Answer:
primary germ cells or primordial germ cells
Explanation:
During the early stages of embryonic development , primary germ cell or primordial germ cells develops within the pre-ectodermal tissue. they are diploid like other somatic cells and found in the primary ectoderm (epiblast) in the second week.
Primary germ cell moves through the gut of an embryo in order to develop gonads. Further they undergo meiosis process followed by cellular differentiation and five rise to mature gametes, either sperms (primary spermatocytes) or eggs (primary oocytes).
Hence, the correct answer is primary germ cells.
During early development, oogonia cells develop within the pre-ectodermal tissue and go through meiosis to form primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes. Oogenesis involves the completion of two meiotic divisions, resulting in the production of a secondary oocyte that is released during ovulation.
Explanation:In early development, a subset of diploid cells called oogonia begin to develop within the pre-ectodermal tissue. These cells eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge and later go through meiosis to give rise to primary oocytes in females or primary spermatocytes in males.
Oogenesis begins when an oogonium with the diploid number of chromosomes undergoes mitosis, producing a diploid daughter cell called a primary oocyte. The primary oocyte then goes through the first division of meiosis.
During oogenesis, the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division and forms a secondary oocyte and a polar body. The secondary oocyte is released during ovulation and, if fertilized, continues through the second meiotic division to produce a fertilized egg.
Learn more about Oogenesis here:https://brainly.com/question/1255767
#SPJ12
Jasmine is conducting an investigation and moves a magnet near a compass, causing the compass needle to move. However, the magnet never touched the compass. This observation is evidence for which characteristics of magnetic fields?
Answer:
This observation shows the ability of the magnetic fields to create lines that can align the position of the magnets.
Explanation:
Compasses have a small magnet on the pointer and this explains why the compass pointer aligns with a magnet, even if the magnet does not touch the compass.
That's because the magnet on the compass pointer creates a magnetic field around it. This magnetic field is capable of creating lines that have the ability to align the position of different magnets, even if they do not touch.
Answer:
They have a north pole and a south pole.
Explanation:
The excretory system filters and deals with waste
materials so that the body can maintain a stable internal
environment called
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment (regulating hormones, body temp. by sweating for example, and internal water balance, etc.).
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
describe how the host is damaged by the parasite
Answer:
A parasite is an organism that lives within or on a host. The host is another organism. The parasite uses the host's resources to fuel its life cycle. It uses the host's resources to maintain itself.
Explanation:
Which of the following are not eukaryotes? Fungi, plants, animals, bacteria
Answer:
D) bacteria
Explanation:
Cell structure is the main characteristic distinguishing bacterial cells from eukaryotic ones. Earth is home to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus that houses their genetic material, while prokaryotic cells do not possess a nucleus and have free-floating genetic material.
The main distinction between the two cell types is this: Many single-celled organisms, known as prokaryotes, call bacteria and archaea home. Prokaryotic cells are the oldest, smallest, and most fundamental components of all forms of life. From plants and animals to fungi and protists, every living thing in the eukaryotic domain has complex eukaryotic cells that are physically similar to every other eukaryotic species.
W X
Urine is carried from the kidneys
to the urinary bladder.
Urine is temporarily stored before
it is released.
Y Z
Waste products are filtered
through nephrons.
Urine is carried from the urinary
bladder and released outside the body.
The functions of different parts of the urinary system are given in the boxes.
A) W → Y → Z → X
B) W → X → Y → Z
C) Y → Z → W → X
D) Y → W → X → Z
The correct sequence of the functions in the urinary system is b) W → X → Y → Z. This involves urine being transported from the kidneys to the bladder, stored, and then excreted. The nephron filters waste products from the blood to form urine.
The student asked about the sequence of functions in the urinary system. The correct order is W → X → Y → Z: Urine is carried from the kidneys to the urinary bladder (W) → Urine is temporarily stored before it is released (X) → Waste products are filtered through nephrons (Y) → Urine is carried from the urinary bladder and released outside the body (Z).
This aligns with the functions of the urinary system where the nephron filters blood to form urine, which is then transported by the ureters to the urinary bladder for storage and finally excreted via the urethra.
g four pairs of species are given, with descriptions of how they interact. Match each system of differential equations with a species pair, and indicate which species is and which is . (a) represents the population. represents the population. (b) represents the population. represents the population. (c) represents the population. represents the population. (d) represents the population. represents the population.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Which of these is an effect of nonpoint-source pollution on agricultural land?
Answer:
Answer choices ?..
If y’all can help me on this I’ll be grateful
When using a pie cut, which of the following would be true of the blemish?
It would be only a crack.
It would be only in the bark of the tree.
It would be near the surface of one side.
It would have come from termite damage.
Answer:
it would be near the surface of one side
In the lab, metabolic poisons can be used to study ATP synthesis and oxygen consumption. Many of these poisons have – or have had – other uses, from diet aids to animal poisons to antibiotics.
Poison Action
oligomycin binds to F0 and blocks the proton channel
carbon monoxide inhibits cytochrome oxidase by reacting with heme a3
trifluorocarbonylcyanide-
phenylhydrazone (FCCP) increases membrane proton permeability
antimycin prevents electron flow between cytochrome b and
cytochrome c
bongkrekic acid binds to inward‑facing site of ATP‑ADP translocase
Classify the metabolic poisons as electron transport inhibitors, uncoupling agents, ATP synthase inhibitors, or transport inhibitors.
Answer:
Carbon monoxide and antimycin are classified as electron transport inhibitors, FCCP as uncoupling agent, oligomycin as ATP synthase inhibitors, and bongkrekic acid as transport inhibitor.
Explanation:
The electron transport inhibitors refers to the substances, which get combine with distinct constituents of the ETC and prevent the function of the carrier. These substances binds with the carrier and prevent its transformation, which eventually results in halting of the process. The most commonly known electron transport inhibitors are rotenone, carbon monoxide, antimycin, etc.
A molecule that prevents oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria and prokaryotes, or photo-phosphorylation in cyanobacteria and chloroplasts by inhibiting the production of ATP is known as ATP synthase inhibitors. The most commonly known ATP synthase inhibitor is oligomycin.
Similarly to oligomycin, FCCP or trifluorocarbonylcyanide phenylhydrazone is a potent uncoupler or uncoupling agent that prevents the synthesis of ATP by enhancing membrane proton permeability.
Bongkrekic acid refers to a highly toxic transport inhibitor that prevents the ADP/ATP translocase by combining with the inward facing site of ATP-ADP translocase.
Final answer:
Metabolic poisons can be classified based on their actions. Oligomycin and carbon monoxide are ATP synthase inhibitors and electron transport inhibitors respectively. Trifluorocarbonylcyanide-phenylhydrazone (FCCP) is an uncoupling agent. Antimycin is an electron transport inhibitor and bongkrekic acid is a transport inhibitor.
Explanation:
Metabolic poisons can be classified into different categories based on their actions:
Oligomycin: ATP synthase inhibitor, as it binds to F0 and blocks the proton channelCarbon monoxide: Electron transport inhibitor, as it inhibits cytochrome oxidase by reacting with heme a3Trifluorocarbonylcyanide-phenylhydrazone (FCCP): Uncoupling agent, as it increases membrane proton permeabilityAntimycin: Electron transport inhibitor, as it prevents electron flow between cytochrome b and cytochrome cBongkrekic acid: Transport inhibitor, as it binds to the inward-facing site of ATP-ADP translocase2. Is Ellie correct in thinking that TSH is a thyroid hormone? Why is her TSH level low instead of high?
Answer: Ellie is incorrect in thinking TSH is a thyroid hormone. TSH is a pituitary hormone. TSH is the hormone that tells the thyroid to either create more or less of T3 and T4. Ellie’s TSH islow because the hypothalamus is telling the pituitary gland to release lower levels of TSH because the thyroid is pumping out to high of levels of T3 and T4.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Ellie is incorrect because TSH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, not the thyroid. A low TSH level can lead to a reduced metabolic rate, causing symptoms like weight gain and fatigue. TSH levels are controlled by a negative feedback system involving thyroid hormones T3 and T4.
Explanation:
Ellie is mistaken in thinking that TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is a thyroid hormone. TSH is actually produced by the anterior pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) by the thyroid gland. The thyroid hormones are the ones that are produced by the thyroid gland, not TSH itself.
When there is a deficiency in TSH, it suggests that there is insufficient stimulation for the thyroid gland to produce the thyroid hormones necessary for maintaining a normal metabolic rate. A low metabolic rate can lead to symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue, which are commonly observed in hypothyroidism.
The levels of TSH are regulated through a negative feedback system.
If there's an overproduction of thyroid hormones (as seen in hyperthyroidism), the high levels of T3 and T4 will suppress the release of TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus and TSH from the anterior pituitary gland to reduce thyroid hormone production, hence maintaining homeostasis.
Guys please I need help. Please show your answers like this
1)
2)
3)
The best answer will get 100 points transferred to their account
Answer:
I think number 10 across is bush because bush meat is raw meat prepared from animals
9 across is headache or vomiting
7 across fruit bats
4 across fever
Fungi, like plants, respond to stimuli from the environment. Some of their responses to environmental stimuli are the same and some are different.
How do fungi respond to environmental stimuli? Choose ALL of the statements that apply.
Fungi, like plants, respond to light.
Both fungi and plants respond to touch.
Fungi, do not respond to light because they are not autotrophs.
Fungi hyphae grow toward water.
Both plants and fungi grow against gravity
Final answer:
Fungi respond to light, touch, water presence, and gravity, showcasing their adaptability to environmental conditions. Although they do not perform photosynthesis, their responses to environmental stimuli ensure survival and growth in diverse habitats.
Explanation:
How fungi respond to environmental stimuli is a fascinating aspect of their biology, showing both similarities and differences with plants. Here are the accurate statements about fungi's response to environmental stimuli:
Fungi, like plants, respond to light.Both fungi and plants respond to touch.Fungi hyphae grow toward water.Both plants and fungi grow against gravity.Contrary to a common misconception, fungi do respond to light, even though they are not autotrophs. This phototropic response does not stem from a need to photosynthesize but may influence the direction of growth or the development of fruiting bodies. Similarly, fungi exhibit hydrotropism, where their hyphae grow towards sources of water, and they can respond to touch and gravity, demonstrating a complex interaction with their environment. Unlike plants, fungi do not carry out photosynthesis because they lack chlorophyll; they obtain nutrients through heterotrophic means, absorbing organic compounds from their surroundings.
biology work pls help
Answer:
Tall people are normally underweight
Which of the following is an advantage of conservation?
A. Animals are overhunted.
B. Extinct organisms come back to life.
C. Limited resources are used wisely.
w
D. More resources are used.
Consider the following statements:
1. Mutations always have a negative effect on an individual.
2. Mutations can have a positive effect on the individual.
3. Mutations can have no effect on an individual.
4. Mutations can have a negative effect on an individual.
Which of the statements above is/are TRUE?
1 and 3 only
2.3 and 4 only
1,2,3 and 4
1 only
Answer:
2.3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Mutation is an alteration in the gene of an organism, which can cause some physiological and physical changes in the organism.
Mutation can have a favorable positive effect on an individual (e.g increasing microorganisms resistance to antibiotics) increasing its chances of adaptability and survivability, it can have a negative effect on the individual (e.g cancerous cells) which can reduce its survivability, and can have no effect at all on the individual (e.g having eyes with 2 different colors).
A group of scientists is studying a protist species.
The species is currently classified in the phylum Chrysophyta because of its physical characteristics. However, after the scientists analyze the species' DNA, they discover that the DNA is most similar to protists in the phylum Phaeophyta.
What will the scientists most likely do next?
Answer:
Do further testing on the species to discover whether or not the species is related.
Explanation:
Answer:
They will reclassify the species in the phylum Phaeophyta.
Explanation:
according to study island
Outline one cost and one benefit of living in a group.
Answer:
Cost: competition for mates, competition for resources
Benefit: better protection from predators (ex. a fish in a school of fish has greater chances of not getting eaten because of the large number of other fish)
Which Punnet square would have 50% of the offspring be heterozygous and 50% of the offspring be homozygous recessive?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
Punnet square C
Explanation:
It would be DD, DD, dD, and dD, amking it a 50% chance
Which conclusion is true based on the information in this passage?
Changing one organism in a food web would not have any effect on any other food web.
o
It is easy to see all the ways that food webs are connected.
Food chains are always separate from each other.
Food webs are connected to each other and sensitive to any changes,
Answer:
True
True
False
True
Explanation:
Answer:
Food webs are connected to each other and sensitive to any changes.
Explanation:
g Assume that for a given gene a mutation creates an allele that functions as a dominant negative. The gene codes for a protein that forms a tetramer (4) within the cell. If at least one of the subunits has the mutant structure the entire protein is inactivated. For a heterozygous individual, what percent of the tretramers present in the cell will be inactive?
Answer:
At least 50% of the tetramers will be inactive for this individual
Explanation:
A protein resulting from a mutation that is dominant negative will have an detrimental impact on the wild-type protein as well. Especially if the mutated protein can interact with the same substances as the normal, wild-type protein.
For an individual who is heterozygous, there will be one wild-type copy and one mutant copy of the allele present. For each copy, a protein will be expressed and the tetramers from the mutant copy will be defective - so 50% of the protein tetramers will be inactive at least.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
which oraginsm can be classified in domain Bacteria
A. a predatory organism that depends on hunting plant eaters for food
B. a multicellular organism that reproduces via spores and gets its food from a dead log
C. a photosynthetic organism that undergoes sexual reproduction and produces seeds in cones
D. a unicellular organism that has a simple structure and is commonly found in human intestines
Final answer:
The correct classification for an organism in the domain Bacteria is a unicellular, prokaryotic organism commonly found in human intestines.
Explanation:
The organism that can be classified in the domain Bacteria is D. a unicellular organism that has a simple structure and is commonly found in human intestines. Such organisms are prokaryotic, meaning they lack a defined cell nucleus, and domain Bacteria encompasses these types of unicellular life forms. Members of this domain are quite diverse and can be found in nearly every habitat, which includes being beneficial or benign residents within the human body. To further illustrate, d. bacteria living in the gut of humans fall under this domain because they are unicellular, prokaryotic, and can have positive interactions with their hosts.
Explain how yeast makes dough rise
Answer:
The yeast metabolizes these simple sugars and exudes a liquid that releases carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol into existing air bubbles in the dough. As the sugars are metabolized, carbon dioxide and alcohol are released into the bread dough, making it rise.
i'm a baker :) i hope this helps
Explanation:
Yeast helps dough rise through alcoholic fermentation, wherein it metabolizes carbohydrates to produce carbon dioxide.
Yeast is a crucial ingredient in bread making that helps dough to rise. Specifically, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, a type of yeast, metabolizes the carbohydrates in flour.
This metabolic process, known as alcoholic fermentation, yields two products: ethanol and carbon dioxide (CO₂). The carbon dioxide gas gets trapped in the dough, forming bubbles that expand during the rising process.
As a result, the dough rises and exhibits a spongy structure due to these gas bubbles.
Chapter 23 Cancer GeneticsCOMPREHENSION QUESTIONS True/False1. Most cancers arise from defects in DNA. 2. The presence of a single mutated gene is sufficient for retinoblastoma cancer to develop. 3. miRNAs play a critical role in initiating tumor development. 4. A single gene mutation may predispose a person to developing cancer. 5. Overactive telomerase enzyme deletes the ends of chromosomes and can cause cancer. 6. Relatively few people inherit all of the genetic changes that cause cancer. 7. Proto-oncogenes do not cause cancer. 8. Most tumors arise from germ-line mutations that accumulate during our life span. 9. Xeroderma pigmentosum includes predisposition to cancer due to defects in a specific DNA repair system.
Answer:
Explanation:
1. Most cancers arise from defects in DNA. True defects in the DNA including mutations can lead to cancer.
2. The presence of a single mutated gene is sufficient for retinoblastoma cancer to develop. False: the presence one mutant copy of the gene of RB1 is not sufficient enough to cause cancer
3. miRNAs play a critical role in initiating tumor development. True: MiRNAs may function as either oncogenes or tumor suppressors under certain conditions. They have been shown as biomarkers for human cancer diagnosis.
4. A single gene mutation may predispose a person to developing cancer. False: many mutations in the cells coupled with other risk factors may predispose a person to developing cancer
5. Overactive telomerase enzyme deletes the ends of chromosomes and can cause cancer. False: Instead the enzyme just keeps adding more and more repeats to the telomereres and the cancer cell can keep dividing without losing DNA and genes at the ends of the chromosomes
6. Relatively few people inherit all of the genetic changes that cause cancer: True: there are some genetic changes that are not inherited but acquired.
7. Proto-oncogenes do not cause cancer. True: they do not cause cancer but a mutation in them might lead to the activation of oncogenes that causes cancer.
8. Most tumors arise from germ-line mutations that accumulate during our life span. False: most common cancers are as a result of somatic or acquired mutation that have accumulated during our life span. Germline mutations are hereditary
9. Xeroderma pigmentosum includes predisposition to cancer due to defects in a specific DNA repair system.
True: a defect in the DNA repair system paritcularly in enzymes invloved in this repair
Many long‑distance swimmers carb‑load before an endurance event like a 5 km swim. Carbohydrate loading involves eating carbohydrate‑rich meals several days to one week before the event. In fact, many groups sponsor dinners the night before a race and serve high‑carbohydrate foods like pasta. However, studies are mixed about the usefulness of this practice. Regardless of its efficacy, what is the reasoning behind carbohydrate loading? Decreasing the amount of fat and protein in the diet helps with weight loss, which can improve endurance and speed. Excess glucose enables the body to produce more ATP, which is stored in the body and can be used during the event. Glucose is stored as glycogen, which can be broken down to supply energy during the event. Excess glucose is stored as muscle glycogen, reducing the amount of lactate generated in muscle during the event. Excess carbohydrates are stored as triacylglycerols, which can be oxidized during anaerobic metabolism.
Answer:
The correct answer is that the storage of glucose is done in the form of glycogen that can be further dissociated to provide energy at the time an event or competition or any kind of physical work out.
Explanation:
The athletes or swimmers generally enrich their bodies by consuming enough foods rich in carbohydrates. The prime reason for getting loaded with carbs is that the carbs present in the form of glucose get accumulated in the body in the form of glycogen that can be further dissociated to provide energy to the body of the athlete at the time of performing any kind of physical work.
The accumulated glycogen in the muscles works to provide energy for prolonged duration and thus helps in bettering stamina. Glycogen, which is a polysaccharide comprises energy that possesses the tendency to move towards the parts of the body that requires a quick burst of energy at the time of doing physical work like swimming.
Which of the following is the definition for specifiction
Answer:
an act of describing or identifying something precisely or of stating a precise requirement.
Explanation:
if you see something close to that then your good
good day and be safe
∵∴∵∴∵∴∵∴∵
⊕ΘΞΠΤ⊕
∵∴∵∴∵∴∵∴∵
Answer:
kinda like describing or identifying something
Explanation:
An example of a type of bacteria which is an autotroph is ________
Answer:
Algae
Explanation:
: Hair color is a human trait controlled by 7 genes with a Heritability of 1. Based on this, provide a 1-2 sentence explanation of the correct classification for what type of trait hair color is and how the information provided supports that classification (single-gene trait, polygenic trait, multifactorial polygenic trait, environmentally controlled trait).
Answer:
Polygenic trait
Explanation:
A polygenic trait is a type of trait whose phenotype observed is affected by more than one genes i.e expression of the trait is controlled by not only a single gene but many. These traits include height or skin color and they display that display a continuous distribution; the hair color is controlled by 7 genes as described which is more than more.
Final answer:
Hair color is a polygenic trait influenced by multiple genes, reflected in the heritability score of 1, which implies genetic factors account for the observed variation in hair color among individuals.
Explanation:
Human hair color is classified as a polygenic trait because it is influenced by multiple genes. The heritability of 1 indicates that genetic factors entirely determine the variation observed in hair color among individuals within a population. This classification is supported by the fact that hair color results from the interaction of several genes, each contributing to the production and distribution of melanin, the pigment responsible for hair color. Examples include genes like MC1R, which affects the type of melanin produced, contributing to the range of hair colors from black, brown, blond, to red. Other genes such as TYR and TYRP1 also play significant roles in melanin production and, consequently, in determining hair color.
A box of jello has a mass of 250 g. How many boxes must be bought to have 1 Kg of jello? *
2
3
4
6
Answer:
4
Explanation:
According to the question, one box of jello has a mass of 250grams.
The question wants us to find how many boxes of jello would collectively weigh 1kg.
Since the units of weight here are in grams (g) and kilograms (kg), we need to convert to the same unit
1kilogram (kg) is equal to 100 grams (g).
Hence, if 1 box of jello weighs 250g
1000g of jello box will be 1000/250 in number
1000 ÷ 250 = 4.
Hence, 4 boxes of jello will weigh 1000g or 1kg.
Direct evidence can include all of the following except:
A toxicology report
A signed ransom note
A surveillance film
A sample of hair w/o the follicle
A sample of hair without the follicle
Direct evidence can include all of the following except a sample of hair without the follicle. Thus, the correct option for this question is D.
What is Direct evidence?Direct evidence may be defined as a type of evidence that significantly deals with the testimony that attests to the truth and reality of the fact to be proved. In a more simple sense, it may be characterized as evidence that proves a fact directly without any inference or presumption.
If a sample of hair does not have a hair follicle, it does not deliver an example of direct evidence. This is because a hair follicle reveals the exact fact and understanding behind the individual.
And the rest of the options like a toxicology report, a signed ransom note, and a surveillance film all illustrate the examples of direct evidence. If the evidence is significantly real and true, then the fact is conclusively established.
Therefore, a sample of hair without the follicle is a declaration that does not include direct evidence.
To learn more about Direct evidence, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/3231493
#SPJ6