Answer: B). Role confusion
Explanation:
According to Eric Erik's on eight (8) stages of Psychosocial Development, in adolescence (between ages 12-18) a child faces the task of identity vs role confusion. That is, finding one's self. The main task in this stage is developing a sense of self.
According the Eric, Adolescents successful at this stage are said to have a strong sense of identity whilst Adolescents who develop a weak sense of self and are unsure about their identity are said to experience "Role confusion".
A client admitted to the cardiac care unit after a myocardial infarction develops shortness of breath, tachycardia, and a cough with frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which breath sound will the nurse expect when assessing this client?
Answer:
Course rales.
Explanation:
Myocardial infarction may be defined as the medical condition in which the heart do not receive blood supply in the particular part. This might effect the heart muscle and the death of an individual.
Course rales are the brief, popping sound that are mainly experienced in the case of myocardial infarction. The client might develop the sputum that reflects the breath sounds by the accumulation of the fluid in the lungs. This might cause the heart failure as well.
Thus, the correct answer is course rales.
The expected breath sound the nurse will hear when assessing the client with symptoms of pulmonary edema is crackles (rales), which occur due to fluid in the lung's alveoli.
When the nurse assesses this client, the expected breath sound is crackles, also known as rales. These crackling sounds occur when air moves through the fluid-filled alveoli during breathing. The combination of shortness of breath, tachycardia, cough with frothy pink-tinged sputum, and the presence of crackles strongly suggests that this client has developed pulmonary edema following their myocardial infarction.
In similar scenarios such as pneumonia or bronchitis, crackles may also be heard due to the presence of mucus in the airways. The nurse should document the findings, including the character of the breath sounds and other observations, and report them promptly to the healthcare provider for further management. In severe cases of respiratory distress, interventions like BiPAP therapy, antibiotics, or other medications may be necessary based on the underlying cause.
A frantic neighbor is knocking at your door. She says that she cannot wake her sleeping roommate. She remembers that her roommate took some pills about 2 hours ago, but she is not sure what they were or where her roommate keeps them. You enter and see a person lying face-up on the couch but not moving. You want to help. How do you respond?
Answer:
-Check for airway passage blockage if none
-Size the scene right up.
-Shout-tap-shout. The response and respiration check should be at least 5 seconds but not more than 10 seconds.
-If no injuries are found during head-to-toe checks while waiting for EMS to arrive, put the person in a recovery position on his side.
The emergency protocols are necessary and can be life-saving for the victim. The steps of the protocols should be followed sequentially.
The responder should follow the steps until the EMS arrives as:
The responder should check for any airway blockage and breathing pattern and pulse of the victim.Size up the scene, which means that the responder should ensure all the resources are available, the victim is in the safe zone, and update the EMS about the whole situation.Follow the shout-tap-shout protocol, in which the respiration and response of the victim should be checked for at least 5 seconds. If no visible injuries or clots are observed on the body, the responder should put the victim on the side in the recovery position until the EMS arrives.
Thus, the responder should follow the emergency protocol and call 911 to save the victim.
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Personal hygiene is an important part of being a responsible person. True or False
Answer:True
Explanation:
Why is it impossible to taste substances with a dry tongue
Answer:
BECAUSE TASTANTS DISSOLVE IN SALIVA, ENTERS THE TASTE PORES, THIS CAUSES MECHANISMS TO MAKE THE TASTE CELLS TO DEPOLARIZE, THIS HELPS START THE WAY WE PROCESS TASTE. WITHOUT SALIVA THE BEGINNING STEPS OF TASTE WILL NOT BE ACTIVATED.
Explanation:
You are testing a hypothesis that salamanders disappeared from a flower bed because an invasive ant species drove them away. To test this hypothesis you make 40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. After a month you count the number of salamanders in each flower bed.
Answer:
Salamanders are being driven away from the flower beds by the invasive ants specie because the two organism have hostile relationship to each other and can not coexist.
To test the hypothesis in the question, check the explanation column below
Explanation:
40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. Leave these for three weeks
Results:
At the end of the third week, it will be observed that the flower beds that contain the invasive ants species will no longer contain the salamanders, WHILE the 20 remaining flower beds where the ants were not placed will still contain the salamanders.
Conclusion from this hypothesis is that invasive ants specie and salamanders can not coexist
While caring for a child who will be undergoing a lumbar puncture, the nurse explains the procedure to the infant’s mother. Which statement by the mother would indicate a need for further education?
Answer:
"I will cradle her in my arms after the procedure for at least 30 minutes."
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most common statement that would indicate a need for further education would be "I will cradle her in my arms after the procedure for at least 30 minutes." This is because after a lumbar puncture the child will need to be on bed-rest (usually in a sideways position) for up to 4 hours during the recovery period.
The mother needing further education likely misunderstands the safety, purpose, and diagnostic process of lumbar puncture. Education should encompass the reasons for choosing the lumbar region and the significance of lab tests beyond CSF's appearance.
Explanation:The lumbar puncture is a medical procedure performed to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons. It is safely conducted in the lower lumbar region of the vertebral column, between the lumbar vertebrae L1 and L5, where there is a reduced risk of damaging the spinal cord. The CSF obtained should be clear, and if it is cloudy, it could indicate an infection, which would require further testing to identify any microorganisms.
A statement by the mother which may indicate the need for further education could be one that misunderstands the purpose of the procedure, its relative safety, or the potential implications of the CSF findings. For example, a mother who believes that the procedure could be easily performed at a higher level of the spine without risk, or who expects immediate diagnostic results from the appearance of the CSF alone, would need additional information.
Continued educational support for the mother could include explaining why the lumbar region is chosen over other spine areas due to the absence of the spinal cord in the lower lumbar levels, as well as emphasizing the importance of lab tests for an accurate diagnosis beyond visual examination of the CSF.
Long after she had successfully extinguished a dog's classically conditioned response of salivating at the sound of a bell, Dr. Sheckenov noticed that the dog again salivated when it heard the bell. This example illustrates the phenomenon of _______.
a. instinctive drift.b. stimulus generalization.c. spontaneous recovery.d. latent learning.
Answer:
c. spontaneous recovery
Explanation:
Dogs tend to associate stimuli and develop a response. Spontaneous recovery is related to learning and memory, and in technical terms, it is the reappearance of a conditioned response after a delay. It is associated with classical conditioning, by combining two stimuli and producing a response.
The phenomenon where an extinguished conditioned response reappears after a rest period is called spontaneous recovery. Option C is correct.
The phenomenon illustrated when Dr. Sheckenov noticed that the dog again salivated at the sound of the bell long after the conditioned response had been extinguished is known as spontaneous recovery.
After a rest period without the conditioned stimulus, an extinguished conditioned response can spontaneously return. In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus repeatedly, leading to a decrease in the conditioned response. However, with spontaneous recovery, the conditioned response can reappear after some time even without retraining.
Hence, C. is the correct option.
Which drug is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a dietary adjunct to reduce triglyceride levels greater than 500 mg/dL?
Explanation:
Drug, approved by the Food and Drug Administration as dietary adjunct is
A Medicare supplement contract cannot define a "pre-existing condition" more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment recommended within how many months of the effective date of coverage?
Answer:
Within six months of effective date of coverage.
Explanation:
the Medicare supplement Insurance minimum standards- regulation 33 states that the issuer may not apply pre-existing condition limitations for those diseases that are prevalent for more than six months and are covered by the exchanged health policy. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) allows insurers to refuse coverage for 12 months within six months of the pre-existing condition and does not need to add benefits in the given previous plan.
A client diagnosed with cancer has met with the oncologist and is now weighing whether to undergo chemotherapy or radiation for treatment. This client is demonstrating which ethical principle in making this decision?
a) Autonomy.
b) Justice.
c) Beneficence.
d) Confidentiality.
Answer: Autonomy
Explanation:
Autonomy is the capacity to make uncoerced decisions. That is, making an independent decision out of one's free will rather than being forced.
Personal autonomy as being demonstrated by this client is the capacity for one to decide and pursue a course of action in one's life by oneself.
The nurse has just attended a seminar on concepts of cultural diversity. Which statement made by the nurse would require further education?
Answer:
Culture cannot be influenced, and you are born with your culture.
Explanation:
Each religion and country has its own culture. The culture determines the social customs, religions, laws and ethics about the particular state. The culture makes the country unique with the other country.
The lots of variation and diversity has been found in the culture of the different state or country. The individual has their own culture that can influence them and makes them familiar with their unique identities. The individual born with their special culture.
The process by which people learn from one another, adopting some part of the other’s way of life, is referred to as
a) discovery.
b) reformulation.
c) cultural diffusion.
d) technological innovation.
Answer:
I think the answer is C. Cultural Diffusion
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The _________ helps us walk a straight line without stumbling or leaning forward; it continually communicates with the muscles to coordinate placement, movement, and balance.
Answer:
What is the brain.
Explanation:
ill take body parts for 600.
Also could i have brainliest ill help on any question you need :)
There is some evidence that relaxation techniques may be an effective part of an overall treatment plan for some stress related disorders, including all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Hi, you provided an incomplete question, but no to worry I will provide you with some basic information about this in order for you to be able to tackle questions on this.
Explanation:
Ok, let us start by defining Relaxation techniques. Well, relaxation techniques are the methods or therapy used to reduce stress and increase the blood flow to the muscles.
There are many importance of Practicing relaxation techniques. Few of the importance are giving below;
(1). Relaxation techniques helps reduce blood pressure.
(2). Relaxation techniques reduce fatigue and stress.
(3).Relaxation techniques increases digestion.
Some types of Relaxation techniques include the following;
(1). Visualization, (2). Massage, (3). Yoga, (4) Autogenic training, (5). Music and art therapy, (5). Hydrotherapy, (6). Deep breathing and so on.
There has been evidences that relaxation techniques may be an effective part of an overall treatment plan for some stress related disorders. Few of these evidence are; in chemotherapy-induced nausea, management of chronic headaches in children and so on.
The mother of a 10-year-old child diagnosed with rubella asks what can be done to help her child feel better during her illness. What information can be provided?
Answer:
The correct answer is - Encourage rest and relaxation
Explanation:
Rubella is an infection that is not severe or infects others normally, There is no external care needed other than the supportive care. Medications are also limited to generic analgesics and antipyretics.
Rubella patients are advised to rest and relax. Motion and movements are not limited so the range of the motion is not needed to include in the advised. Antiviral and antibacterial medication or therapy can be included too.
Thus, the correct answer is - Encourage rest and relaxation.
Josiah has formed a theory that consumption of sugar makes it difficult for people to fall asleep within one hour. He has designed a study where his hypothesis is that the more sugar people eat, the longer it will take before they can go to sleep. What should Josiah do next?
a. Formulate a Research Question
b. Use Descriptive Statistics
c. Analyze the date that he has collected
d. Test his hypothesis
Answer:
Test his hypothesis.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis gives the detailed information about the particular phenomena. The hypothesis is generally made on the observation of the scientists.
The scientific hypothesis needs to be explained by the scientific tests if need to become a scientific hypothesis. If the Josiah has a doubt in her theory, she must test her hypothesis again and again so that the new correct theory can be made.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Why is cholesterol not considered an essential nutrient? What organ manufactures cholesterol? What foods contain cholesterol? What other compounds in the body are made with cholesterol as the starting material?
Answer:
1. Cholesterol is not considered an essential nutrient because the liver is able to produce it.
2. The liver manufactures cholesterol
3. Foods that come from animals contain cholesterol
4. Cholesterol is a precursor molecule for all steroid hormones and vitamin D.
Explanation:
Cholesterol is a molecule biodynthesized by all animal cells and it is metabolized and produced in the liver of humans. It has a wide range of functions, including being part of all animal cell membranes, takes part in intercellular transport, in signaling, it is a precursor molecule in vitamins D and many hormones and it is part of our metabolism. Cholesterol is found in all animal products and in some plant foods such as avocado, flax seeds and peanuts.
To ensure optimal ____ health, we must feed our bodies nutritiously, exercise them regularly, avoid harmful behaviors and substances, watch for early signs of sickness, and protect ourselves from accidents.
Answer:
Physical.
Explanation:
The individual should keep the body and mind fit to stay away from the disease and the stress condition. The proper health of the individual increase the age as well as the social status of an individual.
The optimal physical health includes the state of the wellness of an individual. The optimal health can be developed by the proper yoga and exercise. The balanced diet with the roper nutritious and no inhalation of harmful chemical substance helps in the development of the optimal physical health.
Thus, the answer is physical.
A client in labor has been given an epidural anesthetic. Which nursing assessment finding is most important immediately following the administration of epidural anesthesia?
Answer:
c) Maternal pulse increases from 78 to 96 beats/minute.
The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that:______.(1) reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells(2) increases the rate at which carbon dioxide is carried to the muscle cells(3) results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells(4) slows the destruction of enzymes involved in respiration of muscle cells
Answer:
(3) results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells
Explanation:
When exercising, Oxygen is introduced to the muscle cells via the Red Blood Cells. Hemoglobin which is carried by the Red Blood Cells binds with these oxygen to to supply the muscle cells with oxyenated blood. Thus, as blood flows into the muscle cell during exercise, there is increase in the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells.
On the otherhand, Carbondioxide is not carried to the muscles cells but it is diffused out of the bloodstream as bicarbonate ion (HCO⁻₃).
The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that: results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells. Thi s is becuase, Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a compound with high potential energy. The synthesize ATP molecules in the muscle cells is gotten from complex molecules such as carbohydrate, proteins and fats. So during exercise, there are more production of more ATP in the muscle cells to assist in the degradation of carbohydrate, proteins and fats that give rise to pyruvate, amino acids and fatty acids respectively.
The change in heart rate during exercise reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells.
Explanation:The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells. This is because exercise increases the demand for oxygen in the muscles, and the heart rate increases to deliver more oxygen-rich blood to the muscles. This adaptation allows the muscles to receive the oxygen they need to produce ATP and continue functioning during exercise.
During exercise, the demand for oxygen in muscle cells increases, and the cardiovascular system responds to meet this demand. As you engage in physical activity, your heart rate increases to pump more blood, and consequently more oxygen, to the muscles.
The increase in heart rate is part of the body's response to deliver oxygen and nutrients to working muscles efficiently. This process enhances the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, ensuring that the muscles receive an adequate supply to support the increased metabolic demands during exercise.
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You are providing first aid to a person who appears to have suffered a stroke and is paralyzed on the right side. Based on his anatomy, the stroke likely occurred in the left side of his brain?
1. True
2.False
A chef sees unused ingredients in the refrigerator so wants to design adapt a recipe to a recipe he can make with the ingredients he has. What steps will he take to determine the number of portions he can make if he cannot make a full recipe?
Final answer:
To determine the number of portions a chef can make with unused ingredients, they need to identify the required amounts, compare them to the available amounts, and calculate the limiting ingredient.
Explanation:
When a chef wants to adapt a recipe based on the ingredients they have, they need to determine the number of portions they can make. Here are the steps they can take:
Identify the total amount of each ingredient required for the recipe.
Weigh or measure the corresponding ingredients they have in their refrigerator.
Calculate the ratio between the required amount and the available amount for each ingredient.
Find the lowest ratio amongst all the ingredients. This will be the limiting ingredient.
Divide the available amount of the limiting ingredient by its ratio to determine the number of portions they can make.
By following these steps, the chef will be able to determine the number of portions they can make when they don't have enough ingredients to make a full recipe.
A healthcare professional creating new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience, education, and input from others is:
A. Using feedback
B. Processing knowledge
C. Disseminating knowledge
D. Acquiring knowledge
E. Generating knowledge
The correct answer would be option E, Generating Knowledge.
A healthcare professional creating new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience, education and input from others is Generating Knowledge.
Explanation:
When someone acquires knowledge about something and use it for the purpose of information, this process is called as Generating Knowledge.
When a healthcare professional gathers or acquires knowledge which is based upon the experience, education and any sort of input form others, he is actually generating knowledge. He may either change the knowledge or evolve new knowledge based on the acquired information. This process is called Generating Knowledge.
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Compared with Type B personalities, Type A people are more likely to experience:_____. A. coronary heart disease. B. low blood pressure. C. increased release of lymphocytes. D. low blood sugar levels.
Answer:
The correct option is A: Coronary heart disease
Explanation:
Cardiologists Friedman and Rosenman discovered what is considered Type A behavior. In one of the research conducted by these Cardiologists, they showed that people who had the Type A personality have a higher risk of developing high blood pressure and heart disease than people with Type B personality. Although it was original coined Type A personality by these aforementioned Cardiologists, the term has now been conceptualized to be called Type A Behavior Pattern.
Although the pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland of the body, the hypothalamus exerts control over the pituitary gland. How does the hypothalamus control both the anterior and posterior pituitary functioning?
Answer:
The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.
Explanation:
The pituitary gland has two parts—the anterior lobe and posterior lobe—that have two very separate functions. The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.
The hypothalamus secrete releasing hormone that regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary gland.
What is hypothalamus?It is located at the base of brain.It secrets hormones that regulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland, temperature and homeostasis.What is releasing hormones?"Releasing hormones are peptide hormones, which are produced within the hypothalamus."These stimulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland to release their hormone.What is anterior pituitary gland?This is the front lobe of pituitary gland.It produces 6 hormones: (1) prolactin, (2) growth hormone, (3) adrenocorticotropic hormone, (4) luteinizing hormone, (5) follicle-stimulating hormone, and (6) thyroid-stimulating hormone.What is posterior pituitary gland?It produces two hormones: vasopressin and oxytocin.This hormones are produced when a message is send by hypothalamus.Hence, the hypothalamus secretes hormone which stimulates the pituitary gland.
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What is the problem with doing little or no flexibility exercises with lots of muscle strengthening exercises
Answer:
Doing little or no flexibility exercise with lots of muscle strengthening exercises may lead to a condition called "muscle-bound."
Explanation:
Flexibility exercise is very crucial especially when you are doing endurance or strength exercises. This will enhance your body's range of motion because the body will be more flexible. This means that you have more freedom when it comes to your movements. Examples of this are yoga and pilates.
If you are doing a lot of muscle strengthening exercises without or with little flexibility exercise, then this may result to a "muscle-bound" condition. This means that your muscles are overly developed, thus it becomes harder for you to move normally. This lessens your range of motion.
The more you do the strength training, the more the muscles in your body elongate, resulting to a more tightly pulled connective tissue. This will then restrict your body's flexibility or range of motion.
Determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian and drag the breakfast to its appropriate classification.
Answer:
VEGAN: oatmeal made with soy milk and blueberries
LACTOVEGETARIAN: whole wheat toast with melted cheese and a glass orange juice
LACTOOVOVEGETARIAN: omelet made with two eggs, shredded cheese, and peppers.
Explanation:
Vegan is the person who follows a dietary regimen that is characterized by completely excluding all foods of animal origin, including products that involve an animal process, such as honey or eggs from the daily food list.
The lacto-vegetarian diet is another alternative to the vegan (or vegetarian) diet. This variant allows you to add milk and dairy products to the daily menu.
Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diet: The least strict vegetarian diet
The ovo-lacto-vegetarian diet is the alternative with less restrictions if you are looking to become a vegetarian. The milk and eggs included in this diet provide you with the necessary proteins that your body needs.
Final answer:
To classify a breakfast as either vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we examine the inclusion of dairy products and eggs. Vegans eat strictly plant-based, lactovegetarians consume dairy but not eggs, and lactoovovegetarians include both dairy products and eggs in their diet.
Explanation:
To determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we must look at the ingredients included in the meal. A vegan diet excludes all animal products including dairy and eggs. A lactovegetarian diet includes dairy products but no eggs. Lastly, a lactoovovegetarian diet includes both dairy products and eggs.
If the breakfast contains dairy products such as cheese or milk but no eggs, it is appropriate for lactovegetarian and lactoovovegetarian diets. If the breakfast includes eggs, with or without dairy products, it is suitable for lactoovovegetarians. Finally, if the breakfast contains neither dairy nor eggs and solely plant-based ingredients, it is suitable for vegans.
When analyzing a vegetarian or vegan diet for health, it's important to consider the inclusion of foods fortified with nutrients of concern such as vitamins B12, D, calcium, omega-3 fatty acids, and choline to maintain nutrient adequacy.
A nurse in the surgical admitting unit is preparing a client for elective coronary artery bypass surgery. Which statement by the client should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider (HCP)?
The options are:
"I haven't had anything to eat or drink since 8 PM yesterday."
"I took my prasugrel this morning with just a tiny sip of water."
"I'm really nervous about this surgery."
"It always takes several attempts to start my IV."
Answer:
"I took my prasurgel this morning with just a tiny sip of water."
Explanation:
Prasugrel is an antiplatelet medication that should be discontinued by the patient at least 5 to 7 days before the operation. This could cause bleeding, particularly "intraoperative or postoperative bleeding." Other symptoms include headache, nausea and upset stomach. This can also cause "serious bleeding." So, if the patient took prarugrel in the morning, it is best to inform the health care provider. In such situation, the operation will most likely be postponed.
Thus, this explains the answer.
A policyowner has a health insurance policy with his wife listed as the primary beneficiary. He would like to change the primary beneficiary to his sister. Which of the following is true?
Answer:
Unless the policy designated the current beneficiary as irrevocable, the policy owner can make the change at any time.
Explanation:
A primary beneficiary is simply the person you have selected in your health insurance policy to be the one to be called upon to receive any benefits. In the case of a health insurance policy, changing primary beneficiary can be done at any time the owner deems necessary. The only circumstance in which the primary beneficiary is irrevocable is only if it is stated in the policy.
Compared to high school seniors, college students report a roughly equivalent annual prevalence rate in the use of illicit drugs in general, which is about ____________.
Complete Question:
Compared to high school seniors, college students report a roughly equivalent annual prevalence
rate in the use of illicit drugs in general, which is about ____________.
A. 26 percent
B. 36 percent
C. 46 percent
D. 48 percent
Answer: 36%
Explanation: Research had shown that illegal drugs consumption has been a great problem in American communities for more than three (3) decades.
Research shows high consumption of illegal drugs among the youth age bracket.
College students account for 36% illegal drugs consumption when compared to high school. Many factors initiates this harmful action. Ranging from peer group, economic and social status etc.