Answer:
Meta genomic sampling is the direct genetic analysis of genomes contained with an environmental sample.
Explanation:
The statements that correctly describe the genomic sampling of the biosphere are;
As by carrying out meta genomic sampling we can be provided with the data of functional gene composition of microbial communities.Sufficient amounts of high-quality nucleic acids must be obtained for subsequent library production and sequencing.The DNA extracted should be representative of all cells present in the sample.Two strategies can be employed for meta genomics samples: reference-based assembly (co-assembly) and de novo assembly.De novo assembly typically requires larger computational resources.The "clonal" assumptions built into many assemblers might lead to suppression of contig formation for certain heterogeneous taxa at specific parameter settings.Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
Complete Question :
Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
1 Monitoring urinary output
2 Assessing nutritional status
3 Monitoring respiratory status
4 Assessing communication needs
Answer: the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis is Monitoring respiratory status.
Explanation.Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body's immune system attacks the nerves. needsThe most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure caused by respiratory muscle paralysis.
For the following characteristic, indicate M for monocot and E for eudicot. Vascular bundles neatly and uniformly arranged around the stem
Answer:
M: Eudicot
Explanation:
In the dicot stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with pith concentrated at the core of the stem, rather than being scattered throughout the plant interior. In each vascular bundle, the xylem and phloem are separated by a substance called vascular cambium
The main difference between stems of both the plants is due to the arrangement of the vascular bundle. In monocots stem, the vascular bundles are scattered across the stem without any definite arrangement. On the other hand, in dicots stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in the form of one or two broken rings, following that they have a definite shape.
The correct label for vascular bundles neatly arranged around the stem is E for eudicot. In eudicots, vascular tissue forms a ring in the stem, unlike in monocots where it is scattered.
Explanation:For the characteristic of vascular bundles being neatly and uniformly arranged around the stem, the correct labeling is E for eudicot. In eudicots, also known as true dicots, the vascular tissue, which includes both xylem and phloem, forms a ring in the stem.
This is in contrast to monocots, where vascular tissue is scattered in the stem without a uniform arrangement. An example of this arrangement is the clover stem, a eudicot, that shows vascular bundles organized in a ring with a large central pith.
If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is a. sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain b. a small portion of light always enters the other eye c. information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes d. this in fact does not occur and information from both eyes is always separated
Answer: the best option is A (sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain)
Explanation:
At the optic chiasm, nerve fibers from half of each retina cross over to the opposite side of the brain. The fibers from the other half of the retina travel to the same side of the brain. Because of this junction, each half of the brain receives visual signals from the visual fields of both eyes. this allows the effect of consensual response in which there is change in pupil size in the eye opposite to the eye to which the light is directed. I hope this helps thanks.
Final answer:
Correct option is a. Both pupils constrict in response to light due to the bilateral nature of the pupillary light reflex, where information from both retinas converges at the optic chiasm and is processed by both brain hemispheres, causing a consensual reaction.
Explanation:
When light is shined into one eye, both pupils constrict due to the pupillary light reflex, which involves both an afferent and efferent pathway. Sensory input from the retina of each eye converges at the optic chiasm, whereby information from the right visual field goes to the left hemisphere of the brain, and information from the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere. This crossing over or decussation allows for information from both fields of view to be processed in both hemispheres of the brain. Therefore, the correct option explaining why shining light in one eye results in the constriction of both pupils is: sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain. This bilateral projection of information allows the brain to coordinate a consensual pupillary response, meaning that shining light in one eye also triggers the constriction of the other pupil, thus preserving the alignment and proper function of both eyes.
If the light reflex testing reveals an asymmetrical response, it may signify damage to the optic or oculomotor nerve pathways, indicating a need for further medical evaluation.
Some species of algae can potentially be farmed and used as biofuel. This would create a renewable, sustainable source of biofuel to use in place of fossil fuels. This is an example of
Answer: Renewable source of energy
Explanation:
The algae can be used to produce biofuel. This is a alternative source of energy can be used in place of conventional sources of energy like fossil fuels. This emphasis towards the use of renewable source of energy as plant or algae can be grown again due to their seeds, spores or through any other vegetative precursors. This is the basis of sustainable use of non-renewable resources by the use of renewable resources.
Answer:
Biotechnology
Explanation:
Of the following phyla, which are non-seed producing and non-vascular?
Answer:
Anthocerophyta, Bryophyta, Hepatophyta.
Explanation:
Non vascular plants are defined as the plants which contains phloem, and xylem without the vascular system. They are containing simpler tissues which are specialized for internal transport of water.
They include bryophyta, hornworts (anthocerophyta), liverworts (hepatophyta) mosses, and some algae. Non vascular plants reproduce with the help of spores, and do not produce fruit, and flowers.
The ""preservationist ethic"" is associated with ______________ .
Answer: maintenance the health of the natural world. Through allocation,exploitation and protection
Explanation:
This involves the health state of the living organisms of the word :the vegaation, the aquatic organisms and ithe biodervasity.
The preservationist ethic is associated with conservation movement.
The preservationist ethic is a philosophy that advocates for the protection and conservation of natural resources, ecosystems, and wildlife. It is closely associated with the conservation movement, which emerged in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The conservation movement was a response to the rapid industrialization and exploitation of natural resources that was occurring at the time.
Key figures in the movement, such as John Muir and Theodore Roosevelt, championed the idea that certain areas of natural beauty and ecological significance should be preserved for future generations. This ethic led to the establishment of national parks, wildlife refuges, and other protected areas, as well as laws and policies aimed at sustainable use of natural resources. The conservation movement has evolved over time and continues to influence environmental policy and conservation efforts around the world.
Which of the following statements is FALSE of basic emotions? They are innate. They are universal. They are greatly influenced by experience. They can be determined from facial expressions.
The statement that can be considered as false as regards basic emotions is B: They are universal.
Basic emotions can be regarded as a special class of emotions that encompass all other emotions. According to theorist, It is a type of emotion with some attributes such been innate, they can be influenced by experience and can be determined from facial expressions.There basic emotions that exist are:
happinesssadness fearangerTherefore, option C is correct.
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In 1906 Harden and Young, in a series of classic studies on the fermentation of glucose to ethanol and CO2 by extracts of brewer's yeast, made the following observations.(A) Inorganic phosphate was essential to fermentation; when the supply of phosphate was exhausted, fermentation ceased before all the glucose was used.(B) During fermentation under these conditions, ethanol, CO2, and a sugar phosphate accumulated.(C) When arsenate was substituted for phosphate, no sugar phosphate acumulated, but the fermentation proceeded until all the glucose was converted to ethanol and CO2.Answer the following questions.1. Which enzyme of glycolysis requires inorganic phosphate and therefore stops when no phosphate is available?(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase(b) phosphoglycerate mutase(c) phosphofructokinase-1(d) phosphoglycerate kinase
Answer:
(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Explanation:
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase is the enzyme which requires inorganic phosphate (Pi) essentially for it's functioning. It catalyzes the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid (1,3 BPG) during glycolysis.
All other enzymes of glycolysis use ATP for phosphorylation of their substrate but this is the only enzyme which rather uses an inorganic phosphate to phosphorylate it's substrate.
In today’s pattern of extinction, the generation of new species is unlikely because _____.
A.most plant species are being destroyed
B.entire ecosystems are being destroyed
C.alien species occupy important niches
D.key animal species are being destroyed
Answer:
B.entire ecosystems are being destroyed
Explanation:
for the generation of new species, the present species should have to survive for the period of thousand years in order to produce and develop much better features to make them much better to survive and adapt themselves according to the time.
but in today word, the world living conditions are changing and threatening due to destruction of ecosystem by many activities performed by humans. These destruction will cause endangerment of the generation of the new species.
Why do scientists studying evolutionary medicine in humans examine distantly-related species (e.g., yeast, nematode worms, frogs, plants, mice)? a) Clusters of orthologs common to humans and other species can be associated with the same functions b) They can be informative about how cells sense their environments c) Other organisms reproduce more quickly than humans, d) Shutting down genes is possible in more distantly related species but it is not ethically allowed in humans e) all of the above f) a, b, and c
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-F
Explanation:
The modern medical, molecular and genetic studies are performed on the model organism like C. elegans, mice and many others.
The reason for the studies is that the life span of these organisms is of short duration as compared to humans. These organisms are also made of cells which are sensitive to their environment as humans.
The studies have shown that this organism shows an orthology relationship in their genes due to the origin of the genes from the same ancestral genes.
Thus, option-F is the correct answer.
2. In the SN1 mechanism, the second step is attack of the nucleophile, so increasing the nucleophile concentration should speed up this step. Why, then, do we say that the rate of an SN1 reaction does not depend on the concentration of the nucleophile?
Answer:
The rate of reaction depends on the rate determining step of a nonelementary reaction
Explanation:
A non elementary reaction is a reaction that proceeds in a sequence of steps. One of the steps is usually the slowest step in the reaction sequence. This slowest step is called the rate determining step. In an SN1 reaction, the rate determining step is the formation of the carbocation, the concentration of the carbocation affects the rate of reaction because it is involved in the rate determining step. The attack of the nucleophile is a fast step and does not affect the rate of reaction.
Answer:because the rate determining step is not the second step where nucleophilic concentration is important but rather the first step is the rate determining step in SN1 reaction
Explanation: the rate determining step is the slowest step in a reaction chain and SN1 reaction mechanism is first characterized by formation of a carboncation which is an endothermic reaction hence the is the slowest step in the chain reaction
On a field expedition to Yellowstone National Park, you collected water samples from some of the hot springs in the hope of discovering new species of thermophilic bacterium. One such bacterium grew in the laboratory and after sequencing the entire genome of this new bacterium by the whole-genome shotgun approach, you use a computer program to search for start/stop signals for translation and homology searches based on similarity to cDNAs in the database. You predict approximately 20,000 genes. Is this an accurate representation of the total number of genes in the organism? Why or why not?
Answer:
No, it is not correct.
Explanation:
No, this is not an adequate representation for the total number of genes in the studied organism. The reason is because we are looking for start/stop signals to make comparisons with a database, and only genes that encode proteins carry start/stop signals; therefore, the 20,000 genes that were predicted correspond only to genes that encode proteins, leaving aside others that do not, so the estimate obtained is not correct.
What happens during the initiation step of DNA transcription? A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand. RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand. A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble. The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.
Answer:
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.
Explanation:
Transcription is the process in which DNA template is used to synthesize mRNA.
There are three steps of transcription:
InitiationIt is the process in which a portion of DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase binds to the promotor region on the DNA.
ElongationIt is the process in which RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template and synthesizes mRNA. During this process, unwinding of double stranded DNA takes place.
TerminationAs the RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template, it finally reaches a termination signal and then stops synthesizing. It is followed by the detachment of the newly formed mRNA and RNA polymerase from the DNA.
QUESTION:
A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this process does not happen in the process of transcription. This event happens in the process of translation in which mRNA is used to synthesize proteins or amino acids. mRNA attaches to ribosome during this process.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this event takes place in the process of elongation.
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.This is the correct answer choice as this event takes place in the process of initiation of transcription
The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice. This event takes place in the event of termination of transcription.
A portion of a polypeptide produced by a mammalian cell was found to have the following sequence of amino acids:...Lys-Ser-Pro-Ser-Leu-Asn-Ala... - In a normal cell...Lys-Val-His-His-Leu-Met-Ala...- In a mutant cella.) What was the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded this portion of the original polypeptide?b.) What was the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA encoding this portion of the mutant polypeptide?c.) Can you determine which nucleotide was deleted and which was inserted?
a) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the original polypeptide: AAA UCU CCU UCU UUA AAU GCU
b) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the mutant polypeptide: AAA GUU CAU CAU UUA AUG GCU
c) The nucleotide that was deleted was C, and the nucleotide that was inserted was G.
a.
The given sequence of amino acids for the original polypeptide is:
Lys-Ser-Pro-Ser-Leu-Asn-Ala
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the corresponding codons for each amino acid:
Lys (AAA or AAG)
Ser (UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, or AGC)
Pro (CCU, CCC, CCA, or CCG)
Ser (UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, or AGC)
Leu (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, or CUG)
Asn (AAU or AAC)
Ala (GCU, GCC, GCA, or GCG)
b) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the mutant polypeptide:
The given sequence of amino acids for the mutant polypeptide is:
Lys-Val-His-His-Leu-Met-Ala
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the corresponding codons for each amino acid:
Lys (AAA or AAG)
Val (GUU, GUC, GUA, or GUG)
His (CAU or CAC)
His (CAU or CAC)
Leu (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, or CUG)
Met (AUG)
Ala (GCU, GCC, GCA, or GCG)
c) Comparing the mRNA sequences for the original and mutant polypeptides, we can see that the following changes occurred:
Original: AAA UCU CCU UCU UUA AAU GCU
Mutant: AAA GUU CAU CAU UUA AUG GCU
The differences are:
The codon UCU (Ser) was replaced by GUU (Val)
The codon CCU (Pro) was replaced by CAU (His)
The codon UCU (Ser) was replaced by CAU (His)
The codon AAU (Asn) was replaced by AUG (Met)
What are some ways to prevent wildfires?
Ways to prevent wildfires can include:
If you see new fires, report it if its not getting taken care of.Don't use fireworks in areas with lots of trees/bushes.When you smoke cigarettes, don't throw them on the ground.When you are using flammable liquids, please be cautious with it.When you are using a campfire, put it out before you leave.Best of Luck!
Answer:
Report unattended fires. ...Extinguish fire pits and campfires when done. ...Don't throw lit cigarettes out of your moving car. ...Use caution when using flammable liquids. ...Pay attention to local ordinances for trash burning. ...Only use fireworks in clear areas with no woods nearby.Explanation:
hope this helps you
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What happens when sperm capacitate?
Answer:
Capacitation of sperm or spermatozoon is a process of functional maturation. The changes occur in the cell membrane of the sperm cells.
The removal of the layer of glycoprotein takes place in the capacitation process of sperm that result in making receptors available.
The other change that takes place is the alteration of the acrosomal cap that helps in acrosome reaction possible. These changes help in the sperms to penetrate and fertilize the egg in the female reproductive tract.
The Correlated trait exercise shows that :
A) when two characters are correlated, selection always favors larger values of both or smaller values of both
B) When two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival
C) when two characters are correlated, selection is always strong on both or weak on both
D) when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together
Answer:The correlated trait exercise shows that when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together.
Explanation: Correlation refers to statistical (linear) relationship between two random variables. When traits are correlated, change in one is associated with change in the other.
Correlation coefficient (c.c.) measures strength of association between two variables in the same individual or experiment. It can range from -1 to +1. C.c. can be positive, negative or weak.
1. A positive c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in the other variable.
2. A negative c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other.
3. A c.c. near zero indicates a weak relationship between the variables.
Correlation can be represented by scatter plot as shown in the attached image.
Option B: When two traits are correlated, one can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival.
Option B states that when two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival. This implies that selection pressures can favor changes in one trait even if those changes are not directly beneficial for survival. This phenomenon, known as evolutionary constraint or evolutionary trade-off, occurs when traits are genetically linked or when the same genetic mechanisms control multiple traits. As a result, evolutionary changes in one trait may be constrained by the genetic correlation with another trait, leading to seemingly suboptimal evolutionary outcomes. Therefore, Option B provides a nuanced understanding of how correlated traits can evolve.
The total economic value of an ecosystem: is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
a. includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
b. is composed of the direct values an ecosystem provides upon which a price can be placed, such as crops and medicinal plants.
c. is composed of the direct economic value and the potential pharmaceutical value of an ecosystem.
d. is composed of the utilized services and goods an ecosystem provides, such as water storage and filtration, even if they are not directly paid for.
e. is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
Answer: option A - includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
Explanation:
Ecosystem is the interrelationship of organisms (plants, animals, microbes) with each other and their environment.
The TOTAL economic value of an ecosystem includes:
the presently utilized resources,
the resources to be derived in the future,
the non-use or intangible aspects (like tourism, beautification, etc)
The total economic value of an ecosystem comprises all of the ecosystem's services, future uses, and non-use values, which can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. This includes both direct and indirect values which the ecosystem provides and could have potential monetary value placed on.
Explanation:The total economic value of an ecosystem is indeed a comprehensive concept that spans across various areas. It includes all the ecosystem's services, future potentials, and even the non-use values. The latter can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. In essence, it encapsulates both direct and indirect values that the ecosystem offers.
Direct values refer to those upon which a price tag can be attached, such as farming crops or gathering medicinal plants. An ecosystem's potential pharmaceutical value is also an example of a direct economic value. On the other hand, indirect values are those benefits we derive from the ecosystem naturally, for example, water storage and filtration. While these services are crucial, they are not directly paid for.
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Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a diploid yeast species that can reproduce either sexually or asexually. An experiment was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis. Which of the following best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes?
A. The first division will result in crossing over between homologous chromosomes, and the second division will reduce the original number of chromosomes by half in the daughter cells.
B. The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will result in each daughter cell having one-fourth of the original number of chromosomes.
C. The first division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell, and the second division will double the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.
D. The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.
The statement that best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes is "the first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell"
MEIOSIS:
Meiosis is the process by which a single cell produces four daughter cells with a reduced number of chromosomes (by half). Meiosis occurs in two step division process namely: meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated while in meiosis II, sister chromatids are separated. Meiosis I reduces the chromosome number by half i.e. from diploid (2n) to haploid (n). Therefore, in the experiment that was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis, the first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/12327654?referrer=searchResults
Meiosis is a reduction division in which number of chromosomes in the daughter cells are halved. In mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter and parent cell are similar after cell division. The statement which describes the correct sequence is:
The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.The yeasts are the unicellular microorganisms that can reproduce sexually or asexually. During the sexual reproduction, the number of chromosomes in the in the daughter cells are halved. Some of the features of meiosis are:
Meiosis in yeasts produces four haploid daughter cells, known as gametes. Meiosis takes place in two steps, meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes are separated, whereas, in the meiosis II separation of sister chromatids occur. Meiosis I is the reduction division in which diploid cell produces haploid cells. Thus, the experiment performed on yeast to induce mitosis will result in the cells undergoing meiosis during G1 phase. The first division will lead to reduction in the chromosome numbers by half and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.Therefore, option D is correct.
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According to the evolutionary perspective, which of the following statements accurately reflects the role of gender differences?
a) Gender differences have little bearing on the survival of the species.
b) Males with more nurturing characteristics attract females with competitive traits.
c) Females with nurturing characteristics are valued for their tendency to help children survive.
d) Forceful and competitive females attract males who can provide them with sturdy offspring.
Answer:
C- Females with nurturing characteristics are valued for their tendency to help children survive
Explanation:
The role of the female gender according to the evolutionary perspective was simply that of procreation and nurturer. They were required for their ability to birth offsprings that would grow into adults and thus, females recognized as possessing nurturing characteristics tended to attract more males as mates as it was believed they'll procreate children and help them survive well into adulthood
If George is spanked immediately after his baby sister cries, he is likely to become fearful every time she cries. If Ken is spanked immediately before his baby sister cries, he is not likely to become fearful when she cries. What do the different reactions of George and Ken suggest about the role of cognitive processes in associative learning?
Answer:
Associative learning may be defined as a type of learning in which the new response gets easily associated with the stimulus. Except habituation learning all simple learning procedure are included in this learning.
In the associative learning, reactions of an individual are based on there spank. George learns to cry on being spanked this is because this stimulus of sister cries gives response. Crying do not show any effect on ken because he does not know about his sister crying.
Fish is high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are most beneficial for the __________ as mentioned in the video. Fish is high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are most beneficial for the __________ as mentioned in the video.
1. immune system
2. kidneys
3. heart
4. digestive tract
Answer: option 3) Heart
Explanation:
Omega-3 fatty acids are an integral part of cell membranes throughout the body and affect the function of the cell receptors in these membranes.
They provide the starting point for making hormones that regulate blood clotting, contraction and relaxation of artery walls, and inflammation.
Thus, they are most beneficial to the HEART
As you continue to cross the offspring resulting from the previous question with albinos, what will occur in the growing population?
Answer selections:
a) the percentage of agouti will increase
b) the percentage of chinchillas will increase
c) the percentage of both dominant traits (agouti and chinchilla) will increase
d) the percentage of albinos will increase
*any explanation with answer is welcome for best understanding*
Answer:
D. The percentage of albinos will increase.
Explanation:
In the growing population it is certain that the percentage of albinos will surely increase because it is continuous breeding involving albinos.
Answer:
The percentage of albinos will increase.
Two processes which chemically alter parent material are Select one:
a. oxidation and hydrolysis.
b. decomposition and oxidation.
c. hydrolysis and liming.
d. freezing and thawing.
Answer:A oxidation and hydrolysis
Explanation:
These two reactions involved the formation of two new product materials different from the r original parent materials
There was a s different tructural arrangement in bond formatio in new product s
Electron composition also varies
Pre-Lab Questions What are two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments? Describe three ways that microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem as a whole. Give two examples of genera that produce endospores, and explain why they are important in human health. What are coliforms? Why are they important in assuring water quality? Why is E. coli the indicator bacterium for fecal contamination?
What are two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments?
Answer:
1. Presence of thick cell wall in prokaryotes help them to survive in hypo-osmotic and hyper-osmotic conditions.
2. Production of endospores by bacteria. Bacteria use these structures to produce off sprigs because these structures are heat and drought resistant. They germinate when the conditions became favorable for growth.
Describe three ways that microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem as a whole.
Answer:
1. As decomposer return the nitrogen contents back to ecosystem.
2. Bacteria detoxify may harmful substances present in water bodies therefore some species of bacteria are used for bio-remediation of ecosystem.
3. Bacterial byproducts help plant to grow faster because these byproducts act as stimuli for plant growth.
Give two examples of genera that produce endospores, and explain why they are important in human health.
Answer:
Endospore Producing Genus:
Bacteria belongs to genus Bacillus and Clostridium produce endospores.
Importance for humans.:
1. Bacillus species are used to produce antibiotics, metabolites, enzymes which help in curing human diseases.
2. While species of Clostridium cause food poisoning in human.
What are coliforms? Why are they important in assuring water quality?
Answer:
Coliforms are gram negative bacteria have road like shape found in spoiled water.
Importance:
These bacteria are important indicator of polluted water therefore in water quality testing their presence tells us about the water quality that how much is this water polluted.
Why is E. coli the indicator bacterium for fecal contamination?
Answer:
E. Coli found in the intestine of humans. As E. Coli itself does not cause mild infections therefore its presence indicates the presence if other deadly pathogens which may cause dangerous diseases to human.
Final answer:
Prokaryotes survive in extreme environments via adaptations like protective cell walls and the ability to form endospores. Genera like Bacillus and Clostridium are crucial in understanding human health due to their durability and disease potential. E. coli serves as an indicator of fecal contamination in water quality monitoring.
Explanation:
Two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments include having a protective cell wall that allows them to endure both hyper- and hypo-osmotic conditions, and the ability of some soil bacteria to form endospores, which resist heat and drought. Microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem by assisting in soil formation and stabilization, fixing nitrogen into usable forms for eukaryotes, and participating in bioremediation to remove pollutants from the environment.
Examples of genera that produce endospores include Bacillus and Clostridium, which are important in human health due to their resistance to adverse conditions and their potential to cause diseases. Coliforms are a group of gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria that are typically used as an indicator of water quality. E. coli is the most commonly used indicator bacterium for fecal contamination because it is predominantly found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals, making it a reliable sign of fecal pollution in water sources.
9. Consider the need for accuracy in the flow of information from DNA to RNA to functional protein molecules. What are the different levels of stringency in replication, transcription and translation? What kinds of mechanism improve the accuracy of these processes?
Answer:
The central dogma of the molecular biology explains the flow of information from the replication of the DNA to the expression of proteins. This central dogma must be error free so that correct information can be transferred. The error in this process can cause life threatening situation. So, the phases of proof reading and rectification is required in this process.
From the DNA replication to the transcription of the RNA and final translation into the proteins requires proof reading mechanisms and many enzymes with the non enzymatic processes. The enzymes of transcription, replication and translation shows high degree of proof reading and works in efficient way. The incorporation of the amino acids, post translation modification makes the information flow as correct as possible.
Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of fungi?Select one:a. As a source of antibiotics.b. To make drinks, like beer.c. To produce fabrics like cotton and linen.d. To make food, like bread.e. As a direct food source: mushrooms, for example.
Answer:
Fungi are not used to produce fabrics like cotton and linen.
Explanation:
Fungi are extremily important for the ecosystem because they are one of the principal organic matter decomposers. But they are also very important for human uses, such as:
Yeast is important in the fermentation process involved in the production of beer, wine, and bread. Fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen and allows the first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, to continue. Some fungi are used to produce sauces as an important proteinic source Some other fungi are ingested directly as food, such as the pine tree fungi or the champignon mushroom. In medicine, fungi are important to produce antibiotics such as peniciline.Answer:
To produce fabrics like cotton and linen
Which could be an example of an Adaptive Radiation?
A. a burst of new species in a new habitat where selective pressure is different from an ancestral habitat, like has been noticed for "Darwin’s Finches" The Cichlid Fishes and numerous examples from the fossil record.
B. HUMAN domestication of wild plants into crop plants due to selectively breeding plants with desirable characteristics over several hundred thousand years
C. Descent with modification and natural selection
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation is a process of speciation by which organisms get diversified into many forms very rapidly from an ancestral species.
The process takes place when the species gets into a new environment and new niches which results in morphological and physiological traits.
In the given question, the various forms of Darwin’s Finches on the same island is the result of adaptive radiation as the different forms of the beak of Finches is the result of different niches and the different food provided by nature.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Adaptional radiation- The comparatively quick evolution of the many species from one common ascendant, often happens when an organism enters a new area with lots of ecological opportunities.
EXAMPLE: "Darwin Finches".
It can also happen due to mass extinction or when new traits evolve.
Ex: Mammals after the extinction of the dinosaur.
Which of the following is an example of an epigenetic change in eukaryotes? A) a loss of an AT base pair from a gene B) the addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene C) the substitution of an AT base pair by a GC base pair in a gene as a result of a mistake during DNA replicationD) a deletion that simultaneously removes two genes from the genome E) None of these examples represents epigenetic changes.
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
The addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene.
Epigenetic modifications entails DNA methylation and histone modification
a cell found in the root of the plant would most likely lack what cell structure.
Mitochondria
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Chloroplasts
Answer:
The cells found in the root of the plant normally lacks chloroplasts, as roots do not perform photosynthesis. The main function of chloroplast is photosynthesis.
Explanation:
The plant cell contains nucleus, cell wall, cell membrane, mitochondria, chloroplasts, vacuole, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes etc. Chloroplasts contain green pigments which give green color to the plants. The main function of chloroplast is photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, the plants produce glucose and release oxygen by using carbon dioxide from the air, and absorbing water and nutrients from the soil. Using the glucose in the plants and oxygen, mitochondria produce energy.
The root system of the plants absorb water and nutrients from the soil. The absorbed water and nutrients are then transported to various parts of the plant to carry out processes like photosynthesis, maintaining turgor pressure etc. They have different types of cell which perform some specific functions. These cells also contain cell wall, cell membrane and mitochondria. Mitochondria provides energy for the active transport of water and nutrients. But chloroplasts are absent in root cells as they do not perform photosynthesis.