Drag the appropriate tRNAs to the binding sites on the ribosome to show the configuration immediately before a new peptide bond forms. Note that one of the binding sites should be left empty.Figure:Ribosome structure in figure

Answer:

Option-B, C and E

Explanation:

Archaebacteria are a group of prokaryotes which can survive the extreme conditions. The archaebacteria which can survive very high temperature are called hyperthermophiles. The hyperthermophilic bacteria can survive temperature range between 70 t 125 °C observed in hydrothermal vents.

The archaea bacteria can withstand the high temperature as their membrane is adaptive. The membrane of the archaea is more stable due to the ether linkage which makes carbon less chemically reactive. The phospholipids possess a monolayer which decreases the layer fluidity and thus the unwanted movement of molecules.

The archaea also contain cyclopentane rings in the ester-linked phospholipids which allows tight pacing of the molecules which decrease the movement of solute into and out of the cell.

Thus, the selected options are correct.

Answer:

The answer to your question is this structure has 5 carbons and 10 hydrogens.

Explanation:

Carbons are the number of edges of the figure.

This is a pentagon it has 5 edges so it has 5 carbons. See the picture below

Number of hydrogens

All the carbons have 2 carbons so,  5 carbons x 2 hydrogens = 10 hydrogens

This exaggerated feature has received various interpretations such as being adapted for better feeding and temperature maintenance.

Explanation:

The largest beak of Tuco toucan relative to body size is an adaptation for feeding. Tuco toucon use their beaks to pluck fruits to eat, they catch insects, frogs and reptiles for feeding. When sleeping they keep their beaks under their feather to keep itself warm. Also, the large beaks help it radiate heat and maintain its temperature. They increase their blood flow to their beaks and maintain temperature  to survive in the tropical climate.

Answer:

Mendel proposed that gene occurred in two copies in every individual. This postulate is similar to homologous chromosomes carrying the two alleles of a gene type. Mendel proposed that one variant was more observant than the other variant. This can be depicted as one allele being dominant over the recessive allele.

Alleles segregate from each other when homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I. Non-homologous chromosomes line up independently of each other during metaphase I of each meiotic event. This results in independent assortment during anaphase I and completion of meiosis I

Answer:

d. Between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA.

Explanation:

Polymerase Chain Reaction serves to make copies of a small amount of DNA. To perform the process of replication, the sample DNA molecule must be denatured. It means that the hydrogen bonds that hold the two DNA strands of the double helix together should be broken down.

A double-stranded DNA molecule has two DNA strands. The nitrogenous base of nucleotides of one DNA strand of a helix makes hydrogen bonds with a complementary base present on the other DNA strand. Adenine base makes two hydrogen bonds with thymine base while guanine makes three hydrogen bonds with cytosine. In this way, hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases of two DNA strands hold them together in a double helix.

Hydrogen bonds in DNA structure are normally found between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA. These bonds are broken during the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process.

In the context of DNA structure, hydrogen bonds are normally found in option d. Between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA. This is a key feature of the double helix structure of DNA. These hydrogen bonds hold two complementary strands of DNA together and are the bonds that need to be broken during the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process. This is performed in the denaturation step of PCR, which allows for the replication of the DNA strand.

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Answer:

Option-(C,A):Archaea must undergo meiosis prior to cell division, and Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has distinct genetic information.

Explanation:

Archea are prehistoric organisms who can be also termed as the prokaryotic living cells, as they developed from a less developed form to a more complex shape or system. As the feature of being a polyploid makes it easy for any archea to survive in the most severe conditions. As the polyploids contain a number of genetic materials in pair, as each pair is very distinctive in features or more independent in regulating a function then the other. Giving it a more diversity of genetic sequence its genome.

Along, with that the process of meiosis occurs prior to the process or event of cell division. Which is for production of the copies of the parent cell, which posses the same genetic material as that of the parent cells.

Answer:

a. Dominant

b. Cy+ , +

Explanation:

The mutation explained in the question is written with capital letters as "Cy". Since the mutation is denoted with upper case letters, it should be dominant over the wild type phenotype.  

In genetics, the wild type phenotype is mutated to produce one or more mutant phenotypes. To distinguish the wild type alleles from the mutated alleles, the former ones are written as "+" or "+" is written as a superscript to the letters denoting the mutant allele. Therefore, the wild type allele for the gene can be written as "+" or as "Cy⁺". Here, "+" is superscript to "Cy".

Answer:

A) Primary- 2. The location of prosthetic groups is shown.

B) Secondary- 3. Determines how the protein will fold into a unique three-dimensional structure

C) Tertiary- 4. Held together by hydrogen bonds between atoms of the peptide backbone

D) Quatenary- 1. Formed by noncovalent interactions between two or more polypeptide chains.

Explanation:

Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

Four Protein Structure Types

The four levels of protein structure are distinguished from one another by the degree of complexity in the polypeptide chain. A single protein molecule may contain one or more of the protein structure types: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure.

Proteins are made up of various amino acids linked together in a three-dimensional structure and make up the polymer.

The correct matches are:

a. Primary : Option 2. The site of prosthetic groups is shown.

b. Secondary : Option 3. Specifies how the protein will fold into a special three-dimensional configuration.

c. Tertiary : Option 4. Held concurrently by hydrogen bonds between atoms of the peptide backbone.

d. Quaternary : Option 1. Created by non-covalent relations between two or more polypeptide chains.

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The SIMULATION pane shows the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors with constant magnitude. This indicates a scenario where the object's speed or direction isn't changing, and thus, its acceleration is zero. Also, the object's acceleration vector would be perpendicular to its path when it's moving in a circular pattern at a uniform speed.

From the SIMULATION pane, observations are made regarding the directions of the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors. The vectors' magnitude appears to be constant in this simulation. This suggests that there isn't a change in speed or direction of the object being studied; hence, its acceleration is zero.

Looking at the graph, it's evident that the ball moved with a constant velocity, as indicated by the horizontal line. This further confirms the notion that the object is not accelerating since acceleration refers to change in velocity.

Momentum vectors and velocity vectors have constant magnitude and point in the same direction when the object moves at a constant speed. Hence, according to the characteristics of vectors, the direction of acceleration is perpendicular to the object's track when motion occurs in a circular pattern at a constant speed. This uniform circular motion is widely observable in physics.

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Answer:

Add-on-code is 92974.

Explanation:

Transcatheter placement of radiation delivery device for subsequent coronary intravascular brachytherapy. This code is reported in the reference given below and also on the Current Procedural Terminology database.

Reference: Buck, Carol J. Workbook for Step-by-Step Medical Coding, 2014 Edition-E-Book. Elsevier Health Sciences, 2014.

Answer:

The correct answer is D. zygote and finally develops into a fetus

Explanation:

Zygote is formed by the fusion of male gametes and female gametes. It is considered as the first stage of development of a baby. Zygote is a unicellular structure which develops into an embryo which is a multicellular structure.

Then this embryo develops and is called a fetus at the starting of the 11th week of pregnancy. A developed fetus is the final stage of prenatal development.

Therefore during successful prenatal development, a human baby begins as a zygote and finally develops into a fetus. So the correct answer is D.

Fertilization is the process in which male and female gamete fuse to form the zygote. The zygote develops into a fetus, which eventually forms into a human baby in nine months.

During the course of prenatal development, the human organism begins a zygote and finally develops into a fetus.

The zygote is a diploid structure, which is formed by the fusion of male and female reproductive cells. The zygote is the indication of pregnancy and the first stage of the development of the baby.

The zygote develops into an embryo and is termed a fetus at the 11th week of pregnancy. The fetus fully develops in nine months and is the final stage of prenatal development.

Thus, successful prenatal development involves the formation of a zygote in a fetus in the course of nine months.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.

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Answer:

Basically this depends on the type of cell division the cell undergoes.

if the cell undergoes reduction division of meiosis(n) the  chromosome number will be reduced to 20 so the centromere will be 20, However if the cell undergoes multiplication division of mitosis,(2n) the centromere will be 40, since the chromosomes number will increases and sister chromatids holding the chromosomes are held at centro mere.

Explanation:

If the cell has 40 chromosomes, the number of centromeres will also be 40 the same number as the chromosome.

The correct option is (D) 40.

Thus, the correct option is (D) 40. Since in metaphase the chromosomes are aligned in a straight line, there is no change to occur in the number of chromosomes.

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Answe

Explanation:

Excersice increases the cardiac and skeletal muscels strenght for maximum oxygen consumption for energy output.

It lowers the blood pressure and in prove RBC count for oxygen transportation and distribution.

It cut down risk of osteoporosis, by stimulating bone growth.

Answer:

True.

When shopping for fruit trees for the yard we should select varieties that mature before the hot summer temperatures arrive to avoid sunburning fruit.

Explanation:

When shopping for fruit trees, choosing varieties that ripen before peak summer time can help avoid sunburn damage to the fruits, so the statement is true.

The statement given is True. When shopping for fruit trees for your yard, it can be beneficial to select varieties that mature before the peak summer temperatures arrive. This practice helps prevent sunburning of the fruits, which could otherwise damage their quality and render them inedible. Fruits, like humans, can suffer from skin damage due to extreme exposure to sun. Certain fruit trees including apples, pears, and cherries are more susceptible to sunburn damage. Therefore, choosing early maturing varieties can be a smart gardening decision.

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Answer:

Option E

Explanation:

As per Thomas Malthus, population of any specie will grow tremendously when resources are supplied in an unlimited amount. Extensive resource supply will reduce competition among species thereby further boosting population growth. This accelerated growth in population is termed as exponential growth.  In general, in an exponential population the birth rate or the rate by which population is increasing either constant through out or increases after certain period of time.

Population of bacteria grows exponentially in case of adequate resource availability as the growth rate remains adequate through out the life cycle.  However, in real world resources are limited and hence exponential population growth is not possible.  

Hence, option E is correct

Answer:

The correct answer would be - option B.

Explanation:

The shift from the logistic population growth to exponential growth takes place if the resources are enough and if there would be enough resources for a population there will be fewer or no competitions. Sufficient resources are only present in favorable conditions.  

If the resources are unlimited it shows the growth rate in the population by using the natural resources, this increase is called exponential population growth, removal of competitors will lead to less utilization of the resources other than the desirable population and it will increase.

Thus, the correct answer is - option B.

Answer:

Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition

Explanation:

Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes (hydrohalogenation) show regioselectivity, they obey Markovnikov rule. This is always obeyed in all alkene reactions with hydrogen halides. The major product is always one in which the halide is attached to the carbon with the least number of hydrogen atoms and the hydrogen attached to the carbon with the greatest number of hydrogen atoms across the double bond. However, the reaction is not steroselective. It does not yield a greater percentage of a particular stereo isomer. The reaction yields a 50-50 mixture of both syn- and anti- addition products.

Answer:

Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition

Explanation:

Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes (hydrohalogenation) show regioselectivity, they obey Markovnikov rulproducts.

Explanation:

Answer:

196.8

Explanation:

In a population of Aye-Ayes there are red-eyed individuals exhibiting the dominant phenotype  -----i.e RR

yellow-eyed individuals exhibiting the recessive phenotype ----- i.e rr

in the next generation, we will have the following offspring

          R                    R

r          Rr                   Rr

r          Rr                    Rr

All the offspring are heterozygous in nature.

Now, the question goes further by saying, if there are 66 yellow-eyed individuals in the current population of 459, i.e (q² =66)

How many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation which will consist of 410 total individuals.

In solving Hardy-Weinberg question, we use the following equation below.

p + q = 1

p² + 2pq + q²  = 1

where;

p = the frequency of the dominant allele

q =  the frequency of the recessive allele

p² = the frequency of individuals with homozygous dominant phenotype

2pq  = the frequency of individuals with heterozygous phenotype

q² = frequency of individuals with the homozygous recessive phenotype

Now, If In the next generation, the total population = 410

and q² (yellow-eyed individuals that are recessive in nature) = 66

then; q²= [tex]\frac{individuals with recessive phenotype}{total population}[/tex]

q² =  [tex]\frac{66}{410}[/tex]

q² = 0.16

q = [tex]\sqrt{0.16}[/tex]

q = 0.4

Since q = 0.4, we can easily get p by using the formula above:

p + q = 1

p = 1 - q

p = 1 - 0.4

p = 0.6

∴ Since we've known our p and q , we can easily determine how many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation.

2pq = 2 ( 0.6 × 0.4)

= 2 ( 0.24)

= 0.48

2pq = [tex]\frac{individuals with heterozygous phenotype}{total population}[/tex]

0.48 = [tex]\frac{x}{410}[/tex]

x = 0.48 × 410

x = 196.8 individuals

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

There has been a constant increase in the earth's global surface temperature. This global rise in temperature is due to the increasing number of volcanic eruptions on earth's surface, changes in the orbital geometry as well as due to the introduction of the industrial revolution, that has been taking place on earth for the last 200 years.

The eruption of volcanoes leads to the release of a large number of pyroclastic materials and greenhouse gases and volcanic gases such as CO₂, SO₂, H₂O, H₂S and many other gases, which is harmful to the atmosphere. This leads to an increasing amount of temperature, resulting in the melting of the glaciers in the polar region.

Over this long time, plate motions have rapidly taken place, due to which the volcanoes were formed and erupted near the convergent and the divergent plate boundaries.

Thus, the above-given statement is true.

Yes, orbital geometry or volcanic eruptions have greatly affected climate in the past which leads to dramatic warming of the last 200 years.

The more eruptions from volcanos and industrial revolution increases the concentration of carbondioxide gas in the atmosphere which is a greenhouse gas responsible for blocking the reflected radiations of the sun leads to warming of the surrounding.

This phenomenon is known as global warming. This global warming greatly change the atmosphere of the earth so we can conclude that volcanic eruptions and industrial revolution greatly affected the climate of the earth.

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Answer: C. Measles

Explanation:

Measles is a contagious disease which is caused by the Rubeola virus. It is an airborne disease which spread easily through sneezes and coughs of the infected person. It may also caused due to direct contact with the nasal secretions. It can spread when people share a common living space and lack immunity to fight against the disease causing symptoms.

The symptoms include cough, inflamed eyes, red rashes all over the body and begins with fever.

On the basis of the above information, measles is the disease due to which the client must be placed in a respiratory isolation so as to prevent the infection to other people.

Answer:

Part A : 70 secondary oocytes will be formed.

Part B : 70 first polar bodies will be formed.

Part C : 70 ootids will be formed.

Explanation:

During oogenesis growth maturation of a single oogonium produces one primary oogonium.

the primary oogonium then undergoes meiosis -1 and produces  one secondary oocyte and first polar body.

The secondary oocyte then undergoes meiosis - 2 and forms an ootid and second polar body.

The ootid then differentiates into the ovum.

As in the above scenario , 70 primary oocytes are present , they undergo meiosis-1 and produces 70 secondary oocytes and 70 first polar bodies. Hence answers of part A and B is 70.

As 70 secondary oocytes are formed , they undergo meiosis -2 and forms 70 ootids which then differentiate in 70 ovums.

70 primary oocytes will result in 70 secondary oocytes and 70 first polar bodies. After meiosis II, the 70 secondary oocytes will form 70 ootids.

Part A: During oogenesis, primary oocytes undergo meiosis I to produce secondary oocytes. Meiosis I results in the formation of two cells, one secondary oocyte and one polar body. Therefore, if 70 primary oocytes are followed, 70 secondary oocytes would be formed.

Part B: Each primary oocyte also produces a first polar body during meiosis I. Therefore, if 70 primary oocytes are followed, 70 first polar bodies would be formed.

Part C: After meiosis II, the secondary oocyte undergoes a second division to form an ootid and a second polar body. Therefore, if the 70 secondary oocytes undergo meiosis II, 70 ootids would be formed.

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Answer AND Explanation:

Benedict’s Reagent Data

Sample:  Initial Color:    Final Color:      Reducing Sugar Present in Sample? dH2O        Clear               Blue                    no  

Albumin  clear                 Blue                      no

Milk          white          Orange-ish brown     yes

Glucose  clear              red                          yes

Lugol’s Iodine Data

Sample:     Initial Color:       Final Color:        Starch Present in Sample

dH2O            clear                 orange                 No

Albumin          Clear              orange                  No

Milk               White               Yellow-ish             No

Starch          Foggy                Black                     Yes

Raw Potato    Yellow             Black                     yes

In each of the two tests (starch and sugar) a positive and negative control was used.Test one positive control was milk and glucose and the negative control was the albumin and dh2o1. Milk and glucose have high levels of sugar present while the others don't.The test two results were positive for potato and starch while the dh20, milk, albumin were negative

In the test for reducing sugars using Benedict's solution, milk and glucose serves as positive controls while distilled water and albumin serves as negative controls.

Benedict's test is a test used to test for the presence of reducing sugars.

A brick-red precipitate using Benedict's test indicates the presence of reducing sugars.

Milk and glucose serves as positive controls for the test because the both contain reducing sugars.

A negative control in Benedict's test will be distilled water and albumin.

This is because neither distilled water nor albumin contains no reducing sugars.

Therefore, milk and glucose serves as positive controls while distilled water and albumin serves as negative controls.

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Answer:

Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Explanation:

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is one of the releasing hormones secreted by the hypothalamus to regulate the secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland.  

At the beginning of puberty, the hypothalamus begins to increase its production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). The gonadotropin-releasing hormone makes the anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins in both males and females. Two gonadotropic hormones are FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone). FSH promotes spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules, and LH promotes androgen production in the interstitial cells.

Answer: diastema

Explanation:

Diastema is condition in which a gap develops in between the two teeth. The spaces or gaps develop in the upper front teeth. The space or gap may appear between the biting teeth (canines or incisors) and in between the grinding teeth (molars or premolars). This occurs when there is unequal relationship develop between the size of jaw and teeth. The space can be too large that it can accommodate the parts of lower canine.

According to the above description, the condition can be considered as diastema.

Answer:

Nitrogen fixation is the modification of nitrogen present in the atmosphere into a combined form (e.g ammonia) via chemical and some biological action (microbes like soil rhizobia).

Human processes, e.g fertilizers production and fossil fuels consumption, have majorly affected to a high amount the level of fixed nitrogen in the Earth's ecosystems. It is believed that the level of nitrogen fixed by human process will be much more than that fixed via microbial processes involving diazotrophs such bacteria as Azotobacter and archaea as effected by enzyme nitrogenases.

The rate amounting from nitrogen fixation is believed to be 140 teragrams (Tg) of nitrogen per year (1 teragram is equivalent to 1 million metric tons). This amount is very small when viewed to the level at which human factors or means of contribution increases nitrogen amount to the environment.

Answer:

Meiosis is a reduction division of diploid cells.(2n) Chromosomes numbers are reduced with each successive division stages  of meiosis 1 and 2, to haploid(n).

Cats  have  38 diploid  somatic (body)chromosome (2n) in the somatic cells  and are reduced to 19  new   varied haploid cells (n) of chromosomes in the gametes.

In cats, as in other mammals, during spermatogenesis in (seminiferous tublule of testis) and oegensis(in the ovaries);meiotic  reduction division reduced the diploid  somatic chromosomes to haploid chromosomes  in  sex gametes.

Therefore 38 chromosomes will be in  the somatic chromosomes, while the sex gametes, with double-helical molecules of DNA, at the end of meiosis II will  have 19 chromosomes, half of the somatic chromosomes.

Explanation:

Final answer:

At the end of meiosis II in domestic cats, each daughter cell will have 19 chromosomes and 19 double-helical molecules of DNA.

Explanation:

Domestic cats have 38 chromosomes in their diploid cells. During meiosis, each diploid cell undergoes a process to produce gametes (sperm or egg cells in animals) that are haploid, meaning each cell will have half the number of chromosomes of the original cell. Prior to meiosis, the cell's DNA is replicated, so each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.

At the end of meiosis I, the cell divides into two daughter cells, each with 38 chromosomes, but these chromosomes still consist of sister chromatids. Therefore, there are technically 76 double-helical molecules of DNA at this point. It is not until meiosis II that these sister chromatids separate, leading to four haploid daughter cells, each with 19 chromosomes. Since the chromatids have separated, each chromosome consists of a single double-helical molecule of DNA. Hence, each gamete will contain 19 chromosomes and 19 double-helical molecules of DNA at the end of meiosis II.

Answer: a) it states that sugar is the chief ingredient in the juice.

Explanation: In food labels, ingredients are listed in descending order, that ingredient present in high quantity is listed first and this ingredient is the main ingredient.

Answer: Option A

It states that sugar is the chief ingredients.

Explanation:

Food labels on package of food shows different information about the ingredients used, the quantity and nutritional value.

In food label, ingredients are listed base on the most used, followed by the least used.

Sugar is listed first, it shows that it is used in greater amounts, followed by citric acid and orange flavour. Orange flavour is the least quantity used.

Answer:

IgA Or immunoglobulin A

Explanation:

Immunoglobulins are the class of proteins that provide protection to the humans against the invading pathogens called antigens and thus are also named the antibodies.

These antibodies are secreted by the plasma cells and are found in five forms in which each form has a specific role in providing immunity.

The IgA is the immunoglobulin which accounts for about 15% of all the antibodies as it is found in the tears, saliva, gastrointestinal and vaginal secretions. The IgA provides protection on mucous surfaces.

Thus, IgA is the correct answer.

Answer: It is called Immunoglobulin A or IgA.

Explanation:

Immunoglobulins are proteins or antibodies produced the lymphocytes (white blood cells) that play crucial role in immune body response. These proteins attach to invading foreign substance like bacteria and destroy them. IgA or Immunoglobulin A is a type of immunoglobulin found in secretions and play important role in immune functions of the mucosa membranes. This immunoglobulin is found in mucous secretions such as tears, saliva,sweat, colostrum, respiratory epithelium e.t.c. It is sibdivide d into two; IgA 1 and IgA 2. IgA immunoglobulin is 15% of all the antibody secreted in the body. The quantity of IgA secreted in the mucosal membranes is more than a the antibody secreted in the body.

Answer:

Meiosis is a reduction division.The formation of haploid chromosomes at  the end of meiosis, from formation of bivalent, at late pro phase 1,and eventual  easy alignments on  spindles for   separation at meta phase of the two stages   at the end of meiosis 1 and 2 allow for easy paring and  recombination to form new  haploid  cells at the end of  meiosis .

However, mitosis is a multiplication division(2n) the chromosome numbers are double during division;therefore it will evidently mechanically hard   for perfect alignments and pairing of the chromosomes   that will lead to  formation of  identical  daughter cells of   mitosis if homologous chromosomes  were paired.

The unparing of   chromosomes  during meta phase  ensures that only centromere  division is needed  for  distribution of  similar chromosomes compliments of the parents to the new daughter cells.

Explanation:

As during the division, the number of the chromosomes is reduced to haploids complements. This is achieved by the synapsis of chromosomes in subsequent separation.

Meiosis states a type of division of the cells where the germ-cell in the reproducing organism is used  for egg cells. It seems difficult to genetically identical the daughters to form the mitosis. if the homologous chromosomes are paired.

Having a chromosomes unpaired in metaphase of the mitosis, only the centromere division is needed for the daughter cells to then eventually get identical chromosomal complements.

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Answer16: False

Comments: The organic amendments (manure, bio-solid, wood ash, compost grass clipping etc.) improve the physical, chemical and biological properties of the soil. It also supplies the essential nutrients needed for plant growth. It can also support the beneficial bacterial growth in the soil but not enhance the growth of harmful microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) in the soil.

Organic amendments will improve soil aeration and drainage and promote robust populations of root damaging soil bacteria and fungi - False

The organic amendments manure, bio-solid, wood ash, compost grass clipping improve the physical, chemical, and biological properties of the soil.

It also supplies the essential nutrients needed for plant growth. It can also support beneficial bacterial growth in the soil but not enhance the growth of harmful microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) in the soil.

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Answer:

The statement is "false."

Explanation:

In normal condition, from the food about 10% of the nutrient is absorbed.The digested molecules from the food along with water and minerals are absorbed in the block of small intestine. Again the absorbed molecules with cross the mucosa ad enters into the bloodstream. After which is carried to different parts of the body for the storage of more chemicals. A condition in which a person fails to absorb the nutrients from the diet is called as the malabsorption.