adding her salary and long-term capital gains, which add up to $50,000.
Explanation:Tonya's adjusted gross income can be determined by adding up all her incomes for the current year. The salary income Tonya has is $45,000, and from long-term capital gain, she got way much amassed $5,000. There are no short-term capital gains or non-business bad debts mentioned for the current year. Hence, her adjusted gross income for the current year would be the sum of her salary and the long-term capital gain, which is $45,000 + $5,000 = $50,000.
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Colton Gentry of Lancaster, California, has owned his home for ten years. When he purchased it for $178,000, Colton bought a $160,000 homeowner's insurance policy. He still owns that policy, even though the replacement cost of the home is now $300,000.
A) If Colton suffered a $23,000 fire loss to the home, what percentage of the loss would be covered by his policy? Round your answer to one decimal place.%
B) What dollar amount of the loss would be covered by his policy? Enter the amount of the loss as a positive number. Round your answer to the nearest dollar.$
C) How much insurance on the home should Colton carry now to be fully reimbursed for a fire loss? Round your answer to the nearest dollar. $
The answers explain how to calculate the percentage of loss covered by the insurance policy, the dollar amount of the loss covered, and the insurance amount needed for full reimbursement.
Explanation:A) To calculate the percentage of the loss covered by Colton's policy:
Subtract the policy value from the loss: $23,000 - $160,000 = $-137,000Since the policy covers the dwelling's current value, the coverage is limited to $160,000The percentage of the loss covered by the policy is: ($160,000 / $23,000) x 100 = 695.7% = 695.7%
B) The dollar amount of the loss covered by the policy is $160,000 as that is the policy value.
C) For full reimbursement for a fire loss, Colton should carry insurance equal to the replacement cost of the home, which is $300,000.
The desired profit margin is $25 per labor hour. The material loading charge is 25% of invoice cost. It is estimated that 5000 labor hours will be worked in 2019. In January 2019, Mike repairs a cellphone that uses parts of $200. Its material loading charge on this repair would be Select one: a. $20 b. $72 c. $50 d. $200
Answer:
c. $50
Explanation:
The computation of the material loading charge is shown below:
= Repair cost of a cellphone parts × material loading charge percentage
= $200 × 25%
= $50
By multiplying the repair cost of a cellphone parts with the material loading charge percentage so that the material loading charge on this repair could come
A hurricane has disrupted operations at one of your company's facilities and shut down operations completely for several of your key suppliers. Inputs to your manufacturing process will be exhausted within days, and the company will be unable to fulfill its contracts with customers. In addition, many employees have suffered serious damage to their homes, and a few people are missing. You are a manager, and your employees are looking to you for leadership. Which of the following do you do? A) In oral and written communications, focus on the damage and loss of life that has occurred, since any note of optimism would be disrespectful B) Use a highly emotional tone to communicate how seriously you take the situation and a sense of urgency. C) Set up a system for communicating facts as soon as they are determined so employees hear them first from management and not on the news. D) Walk around to be visible and accessible to as many employees as possible so they know you are engaged in crisis management.
Answer:
Set up a system for communicating facts as soon as they are determined so that employees hear them first from the management and not on the news.
Explanation:
One key approach to crisis management is an effective communication.
In the event of crisis , victims are always on the look out for reliefs and compensation from the relevant authorities and when it appears that this is not forthcoming , they become demoralized .
During crisis management , there should be a system of communicating facts as soon as possible so that the management's decision can easily be communicated to affected parties. When there is hope of compensation in sight , people get motivated .
Leon Jones worked in the warehouse of a large building supply company. One day he unexpected left for Fiji, never to return. His supervisor seized the opportunity to continue submit time cards for Leon to the payroll department. Each week, as part of his normal duties, the supervisor received the employee pay cheques from payroll and distribute them to the workers on his shift. As Leon was not present to collect his pay cheque, the supervisor forged Leon’s name and cashed it. Required: Describe two control techniques to prevent or detect this fraud scheme. (10
Answer:
=> Automated Signature Verification System.
=> Tracking of workers' appointment by the personnel department.
Explanation:
Forgery is a kind of fraud in which one changes name, signature or anything pertaining to another person in order to deceive other people. Forgery is a fraud and it is a criminal offence that should be stop in the society. Just as it is in the question above the supervisor is forging Leon’s name in order to be able to collect the money of someone that is no more working.
The two control techniques to prevent or detect this fraud scheme are given below:
=> Automated Signature Verification System : the company should have Automated Signature Verification System for their employees and customers so that with it they can easily detect forgery fraud and the person affected can be able to recover his or her losses.
=> Tracking of workers' appointment by the personnel department: the personnel department should track the appointment of each of their employees in any organization.
Other ways are to Install biometric time cards and make sure payroll record are verified and updated before payment.
The control techniques suggested to prevent the fraud scheme described are Segregation of Duties and Regular Auditing. Segregation of duties involves dividing payroll responsibilities among different individuals while regular auditing helps to check on the system and detect any fraudulent behaviors.
Explanation:To prevent or detect the fraud scheme described, two control techniques can be implemented. The first one is Segregation of Duties. In this case, payroll responsibilities would be divided among different individuals to reduce the risk of error and fraud. For example, the task of preparing time cards and the task of distributing pay cheques should not be handled by the same person. It reduces the chances of carrying out and concealing fraud.
The second technique is Regular Auditing. Regular, unannounced audits can deter fraudulent activities and catch them in the early stages. It will ensure that there is a procedural check on the payroll system and reduce its vulnerability to similar types of fraud. It will also lead to a change in organisational culture where it projects intolerance to fraudulent behaviors.
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A team of builders has surveyed buyers of their new homes for years. Consistently, only 48% of the buyers have indicated they were "quite satisfied" or "very satisfied" with the construction quality of their homes. The builders have adopted a revised quality inspection system to try to improve customer satisfaction. They have surveyed 400 buyers since then; these buyers seem representative, with no systematic changes from past purchasers. Of the 400 buyers, 210 indicated they were quite or very satisfied. Did they reach their goal? What is the appropriate test to perform?
Answer:
Explanation:
So, the hypothesis is:
H0 : p = .48 versus Ha : p≠ .48
check the picture attached for more explanation
The builders have succeeded in increasing customer satisfaction from 48% to 52.5%, according to survey results. To determine whether this change is statistically significant, the appropriate test to perform is the Proportion Z-Test.
Explanation:
This question pertains to statistics, a branch of mathematics. The builders' goal was to increase the percentage of buyers who were either 'quite satisfied' or 'very satisfied' with the construction quality of their homes from 48%. After implementing a revised quality inspection system, they surveyed 400 buyers and found that 210 were satisfied, which equates to 210/400 = 0.525 or 52.5%. Thus, they did reach their target of being above 48%. However, we still need to statistically verify the improvement.
The appropriate statistical test here is a Proportion Z-Test. The Proportion Z-Test is a tool used to compare the observed proportion of a sample to a theoretical one. It can help us decide whether the change in customer satisfaction is statistically significant, and not just a result of random sampling variability.
To carry out the Proportion Z-Test, one would need the pre-implementation proportion (48% in this case), the post-implementation observed proportion (52.5%), the sample size (400), and any significance level decided upon. These values will be used in a formula to calculate a Z-score, which will show if the change is significant.
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if an ivestor deposits 1500$ in bank that pay 10% interest annually how long will it take to double this money
Answer:
Number of year = 10 year
Explanation:
Given:
Principal = $1,500
Rate of interest = 10% = 0.1
Amount = 2 × Principal = 2 × $1,500 = $3,000
Interest = Amount - Principal = $3,000 - $1,500 = $1,500
Find:
Number of year = ?
Computation:
⇒ Interest = Principal × Rate of interest × Number of year
⇒ $1,500 = $1,500 × 0.1 × Number of year
⇒ $1,500 = $150 × Number of year
⇒ Number of year = $1,500 / $150
⇒ Number of year = 10 year
An author just signed a lucrative contract with a publisher that offers to pay her the amount of $600 at the end of year 9 when the book is scheduled to be released. The author, being profligate, desires to receive a different package: an immediate payment of $100 that is followed by an annuity (an equal amount) to be paid at the end of each year for 9 consecutive years. What annuity will make his package equivalent to the publisher's advance. Use an interest rate is 6%.
Answer:
annuity = $37.51
Explanation:
future value of the annuity = $600 - future value of the initial $100 paid
$100 x 1.06⁹ = $168.95
future value of the annuity = $600 - $168.95 = $431.05
FV of an annuity = payment x {[(1 + r)ⁿ - 1] / r}
payment = FV / {[(1 + r)ⁿ - 1] / r}
FV = $431.05r = 6%n = 9payment = $431.05 / {[1.06⁹ - 1] / 0.06} = $431.05 / {0.68948 / 0.06} = $431.05 / 11.4913 = $37.51
The annuity that will make the author's package equivalent to the publisher's advance is approximately $37.52 per year for 9 years.
To determine the annuity that will make the author's package equivalent to the publisher's advance, we need to calculate the present value (PV) of both packages and ensure they are equal.
1. Calculate the present value of the publisher's advance:
The publisher offers $600 at the end of year 9. To find the present value of this amount, we use the formula:
[tex]\[ PV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^n} \][/tex]
where:
- FV = future value ($600)
- r= interest rate (6% or 0.06)
- n = number of years (9)
[tex]\[ PV = \frac{600}{(1 + 0.06)^9} \][/tex]
Let's calculate this step-by-step:
[tex]\[ PV = \frac{600}{(1.06)^9} \][/tex]
Using a calculator or a power function:
[tex]\[ (1.06)^9 \approx 1.689478 \][/tex]
[tex]\[ PV = \frac{600}{1.689478} \approx 355.20 \][/tex]
2. Calculate the present value of the desired package:
The author's desired package consists of:
- An immediate payment of $100.
- An annuity paid at the end of each year for 9 consecutive years.
Let the annuity payment be A.
The present value of the immediate payment is simply $100.
The present value of the annuity can be calculated using the present value of an ordinary annuity formula:
[tex]\[ PV_{\text{annuity}} = A \times \left( \frac{1 - (1 + r)^{-n}}{r} \right) \][/tex]
where:
- A = annuity payment
- r = interest rate (6% or 0.06)
- n = number of years (9)
The total present value of the desired package is the sum of the immediate payment and the present value of the annuity:
[tex]\[ PV_{\text{total}} = 100 + A \times \left( \frac{1 - (1 + 0.06)^{-9}}{0.06} \right) \][/tex]
3. Set the present values equal to each other:
[tex]\[ 355.20 = 100 + A \times \left( \frac{1 - (1.06)^{-9}}{0.06} \right) \][/tex]
4. Solve for A:
First, calculate the annuity factor:
[tex]\[ \left( \frac{1 - (1.06)^{-9}}{0.06} \right) \][/tex]
Calculate [tex]\((1.06)^{-9}\)[/tex]:
[tex]\[ (1.06)^{-9} \approx 0.591898 \][/tex]
Now:
[tex]\[ \left( \frac{1 - 0.591898}{0.06} \right) = \left( \frac{0.408102}{0.06} \right) \approx 6.8017 \][/tex]
Substitute back into the equation:
[tex]\[ 355.20 = 100 + A \times 6.8017 \][/tex]
[tex]\[ 255.20 = A \times 6.8017 \][/tex]
[tex]\[ A = \frac{255.20}{6.8017} \approx 37.52 \][/tex]
Use the following information to answer the following questions.
Steven contributed a building, inventory, and $65,000 cash to a partnership. The building had a book value of $250,000 and a market value of $275,000. The inventory had a book value of $40,000, and a market value of $28,000. The partnership also assumed a $170,000 mortgage note payable owed by Smith that was used originally to purchase the equipment. (Enter answers in whole numbers, no decimals, no currency sign; example 50,000).
a.What debit amount will be recorded to the inventory account? $
b.What debit amount will be recorded to building account? $
c. What credit amount will be recorded to Steven's capital account ? $
Answer:
Explanation:
Steven contributed building and cash of $65,000
Book value of building = $250,000
Market value of building = $275,000
Book value of inventory = $40,000
Market value of inventory = $28,000
Mortgage note payable (used to purchase building = $170,000
All assets brought in by the partners are recorded at their market values.
a) Hence, amount to be debited to inventory account = $28,000
b) Amount to be debited to building account = $275,000
c) Amount to be recorded to Steven's Capital = Market value of building+Market value of inventory+Cash- Mortgage note payable (used to purchase building
= 275,000+28,000+65,000-170,000
= $198,000
QS 23-10 Sell or process further LO A1 Holmes Company produces a product that can be either sold as is or processed further. Holmes has already spent $74,000 to produce 1,325 units that can be sold now for $79,500 to another manufacturer. Alternatively, Holmes can process the units further at an incremental cost of $280 per unit. If Holmes processes further, the units can be sold for $460 each. Compute the incremental income if Holmes processes further.
Answer:
It is more profitable to continue processing and sell the units for $460.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sell as-is:
Selling price= $79,500
Continue processing:
Selling price= $460
Unitary incremental cost= $280
Units= 1,325
The firsts $74,000 is a sunk cost, this means that the cost will remain the same in both options. It is irrelevant to the decision-making process.
Sell as-is:
Effect on income= $79,500
Continue processing:
Effect on income= 1,325*(460-280)= $238,500
It is more profitable to continue processing and sell the units for $460.
The Southern Corporation manufactures a single product and has the following cost structure: Variable costs per unit: Production $ 44 Selling and administrative $ 16 Fixed costs per year: Production $ 129,010 Selling and administrative $ 109,660 Last year, 6,790 units were produced and 6,690 units were sold. There was no beginning inventory. The carrying value on the balance sheet of the ending inventory of finished goods under variable costing would be:
Answer: $1,900 less than under absorption costing.
Explanation:
The ending inventory of finished goods under variable costing is the difference in carrying value of ending finished goods inventory.
That is calculated as,
Difference in Carrying Value of Ending Finished Goods Inventory = Unit fixed Manufacturing Overhead * Change in Inventory in Units
The Unit Fixed Manufacturing Overhead as implied is the fixed Manufacturing Overhead per unit
Calculated therefore as,
Unit fixed manufacturing overhead = 129,010 / 6,790
= $19
Now that we have that, we can refer back to thw first formula,
Difference in carrying value of ending finished goods inventory = Unit fixed manufacturing overhead * Change in inventory in units
= 19 × (6,790 - 6,690)
= $1,900
The carrying value on the balance sheet of the ending inventory of finished goods under variable costing would be $1,900 less than under absorption costing.
Which of the following is true concerning employer funding of nonqualified deferred compensation plans? Multiple Choice Employers are required to invest salary deferred by employees in investments specified by the employees. Employers are required to annually fund their deferred compensation obligations to employees. Employers annually deduct the amount earned by employees under the plan. Employers may discriminate in terms of who they allow to participate in the plan.
Answer:
Employers may discriminate in terms of who they allow to participate in the plan.
Explanation:
A deferred unqualified payment agreement is a contractual arrangement between a very employer as well as a worker in which the employer intends to compensate the worker at a future date.
The provider expressly gives an unprotected commitment to provide future compensation to a worker, according to the clear conditions of the agreement.
However, such funding is not mandatory by the government and also their is a high direction for the employer in choosing the conditions, thus, their is high Chance of discrimination by employer also.
Bruce Corporation makes four products in a single facility. These products have the following unit product costs: Products A B C D Direct materials $ 14.60 $ 10.50 $ 11.30 $ 10.90 Direct labor 19.70 27.70 33.90 40.70 Variable manufacturing overhead 4.60 3.00 2.90 3.50 Fixed manufacturing overhead 26.80 35.10 26.90 37.50 Unit product cost $ 65.70 $ 76.30 $ 75.00 $ 92.60 Additional data concerning these products are listed below. Products A B C D Grinding minutes per unit 4.10 5.60 4.60 3.70 Selling price per unit $ 76.40 $ 93.80 $ 87.70 $ 104.50 Variable selling cost per unit $ 2.50 $ 1.50 $ 3.60 $ 1.90 Monthly demand in units 4,300 4,300 3,300 2,300 The grinding machines are potentially the constraint in the production facility. A total of 53,900 minutes are available per month on these machines. Direct labor is a variable cost in this company. How many minutes of grinding machine time would be required to satisfy demand for all four products
Answer:
Bruce Corporation
Minutes of Grinding Machine Time required to satisfy demand for all four products:
Total Grinding Machine Time
Product A = 4.10 minutes * 4,300 demand units = 17,630 minutes
Product B = 5.60 minutes * 4,300 demand units = 24,080 minutes
Product C = 4.60 minutes * 3,300 demand units = 15,180 minutes
Product D = 3.70 minutes * 2,300 demand units = 8,500 minutes
Total = 65,400 minutes
Explanation:
The total minutes of Grinding Machine Time required to satisfy monthly demand for each product is calculated by multiplying the units demanded by the grinding minutes per unit.
This gives total minutes required for each product. Then, when they are summed, the total Grinding Machine Time is obtained.
This total can be compared to the total available minutes per month of 53,900 to obtain the additional minutes required above the minutes available in order to satisfy the products' demands.
The total grinding machine time required to satisfy demand for all four products is 65,500 minutes.
Explanation:The grinding machines are potentially the constraint in the production facility. To calculate the total grinding machine time required to satisfy demand for all four products, we need to find the grinding minutes per unit for each product and multiply it by the monthly demand in units for that product. Finally, we sum up the total grinding machine time for all four products.
Product A: 4.10 min/unit x 4,300 units = 17,730 minutes
Product B: 5.60 min/unit x 4,300 units = 24,080 minutes
Product C: 4.60 min/unit x 3,300 units = 15,180 minutes
Product D: 3.70 min/unit x 2,300 units = 8,510 minutes
Total grinding machine time required to satisfy demand for all four products: 17,730 minutes + 24,080 minutes + 15,180 minutes + 8,510 minutes = 65,500 minutes
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Sunland Company produces flash drives for computers, which it sells for $26 each. The variable cost to make each flash drive is $13. During April, 300 drives were sold. Fixed costs were $1400 for the month. How much is the monthly break-even level of sales in dollars for Sunland
Answer:
Break-even point (dollars)= $2,800
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price= $26 each
Unitary variable cost= $13
The fixed costs were $1400 for the month.
To calculate the break-even point in dollars, we need to use the following formula:
Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ contribution margin ratio
Break-even point (dollars)= 1,400/ [(26 - 13)/26]
Break-even point (dollars)= $2,800
Boswell Company manufactures two products, Regular and Supreme. Boswell’s overhead costs consist of machining, $3600000; and assembling $1500000. Information on the two products is: Regular Supreme Direct labor hours 10000 15000 Machine hours 10000 30000 Number of parts 90000 160000
Overhead applied to Regular using activity-based costing is
a. $3060000.
b. $3660000.
c. $1440000.
d. $2040000.
The overhead applied to the Regular product using activity-based costing is $1,440,000, calculated by distributing machining and assembling overheads based on machine hours and the number of parts respectively.
To calculate the overhead applied to the Regular product using activity-based costing (ABC), we need to allocate the total overhead costs based on the activity drivers for both machining and assembling activities.
First, let's distribute the machining overhead based on machine hours. The total machine hours are:
Regular: 10,000 hours
Supreme: 30,000 hours
Total: 40,000 hours
Machining overhead cost per machine hour:
$ [tex]\frac{3,600,000}{40,000}[/tex] hours = $90 per machine hour
Overhead for Regular from machining:
10,000 hours * $90 = $900,000
Next, let's distribute the assembling overhead based on the number of parts. The total number of parts is:
Regular: 90,000 parts
Supreme: 160,000 parts
Total: 250,000 parts
Assembling overhead cost per part:
$ [tex]\frac{1,500,000}{250,000}[/tex] parts = $6 per part
Overhead for Regular from assembling:
90,000 parts * $6 = $540,000
Total overhead applied to Regular:
$900,000 (machining) + $540,000 (assembling) = $1,440,000
Comparing three depreciation methods Dexter Industries purchased packaging equipment on January 8 for $72,000. The equipment was expected to have a useful life of three years, or 18,000 operating hours, and a residual value of $4,500. The equipment was used for 7,600 hours during Year 1, 6,000 hours in Year 2, and 4,400 hours in Year 3. Required: 1. Determine the amount of depreciation expense for the three years ending December 31, by (a) the straight-line method, (b) the units-of-activity method, and (c) the double-declining-balance method. Also determine the total depreciation expense for the three years by each method. Round the final answers for each year to the nearest whole dollar.
Answer:
a) $22,500
b) 3.75 per unit
c) 66.67%
Explanation:
As per the data given in the question,
Calculation for amount of depreciation:
Straight line Depreciation = ($72,000 - $4,500)÷3
=$22,500
Unit of production method = ($72,000 - $4,500)÷18,000
= $3.75 per unit
Double decline rate = 100÷3
= 33.33%×2
= 66.67%
Depreciation Expense
Year Straight line Unit of production Double decline
year 1 $22,500 7,600×$3.75 =$28,500 $72,000×66.67%=$48,000
year 2 $22,500 6,000×$3.75 =$22,500 $24,000×66.67%=$16,000
year 3 $22,500 4,400×$3.75 =$16,500 ($67,500-$64,000)=$3,500
Total $67,500 $67,500 $67,500
Bloom Corporation issued 60,000 shares of common stock. Bloom purchased 9,000 shares and later reissued 900 shares. How many shares are issued and outstanding? A. 60,000 issued and 51,900 outstanding B. 51,900 issued and 51,900 outstanding C. 60,000 issued and 51,000 outstanding D. 51,000 issued and 51,000 outstanding
Answer:
A. 60,000 issued and 51,900 outstanding
Explanation:
Bloom Corporation
Issued 60,000 shares of common stock -purchased 9,000 shares
=51,000 shares
Hence:
51,000 shares + Reissued 900 shares
=51,900 Outstanding
Therefore Bloom Corporation will issued
60,000 issued and 51,900 outstanding
Final answer:
The total number of shares issued by Bloom Corporation remains at 60,000. After purchasing 9,000 shares and reissuing 900, the total number of outstanding shares is 51,900. The correct answer is option A: 60,000 issued and 51,900 outstanding.
Explanation:
Bloom Corporation initially issued 60,000 shares of common stock. When a company buys back its own shares, these shares are referred to as treasury stock and are not considered outstanding, but they are still considered issued. Bloom Corporation then purchased 9,000 shares, reducing the number of outstanding shares. However, later it reissued 900 of these shares. To calculate the current outstanding shares, you subtract the treasury stock from the initially issued shares and then add back any reissued shares.
Therefore, the calculation is as follows: 60,000 initially issued - 9,000 treasury shares + 900 reissued shares, resulting in 51,900 shares outstanding. The answer that correctly states the number of issued and outstanding shares for Bloom Corporation is A. 60,000 issued and 51,900 outstanding.
Concord Company is involved in producing and selling high-end golf equipment. The company has recently been involved in developing various types of laser guns to measure yardages on the golf course. One small laser gun, called LittleLaser, appears to have a very large potential market. Because of competition, Concord does not believe that it can charge more than $100 for LittleLaser. At this price, Concord believes it can sell 106,000 of these laser guns. Concord will require an investment of $8,056,000 to manufacture, and the company wants an ROI of 25%. Determine the target cost for one LittleLaser. Target cost $
Answer:
$8,586,000
Explanation:
market price for Littlelaser $100 per unit
units sold 106,000
total revenue generated by Littlelaser = $100 x 106,000 = $10,600,000
required investment = $8,056,000
since the investors require a return on investment of 25%, then the profits generated by Littlelaser should be:
ROI = net income / total investment
25% x $8,056,00 = net income
net income = $2,014,000
target cost = total revenue - net income = $10,600,000 - $2,014,000 = $8,586,000
total revenue $10,600,000
- total cost $8,596,000
net income $2,014,000
In order to retain certain key executives, Crane Company granted them incentive stock options on December 31, 2020. 143000 options were granted at an option price of $35 per share. Market prices of the stock were as follows: December 31, 2021 $48 per share December 31, 2022 53 per share The options were granted as compensation for executives’ services to be rendered over a two-year period beginning January 1, 2021. The Black-Scholes option pricing model determines total compensation expense to be $1504000. What amount of compensation expense should Crane recognize as a result of this plan for the year ended December 31, 2021 under the fair value method? $ 752000. $1504000. $2629000. $1654000.
Final answer:
To determine the compensation expense that Crane Company should recognize for the year ended December 31, 2021, under the fair value method, calculate the value of the vested stock options by subtracting the option price from the market price at the end of the year and multiplying it by the number of vested options.
Explanation:
To determine the compensation expense that Crane Company should recognize for the year ended December 31, 2021, under the fair value method, we need to calculate the value of the stock options granted to the executives at the end of the year.
First, calculate the number of options that have vested at the end of the year. Since the options were granted over a two-year period, half of the options would have vested by the end of the first year (143,000 / 2 = 71,500).Next, calculate the intrinsic value of the vested options by subtracting the option price from the market price at the end of the year ($48 - $35 = $13).Then, multiply the vested options by the intrinsic value to get the total compensation expense for the year ($13 x 71,500 = $929,500).Therefore, the amount of compensation expense that Crane should recognize for the year ended December 31, 2021, under the fair value method is $929,500.
Likert company manufactures extremely accurate scales. They use a standard costing system. Last year the company projected that 296,000 scales would be produced. When Likert company closed out manufacturing overhead, they recorded a $129,000 debit to the FOH Budget Variance and a $150,000 credit to the FOH Volume Variance. Likert company budgeted $2,375,000 of fixed overhead. What was the actual amount of fixed overhead
Answer:
$ 2,504,000
Explanation:
Budgeted overhead= $2,375,000
FOH budget variance= $129,000
Actual amount of fixed overhead= $2,375,000+$129,000
=$ 2,504,000
Therefore the actual amount of fixed overhead will be $ 2,504,000
Wheeling Inc. uses the aging of accounts receivable method. Its estimate of uncollectible receivables resulting from the aging analysis equals $6,900. At the end of the year, the balance of Accounts Receivable is $119,000 and the unadjusted debit balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $880. Credit sales during the year totaled $188,000. What is the estimated Bad Debt Expense for the current year?
Final answer:
The estimated bad debt expense for Wheeling Inc. is calculated by adjusting the current Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance to the estimated uncollectible receivables amount from the aging analysis, resulting in a bad debt expense of $6,020 for the year.
Explanation:
The student has presented a question involving the calculation of bad debt expense using the aging of accounts receivable method. To calculate the estimated bad debt expense for the current year, we consider the following:
The estimate of uncollectible receivables from the aging analysis is $6,900.The current unadjusted debit balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $880.The ending balance of Accounts Receivable is $119,000.The calculation proceeds as follows:
First, determine the desired ending balance for the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, which is the estimate from the aging analysis: $6,900.Second, adjust the current unadjusted balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts to the desired balance by recognizing bad debt expense. Bad debt expense = Desired balance - Current unadjusted balance = $6,900 - $880 = $6,020.Therefore, the estimated bad debt expense for the current year is $6,020.
On May 7, Carpet Barn Company offered to pay $75,190 for land that had a selling price of $90,000. On May 15, Carpet Barn accepted a counteroffer of $85,970. On June 5, the land was assessed at a value of $100,000 for property tax purposes. On December 10, Carpet Barn Company was offered $127,000 for the land by another company. At what value should the land be recorded in Carpet Barn Company's records
Answer:
$85,970
Explanation:
The cost of a fixed asset includes all cost incurred in making the asset available for use. These includes the cost of the item net all discounts, sales tax, freight cost etc. Fixed assets are carried at their historical cost.
Hence for Carpet Barn Company's records, the cost of the land will be at historical cost of $85,970.
The key consideration is that the asset is not carried at an amount higher than it's recoverable value.
A property could be sold today for $2 million. It has a loan balance of $1 million and, if sold, the investor would incur a capital gains tax of $250,000.The investor has determined that if it were sold today, she would earn an IRR of 15% on equity for the past 5 years.If not sold, the property is expected to produce an after-tax cash flow of $50,000 over the next year.At the end of the year, the property value is expected to increase to $2.1 million, the loan balance will decrease to $900,000, and the amount of capital gains tax due is expected to increase to $255,000.a. What is the marginal rate of return for keeping the property one additional year?b. What is the decision to make by the investor?
Final answer:
The marginal rate of return is calculated by considering the net difference in proceeds from selling the property today versus after one year, including the net cash flow from holding on to it. The decision whether to sell or keep the property would depend on how the marginal rate of return compares to the investor's required return.
Explanation:
To calculate the marginal rate of return for keeping the property an additional year, you need to compare the net proceeds from selling today to what the investor would receive in total if the property is sold after one year, including the additional net cash flow from retaining it. The net proceeds from selling today are $2 million (sale price) - $1 million (loan balance) - $250,000 (capital gains tax) = $750,000. If the property is sold after one more year, the proceeds would be $2.1 million (expected future sale price) - $900,000 (expected future loan balance) - $255,000 (expected future capital gains tax) + $50,000 (net cash flow from holding the property for the year) = $995,000. The marginal rate of return is then calculated on the equity difference, which is $995,000 in one year versus $750,000 today.
As for the decision the investor should make, it would depend on comparing this marginal rate of return to the investor's required return or opportunity cost of capital. If the marginal rate exceeds the investor's threshold, she should keep the property; otherwise, she should sell it.
Note that the CPI-based rate of inflation between 2015 and 2016 in the baseline scenario provided is 9.6%. Suppose, instead of rising from $2 to $2.50 between 2015 and 2016, the price of hamburgers rose to $3.50. What would be the rate of inflation? Instructions: Round your answer to one decimal place.
Answer:
Inflation rate = 75%
Explanation:
Inflation is the increase in the general price level. Inflation erodes the purchasing power of money. Inflation is measured by the changes in the consumer price index.
Here, we can compute the rate of inflation as the rate of change in the prices of the same item over the course of a period.
Inflation rate= (current price - initial price)/initial price × 100
= ( 3.50-2.00)/2 × 100
= 75%
Inflation rate= 75%
Dicks Sporting Goods included the following information in its year-end 2015 10-K Sales $7,270,965 PPE, gross 2,665,314 Land Construction in progress 124,400 Accumulated depreciation 1,317,429 PPE, net, at year-end 2014 1,203,382 Depreciation expense 193,594 a. Compute PPE turnover. Round answer to one decimal place. Answer 0 b. Compute the average useful life. Round answer to one decimal place. Answer 0 years c. Compute the percentage used up of the PPE. Round answer to one decimal place (ex: 0.2345
Final answer:
To calculate PPE turnover, the average useful life, and the percentage used up of PPE for Sporting Goods, you need to utilize the provided financial data from the company's 10-K. This calculation can be used to assess the efficiency and usage of the company's PPE assets.
Explanation:
Property, Plant and Equipment (PPE) Turnover, Useful Life, and Percentage Used Up Calculation
The calculation of PPE turnover, average useful life, and percentage used up of PPE involves using data from a company's financial statements. For the PPE turnover, you divide the sales by the average PPE. The average useful life can be estimated by dividing the gross PPE by the yearly depreciation expense. The percentage used up of PPE is calculated by dividing the accumulated depreciation by the gross PPE.
To compute these for Sporting Goods, using the 10-K for 2015:
a. PPE turnover: 7,270,965 / ((2,665,314 + 1,203,382) / 2) gives a PPE turnover ratio.
b. Average useful life: 2,665,314 / 193,594 gives the average number of years.
c. Percentage used up of PPE: 1,317,429 / 2,665,314 gives a percentage.
Where:
Sales: $7,270,965
Gross PPE: $2,665,314
Accumulated depreciation: $1,317,429
PPE, net at year-end 2014: $1,203,382
Depreciation expense: $193,594
Marin's Cleaning Supplies Company has an idea for a cleaner that is universal and can clean any surface type. This could simplify the cleaning process for homeowners, as well as janitors and other professional cleaners. When doing business analysis, the most important question this company should consider when deciding whether to develop this product is:
Answer:
Test marketing.
Explanation:
Test marketing is an experimental tool used by manufacturers to test the viability of their products under typical market conditions, comprised of stores and real life buying situations, in order to determine its sales performance and ascertain its acceptability by consumers.
Hence, Marin's Cleaning Supplies Company when doing business analysis should consider test marketing strategy when deciding whether to develop the cleaner.
Assume that you have invested $100,000 in British equities. When purchased the stock's price and the exchange rate were £50 and £0.50/$1.00 respectively. At selling time, one year after purchase, they were £45 and £0.60/$1.00. If the investor had sold £50,000 forward at the forward exchange rate of £0.55/$1.00, the dollar rate of return would be:
Final answer:
To calculate the dollar rate of return, we need to consider the initial investment, exchange rate at the time of purchase, exchange rate at the time of selling, and the amount of pounds sold forward at the forward exchange rate. The dollar rate of return for the investor would be -72.3%.
Explanation:
To calculate the dollar rate of return, we need to consider the initial investment, exchange rate at the time of purchase, exchange rate at the time of selling, and the amount of pounds sold forward at the forward exchange rate. Here's how we calculate it:
Initial investment in British equities: $100,000Exchange rate at the time of purchase: £0.50/$1.00Exchange rate at the time of selling: £0.60/$1.00Amount of pounds sold forward: £50,000Forward exchange rate: £0.55/$1.00To calculate the dollar rate of return:
Calculate the initial value of the investment in dollars: $100,000 / £0.50/$1.00 = £200,000Calculate the final value of the investment in dollars: (£50,000 / £0.55/$1.00) * £0.60/$1.00 = $54,545.45Calculate the dollar rate of return: ($54,545.45 - $200,000) / $200,000 * 100 = -72.3%Therefore, the dollar rate of return for the investor would be -72.3%.