Answer:
b. job and technical training
Explanation:
The job and the technical training is the training which is to be provided by the company or the centers to the workers or the people who want to trained in a particular service or specialized in a service in order to get a better and satisfying job through which they can build their career in a better way
In the given situation, the fitness center send the instructors to the certified training program to learn how to use these machines correctly that reflects the job and technical training
The following transactions for March have been journalized and posted to the proper accounts. Mar. 1 The business received a $10,000 cash contribution from the owner. Mar. 2 Paid the first month's rent of $800. Mar. 3 Purchased equipment by paying $4,000 cash and executing a note payable for $6,000. Mar. 4 Purchased office supplies for $500 cash. Mar. 5 Billed a client for $14,000 of design services completed. Mar. 6 Received $6,000 on account for the services previously recorded. What is the ending balance in the Service Revenue account
Answer:
$14,000
Explanation:
As we can see that all the entries accept March 5 represents the payment, receipts, expense, etc
Moreover, the service revenue is recognized on due basis not on receipt basis so this case only March 5 transaction is considered i.e billed a client for design completion of service
Hence, the ending balance is $14,000
Niosoki Auto Parts sells new parts for foreign automobiles to auto dealers. Company policy requires that a prenumbered shipping document be issued for each sale. At the time of pickup or shipment, the shipping clerk writes the date on the shipping document. The last shipment made in the fiscal year ended August 31, 2016, was recorded on document 2167. Shipments are billed in the order that the billing clerk receives the shipping documents. For late August and early September, shipping documents are billed on sales invoices as follows: Shipping Document No. Sales Invoice No. 2163 5437 2164 5431 2165 5432 2166 5435 2167 5436 2168 5433 2169 5434 2170 5438 2171 5440 2172 5439 The August and September sales journals have the following information included: SaLeS JOUrNaL — aUGUSt 2016 Day of Month Sales Invoice No. amount of Sale 30 5431 $ 726.11 30 5434 4,214.30 31 5432 419.83 31 5433 1,620.22 31 5435 47.74 SaLeS JOUrNaL — SepteMBer 2016 Day of Month Sales Invoice No. amount of Sale 1 5437 $2,541.31 1 5436 106.39 1 5438 852.06 2 5440 1,250.50 2 5439 646.58 a. What are the accounting requirements for a correct sales cutoff? b. Which sales invoices, if any, are recorded in the wrong accounting period? Prepare an adjusting entry to correct the financial statement for the year ended August 31, 2016. Assume that the company uses a periodic inventory system (inventory and cost of sales do not need to be adjusted).
Sales cutoff requires properly recording sales in the period in which goods were shipped. Sales invoices 5437 and 5436 were recorded in the wrong period and need to be adjusted into the August 2016 period.
Explanation:The accounting requirements for a correct sales cutoff involve ensuring that sales are recorded in the proper accounting period and revenues are matched with the expenses thus incurred. This means sales should be recorded in the period in which the goods were shipped or services were rendered irrespective of when the payment was received.
On examining the data, it appears that sales invoices 5437 and 5436 related to shipping documents 2163 and 2167 respectively should not have been recorded in the September 2016 period. This is because the goods corresponding to these invoices were shipped in August 2016, as per the shipping document numbers. Therefore, these sales were recorded in the wrong accounting period.
To correct this, an adjusting journal entry should be prepared to move these sales to the correct accounting period. The entry would be to debit Accounts Receivable for the total of invoices 5437 and 5436 ($2,541.31 + $106.39 = $2,647.70) and credit Sales for the same amount.
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The correct sales cutoff requires aligning revenue recording with the period when goods are shipped, not when they're paid for. Sales invoices 5437 and 5431 were recorded in the incorrect period and should be adjusted through an adjusting entry to reflect the correct revenue for fiscal year ended August 31, 2016.
Explanation:The accounting requirements for a correct sales cutoff ensure that sales are recorded in the period in which the goods are shipped and the revenue is earned, regardless of when the payment is received. This practice aligns with the revenue recognition principle which mandates that revenue should be recognized in the accounting period in which it is earned.
Upon reviewing the shipping documents and sales invoices, certain sales have been incorrectly recorded in the wrong accounting period. Shipping documents 2163 and 2164, with their respective sales invoices 5437 and 5431, were billed on September 1st. However, these sales should have been recorded in the August accounting period as they are associated with the last shipments made in the fiscal year ended August 31, 2016.
To correct this error, the following adjusting entry should be made to the financial statements for the year ended August 31, 2016:
Debit Accounts Receivable for the total amount of sales incorrectly recorded in September ($3,267.42).Credit Sales Revenue for the same amount ($3,267.42).The adjusting entry will correct the sales revenue to match the sales activity occurring up to August 31, 2016.
Learn more about Sales Cutoff here: A company will pay a $2 per share dividend in 1 year. The dividend in 2 years will be $4 per share, and it is expected that dividends will grow at %5 per year thereafter. The expected rate of return on the stock is 12%.
a) What is the expected price of the stock in a year?
b) Show that the expected return, 12%, equals dividend yield plus capital appreciation.
Answer:
(a) = 57.14
(b) Shown below
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Expected Rate of Return(R) = 12%
Growth Rate(g) = 5%
P2 = Div. Per Share × (1+g) ÷ (R-g)
P2 = 4 × 1.05 ÷ (0.12 - 0.05) = 60
One Year Stock’s Expected Price = Div. Per Share ÷ (1+R)t + P2 / (1+R)t
a). Expected price (P1) = 4 ÷ (1+0.12)1 + 60 ÷ (1+0.12)1
= 3.57 + 53.57
= 57.14
b).
One Year Dividend (P0) = 2 ÷ (0+0.12) + 4 ÷ (1+0.12)2 + 60÷(1+0.12)2
= 1.79 + 3.19 + 47.83
= 52.81
Dividend Yield Plus Capital Appreciation= Share Dividend in One Year ÷ Current Price Per Share
= 2 ÷ 52.81 = 0.0379 or 3.79%
Capital Gain = ( P1 - P0 ) ÷ P0
= ( 57.14 - 52.81) ÷ 52.81
= 0.0820 or 8.20%
Total = Dividend Yield Plus Capital Appreciation + Capital Gain
= 3.79% + 8.20%
= 11.99% or 12%
Many academic institutions offer a sabbatical policy. Every seventh year a professor is given a year free of teaching and other administrative responsibilities at full pay. For a professor earning $70,000 per year who works for a total of 42 years, what is the present value of the amount she will earn while on sabbatical if the interest rate is 6% (EAR)? Note: Assume that the sabbatical annual salary is paid in one lump sum every 7 years.
Final answer:
The present value of the amount a professor will earn while on sabbatical is $266,996.60.
Explanation:
To calculate the present value of the amount a professor will earn while on sabbatical, we can use the formula for present value of a future sum of money. The formula is:
PV = FV / (1 + r)^n
Where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years.
In this case, the professor earns $70,000 per year and will work for 42 years. The sabbatical salary is paid in one lump sum every 7 years. So, the number of payments is 42 / 7 = 6.
Using the formula, the future value of the sabbatical salary is $70,000 * 6 = $420,000. The interest rate is 6% (EAR), so r = 0.06. And the number of years is 6.
Substituting the values into the formula, we have:
PV = $420,000 / (1 + 0.06)₆ = $266,996.60
Therefore, the present value of the amount the professor will earn while on sabbatical is $266,996.60.
The present value of the amount the professor will earn while on sabbatical is approximately $175,607.76
To solve this problem, we need to calculate the present value of the sabbatical earnings for a professor who works for a total of 42 years and receives a sabbatical every seventh year. The professor's annual salary is $70,000, and the interest rate is 6% (EAR).
First, we determine how many sabbaticals the professor will receive over the 42-year period. Since the professor receives a sabbatical every seventh year, we divide the total number of years worked by 7:[tex]\[ \text{Number of sabbaticals} = \frac{42}{7} = 6 \][/tex]
Next, we calculate the future value of the sabbatical salary received every seventh year. Since the salary is paid in one lump sum at the end of each sabbatical period, we can use the formula for the future value of a lump sum:
[tex]\[ FV = PV \times (1 + r)^n \][/tex]
where [tex]\( FV \)[/tex] is the future value, [tex]\( PV \)[/tex] is the present value (in this case, the sabbatical salary of $70,000), [tex]\( r \)[/tex] is the interest rate per period, and [tex]\( n \)[/tex] is the number of periods.
However, since the sabbatical salary is received at the end of each sabbatical period, we need to find the present value of each sabbatical salary. The formula for the present value of a lump sum received in the future is:
[tex]\[ PV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^n} \][/tex]
For each sabbatical, the number of periods \( n \) will be 7 years, and the interest rate \( r \) is 6% per year. We calculate the present value for each sabbatical and then sum them up to get the total present value of all sabbaticals:
[tex]\[ PV_{\text{total}} = \sum_{i=1}^{6} \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{7i}} \][/tex]
Now, we calculate the present value for each sabbatical and sum them up:
[tex]\[ PV_{\text{total}} = \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^7} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{14}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{21}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{28}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{35}} + \frac{70000}{(1 + 0.06)^{42}} \]\\[/tex]
After calculating the above expression, we get the total present value of the sabbatical earnings.
Using the given interest rate of 6%, the present value of the sabbatical earnings over the 42-year period is approximately $175,607.76. This is the amount that, if invested today at an annual interest rate of 6%, would grow to be enough to cover the sabbatical salaries paid out every seventh year over the professor's 42-year career.
Peter and Blair recently reviewed their future retirement income and expense projections. They hope to retire in 35 years and anticipate they will need funding for an additional 26 years. They determined that they would have a retirement income of $64 comma 000 in today's dollars, but they would actually need $88 comma 241 in retirement income to meet all of their objectives. Calculate the total amount that Peter and Blair must save if they wish to completely fund their income shortfall, assuming a 4 percent inflation rate and a return of 9 percent.
Answer:
Peter and Blair need to save 4,105.10 USD per year for 35 years until retirement.
Explanation:
Peter and Blair actually need 88,241 USD in retirement income to meet all of their objectives.
Current amount they have = 64,000 USD
Time period of Retirement = 35 years
Additional Years = 26 years
Inflation rate = 4%
Rate of return = 9%
So, we have all of that data to solve the problem. Then let's do it.
Our first step is to calculate the real rate of return by incorporating the inflation rate into it. Note: we have been given rate of return not the real rate of return.
Real Rate of Return = ( 1 + ROR given)/(1+ inflation rate) - 1
Real Rate of Return = ( 1+ 0.09)/(1 + 0.04) -1
Real Rate of Return = 0.048 x 100 = 4.80%
So, the real rate of retunr is = 4.80%
Now, let's find out the what is the additional fund required in total:
Additional funds required = Required - Available
Additional funds required = 88,241 - 64,000
Additional funds required = 24,241 USD
Now, we have to calculate the Present value of this additional funds required for the time period of 26 years.
Present value can be calculated by using the finance calculator online.
You have to put these data into the calculator to calculate the present value of the money.
PMT = 24241
Interest Rate (I/Y) = 4.80
Number of Periods (N) = 26 years
By plugging in these numbers, you will the present value of 24,241 USD:
Present Value = 355,770.28 USD
Now, we have to calculate the amount of money Peter and Blair need to save every year till their retirement after 35 years.
For that, I have used that finance calculator this time solving for PMT.
You need to put following data into the calculator:
Future Value = 355,770.28
Number of periods(N) = 35 years
Interest Rate (I/Y) = 4.80%
Annual Payment (PMT) = 4105.10 USD
It means Peter and Blair need to save 4,105.10 USD per year for 35 years until retirement.
BTC, a consulting company with offices across the United States, began an employee discussion forum on its website. A few employees began criticizing the company on the forum and undermining its morale. BTC does not want to limit employee interaction, but at the same time, it would like to limit what employees can write. Which of the following features of a discussion forum will help them achieve this?a) tele-presence.b) anonymity.c) moderators.d) version control.
Answer:
c) moderators.
Explanation:
Since BTC doesn't want to limit employee interaction, but at the same time, it would like to limit what employees can write. The use of moderating features of a discussion forum through the service of a moderator will help them achieve this effectively and efficiently.
A moderator is a neutral individual who has the sole responsibility and skill set to preside and regulate discussions, by ensuring participants do not stray off from the subject matter and the time allotted to them.
bank run is ____________.A.an extraordinarily large volume of withdrawals driven by a concern that a bank will run out of liquid assets with which to pay withdrawals.B.an unexpected attempt of one bank to initiate a hostile takeover of another, usually smaller, bank.C.a sudden desire on the part of a bank's shareholders to sell their bank stock.D.an extraordinarily large volume of withdrawals from all b
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
In simple words, Bank runs refers to the scenario when a significant amount of individuals begin to make bank withdrawals since they are afraid the organizations will run out of liquidity. Usually a run on the banks is the product of confusion instead of a true bankruptcy.
Bank run caused by panic that drives a bank into real bankruptcy provides a traditional example of a prediction that fulfills itself. The institution does defaults risk, as customers are continuing to withdraw money. So what starts out as fear will ultimately turn into some kind of true fallback situation.
Mather Company purchased equipment on January 1, 2018 at a total invoice cost of $336,000; additional costs of $6,000 for freight and $30,000 for installation were incurred. The equipment has an estimated salvage value of $12,000 and an estimated useful life of five years. The amount of accumulated depreciation at December 31, 2019 if the straight-line method of depreciation is used is
Answer:
$144,000
Explanation:
The computation of accumulated depreciation is shown below:-
Total cost = Invoice cost + Freight + Installation
= $336,000 + $6,000 + $30,000
= $372,000
Depreciation as per SLM = (Total Cost - Salvage Value) ÷ Estimated useful life
= (372,000 - 12,000) ÷ 5
= $72,000
The amount of accumulated depreciation (after 2 years) = Depreciation as per SLM × Years
= 72,000 × 2
= $144,000
So, for computing the accumulated depreciation we simply applied the above formula.
A company with excess capacity must decide between scrapping or reworking units that do not pass inspection. The company has 13,000 defective units that cost $6.00 per unit to manufacture. The units can be a) sold as is for $3.10 each, or b) reworked for $5.00 each and then sold for the full price of $9.10 each. What is the incremental income from selling the units as scrap and reworking and selling the units? Should the company sell the units as scrap or rework them? (Enter costs and losses as negative values.)
Answer:
The company should rework and sell defective products because profits are higher
Explanation:
We need to find the profit that will be generated when the defective goods are sold as scrap and when they are reworked.
Selling as scrap
Profit from scrap= Unit sales price * quantity
Profit from scrap= 3.10 * 13,000
Profit from scrap= $40,300
Reworking the defective products
Profit from rework= Sales revenue - cost of rework
Profit from rework= (9.1* 13,000) - (5* 13,000)
Profit from rework= 118,300 - 65,000
Profit from rework= $53,300
As profit from rework is higher we should rework and sell the defective products
The following information is available to reconcile Branch Company’s book balance of cash with its bank statement cash balance as of July 31.
1) On July 31, the company’s Cash account has a $25,699 debit balance, but its July bank statement shows a $28,207 cash balance.
2) Check No. 3031 for $1,570, Check No. 3065 for $561, and Check No. 3069 for $2,338 are outstanding checks as of July 31. Check No. 3056 for July rent expense was correctly written and drawn for $1,260 but was erroneously entered in the accounting records as $1,250.
3) The July bank statement shows the bank collected $9,000 cash on a note for Branch. Branch had not recorded this event before receiving the statement.
4) The bank statement shows an $805 NSF check. The check had been received from a customer, Evan Shaw. Branch has not yet recorded this check as NSF.
5) The July statement shows a $14 bank service charge. It has not yet been recorded in miscellaneous expenses because no previous notification had been received.
6) Branch’s July 31 daily cash receipts of $10,132 were placed in the bank’s night depository on that date but do not appear on the July 31 bank statement.
Required:
1. Prepare the bank reconciliation for this company as of July 31, 2017.
2. Prepare the journal entries necessary to bring the company’s book balance of cash into conformity with the reconciled cash balance as of July 31, 2017. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement as of July 31, 2017
Balance at Bank as per cash book (up to date) $35,480
Add Unpresented Cheques :
No. 3031 $1,570
No. 3065 $561
No. 3069 $2,338
Less Lodgements not yet credited ($10,132)
Balance as per Bank Statement $29,817
Explanation:
Step 1 Bring the Cash Book (Bank Balance ) up to date
Debit :
Balance as at July 31 $25,699
Note Payable $9,000
Evan Shaw $805
Totals $35,504
Credit:
Check No. 3056 Understated $10
Bank service charge $14
Balance (Up to date) $35,480
Totals $35,504
Step 2 Prepare a bank reconciliation for this company
Bank Reconciliation Statement as of July 31, 2017
Balance at Bank as per cash book (up to date) $35,480
Add Unpresented Cheques :
No. 3031 $1,570
No. 3065 $561
No. 3069 $2,338
Less Lodgements not yet credited ($10,132)
Balance as per Bank Statement $29,817
Which of the following best describes an opportunity cost: Select one: a. it is a relevant cost in decision making, but is not part of the traditional accounting records. b. it is not a relevant cost in decision making, but is part of the traditional accounting records. c. it is a relevant cost in decision making, and is part of the traditional accounting records. d. it is not a relevant cost in decision making, and is not part of the traditional accounting records.
Answer:
a. it is a relevant cost in decision making, but is not part of the traditional accounting records.
Explanation:
An opportunity cost is a relevant cost in decision making, but is not part of the traditional accounting records.
The opportunity cost also known as the alternative forgone in accounting and can be defined as the potential benefit that is forgone when an alternative is selected over another.
For instance, the money and time you spend to go see a movie at the cinema, you can't spend the time reading a book at home and the money can't be spent on something else either.
The opportunity cost can be calculated by using the formula;
Opportunity cost (OC) = FO − CO
where:
FO = Return on alternative forgone.
CO = Return on the option chosen.
Elmdale Enterprises is deciding whether to expand its production facilities. Although long-term cash flows are difficult to estimate, management has projected the following cash flows for the first two years (in millions of dollars): Year 1 Year 2 Revenues 129.5 151.4 COGS and Operating Expenses (other than depreciation) 32.9 65.7 Depreciation 20.4 36.7 Increase in Net Working Capital 2.7 7.4 Capital Expenditures 33.1 40.1 Marginal Corporate Tax Rate 35% 35% a. What are the incremental earnings for this project for years 1 and 2? (Note: Assume any incremental cost of goods sold is included as part of operating expenses.) b. What are the free cash flows for this project for years 1 and 2?
Answer:
a)
incremental earnings year 1 = $49.53 million
incremental earnings year 2 = $31.85 million
b)
free cash flow year 1 = $34.13 million
free cash flow year 2 = $21.05 million
Explanation:
Year 1 Year 2
Revenues 129.5 151.4
COGS & Oper. Exp. (not depreciation) 32.9 65.7
Depreciation 20.4 36.7
Increase in Net Working Capital 2.7 7.4
Capital Expenditures 33.1 40.1
Marginal Corporate Tax Rate 35% 35%
incremental earnings year 1 = (revenues - COGS - depreciation) x (1 - tax rate) = (129.5 - 32.9 - 20.4) x (1 - 35%) = $49.53 million
incremental earnings year 2 = (revenues - COGS - depreciation) x (1 - tax rate) = (151.4 - 65.7 - 36.7) x (1 - 35%) = $31.85 million
free cash flow year 1 = incremental earnings + depreciation - increase in net working capital - capital expenditures = [(129.5 - 32.9 - 20.4) x (1 - 35%)] + 20.4 - 2.7 - 33.1 = $34.13 million
free cash flow year 2 = incremental earnings + depreciation - increase in net working capital - capital expenditures = [(151.4 - 65.7 - 36.7) x (1 - 35%)] + 36.7 - 7.4 - 40.1 = $21.05 million
Year 1 and Year 2 incremental earnings are 49.53 million and 31.85 million respectively. Year 1 and Year 2 free cash flows are 31.83 million and 1.47 million respectively.
Explanation:To calculate the incremental earnings, you need to subtract the operating expenses and taxes from the revenue. Similarly, free cash flows can be calculated as an after-tax profit plus depreciation minus any increase in net working capital and capital expenditure.
For Year 1, the incremental earnings are 129.5 million (revenues) - 32.9 million (COGS and operating expenses) - 20.4 million (depreciation) = 76.2 million pre-tax. After applying the 35% marginal corporate tax rate, the net earnings are 49.53 million.
For Year 2, the calculations yield incremental earnings of 151.4 - 65.7 - 36.7 = 49 million pre-tax. After applying the 35% tax rate, the net earnings are 31.85 million.
To calculate free cash flows, firstly, we find the after-tax profit by multiplying the pre-tax profit by (1 - tax rate). Then, we add depreciation, and finally subtract the increase in net working capital and capital expenditures. For Year 1, the free cash flows are (76.2 * (1 - 0.35)) + 20.4 - 2.7 - 33.1 = 31.83 million. For Year 2, the free cash flows come out to be 1.47 million.
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ay-Zee Company makes an in-car navigation system. Next year, Jay-Zee plans to sell 23,000 units at a price of $350 each. Product costs include: Direct materials $74.00 Direct labor $42.00 Variable overhead $11.00 Total fixed factory overhead $549,200 Variable selling expense is a commission of 6 percent of price; fixed selling and administrative expenses total $97,200. Required: 1. Calculate the sales commission per unit sold. If required, round your answers to the nearest dollar. Use rounded answers in subsequent computations.
Answer:
$21
Explanation:
The computation of the sales commission per unit sold is shown below:
= Selling price per unit × sales commission percentage
= $350 × 6%
= $21
By multiplying the selling price per unit with the sales commission percentage we can get the sales commission per unit and the same is shown above in the calculation part.
All other information is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Mary owns 100 percent of a gift shop with an equity value of $150,000. If she keeps the shop open 5 days a week, EBIT is $75,000. If the shop remains open 6 days a week, EBIT increases to $92,000 annually. Mary needs an additional $50,000 which she can raise today by either selling stock or issuing debt at an interest rate of 7 percent. The principal amount would be repaid at the end of the fifth year. Ignore taxes. What will be the cash flow for this year to Mary if she issues debt, remains open 6 days a week, and distributes all the residual cash flow to the shareholders?
Answer:
$88,500
Explanation:
The computation of the residual cash flow for the year is shown below:
= EBIT - interest
where,
EBIT is $92,000
And, the interest on debt is
= $50,000 × 7%
= $3,500
So the residual cash flow is
= $92,000 - $3,500
= $88,500
We simply deduct the interest on debt from the EBIT so that the residual cash flow could come
When deducting the interest on the debt from the EBIT the residual cash flow could come is = $88,500
Computation of Cashflow
Now, The computation of the residual cash flow for the year is shown below:
Then = EBIT - interest
where,
EBIT is $92,000
And also, the interest on debt is
Then = $50,000 × 7%
Now, = $3,500
So the residual cash flow is
Then = $92,000 - $3,500
Therefore, = $88,500
Then We deduct the interest on the debt from the EBIT so that the residual cash flow could come
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The inventory valuation method that identifies each item in ending inventory with a specific purchase and invoice is the:
a. Weighted average inventory method.
b. First-in, first-out method.
c. Last-in, first-out method.
d. Specific identification method.
e. Retail inventory method.
Answer:
d. Specific identification method.
Explanation:
The specific indentification method relies on the specific categorization of the ending inventory, by attaching the date or purchase and the exact cost to every item of the ending inventory.
As it can be seen, the method is very accurate, because it can give the real value of ending inventory at the end of the year. However, it is also very time-consuming and difficult to keep up with, and for this reason most companies only use this method for items that are valuable, or that can be easily categorized in a specific date and price.
Most companies use other inventory valuation methods like LIFO, FIFO, and weighted average.
At the beginning of 2018, England Dresses has an inventory of $75,000. However, management wants to reduce the amount of inventory on hand to $35,000 at December 31. If net sales for 2018 are forecast at $220,000 and the gross profit rate is expected to be 22%, compute the cost of the merchandise which management should expect to purchase during 2018. (Hint: First compute the expected cost of goods sold.)
Answer:
$136600
Explanation:
Given:
inventory of $75,000amount of inventory on hand to $35,000net sales for 2018 at $220,000gross profit rate: 22%We need to find the gross profit via the given information of net sales and gross profit rate
<=> gross profit = net sales*gross profit rate
= $220,000* 22%
= $48,400
Moreover, Cost of goods sold is = sales - gross profit
<=> Cost of goods sold = $220,000 - $48,400 = $171,600
But Cost of goods sold = opening inventory + purchases - closing inventory
<=> purchases = Cost of goods sold - opening inventory + closing inventory
= $171,600 - $75,000 + ($75,000 - $35,000)
= $136600
Answer:
The cost of the merchandise which management should expect to purchase during 2018: $131,600
Explanation:
Net sales for 2018 are forecast at $220,000 and the gross profit rate is expected to be 22%.
The expected Gross profit = 22% x $220,000 = $48,400
The expected Cost of goods sold = Net sales - The expected Gross profit = $220,000 - $48,400 = $171,600
The cost of the merchandise expected to purchase during 2018 = Inventory on hand at December 31 + The expected Cost of goods sold in 2018 - Inventory at the beginning of 2018 = $35,000 + $171,600 - $75,000 = $131,600
Identify the type of unemployment for the following scenarios:
1) Caroline just graduated from college and is looking for a full-time position with an investment banking firm.
2) Frances is a real estate agent. House sales in her area have declined because the region has been going through a recession. She has no clients and is currently looking for a new full-time job.
3) Antonio recently lost his job as a waiter at a local restaurant. A recent increase in the minimum wage keeps local employers from adding more of the low-skill positions for which he qualifies, so he has been unable to find work. He continues to look for a job, but he's considering going back to school for vocational training.
a) Structural
b) Frictional
c) Cyclical
Final answer:
Caroline's job search represents frictional unemployment, Frances's job loss in a recession is an example of cyclical unemployment, and Antonio's unemployment due to changes in legislation is structural unemployment.
Explanation:
Each scenario described represents a different type of unemployment:
Caroline searching for a job post-graduation is an example of frictional unemployment. This occurs as she takes the time to find a position that matches her qualifications and desires.
Frances, the real estate agent experiencing a downturn due to a recession, is facing cyclical unemployment. This is linked to the economic cycle and temporary downturns in demand within her industry.
Antonio, who lost his job due to a rise in the minimum wage and is considering additional training, is experiencing structural unemployment. This is due to changes in the economic structure that affect the demand for certain skills, such as wage legislation influencing employer hiring practices.
These scenarios are all based on key concepts in understanding the labor market and economic health. Frictional unemployment reflects short-term transitions, cyclical unemployment is tied to economic downturns, and structural unemployment stems from deeper changes in the economy.
The owners of a chain of fast-food restaurants spend $ 25 million installing donut makers in all their restaurants. This is expected to increase cash flows by $ 10 million per year for the next five years. If the discount rate is 6%, were the owners correct in making the decision to install donut makers?
Answer:
yes as it net present value is $24.17 million
Explanation:
In this question we have to find out the net present value which is shown below
(In millions) (In millions)
Year Cash flows Discount rate 6% PV of cash inflows
0 -$25 1 -$25 (A)
1 $10 0.9434 $9.43
2 $10 0.8900 $8.90
3 $10 0.8396 $8.40
4 $10 0.7921 $7.92
5 $10 0.7473 $7.47
6 $10 0.7050 $7.05
Present value $49.17 (B)
Net present value $24.17 (A - B)
As we can see that the net present value comes in positive which means it generated the return in near future so the decision should be yes
Data related to the inventories of Costco Medical Supply are presented below: Surgical Equipment Surgical Supplies Rehab Equipment Rehab Supplies Selling price $ 265 $ 132 $ 352 $ 159 Cost 163 100 252 159 Costs to sell 26 11 32 7 In applying the lower of cost or net realizable value rule, the inventory of surgical equipment would be valued at: Multiple Choice $163. $181.
Answer:
$163
Explanation:
The accounting standard for Inventory under IFRS IAS 2 requires that inventory be recognized at cost which includes all the cost incurred to bring the item of inventory to a state or place where the item of inventory becomes available for sale.
These costs includes cost of purchase, freight, Insurance cost during transit etc.
Subsequently, inventory is to be carried at the lower of cost or net realizable value. The net realizable value is the difference between the cost and cost to sell.
Given;
Surgical Equipment Surgical Supplies Rehab Equipment Rehab Supplies Selling price $ 265 $ 132 $ 352 $ 159
Cost $ 163 $ 100 $ 252 $ 159
Costs to sell $ 26 $ 11 $ 32 $ 7
Net realizable $ 239 $ 121 $ 322 $ 152
Applying the lower of cost or net realizable value rule, the inventory of surgical equipment would be valued at
= $163
You just graduated and landed your first job in your new career. You remember that your favorite finance professor told you to begin the painless job of saving for retirement as soon as possible. You decide to put away $5,000 at the end of each year in a Roth IRA. Your expected annual rate of return on the IRA is 6%. The amount you will have accumulated at retirement after 40 years of investing is closest to:
Answer :
Money accumulated at retirement after 40 year = $773,809.83
Explanation :
As per the data given in the question,
Present value of future deposits = $5,000 ÷ (1+6%) + $5,000 ÷ (1+6%)^2+... +$5,000 ÷ (1+6%)^40
= $75,231.48
Future value of deposit is
= Present value × (1 + interest rate)^number of years
= $75,231.48 × (1+6%)^40
= $773,809.83
Hence, Money accumulated at retirement after 40 year = $773,809.83
Answer:
The answer is $7,73,810
Explanation
Solution
To solve this question, we use a table or tabular form shown below:
Rate (I) Rate per period 0.06
NPER Total no of payments 40
PMT Payment per second $5,000
PV Present Value $0.00
TYPE Ending (0), Beginning (1) 0
Future value $ 7,73,810
(-FV (rate, nper, pmt, pv, type))
There are two closing entries. The first one is to close revenues and expenses to_____. and the second one is to close _____ to Retained Earnings. r
. For this project, assume that an organization has five servers. Server 1 has a TCO of $25,000, Server 2 and 3 have a TCO of $37,000 each, and the remaining two Servers, 4 and 5, has a TCO of $42,000 each. (TCO is the Total Cost of Ownership, the asset value, and includes, the total cost of hardware, software, training support and other costs of maintaining the system.) The servers are not used by internal employees but are used by Web visitors. The total income that all five servers brings in is $5 million a year (equally provided by all five servers). Compute the total asset value for each of the five servers.
Answer:
$5,183,000
Explanation:
Total Asset Value = TCO + Income Server brings each year
Server 1:
Total Asset Value = $25,000 + $1,000,000
Total Asset Value = $1,025,000
Server 2 & 3:
Total Asset Value = 2 x ($37,000 + $1,000,000)
Total Asset Value = 2 x $1,037,000
Total Asset Value = $2,074,000
Server 4 & 5:
Total Asset Value = 2 x ($42,000 + $1,000,000)
Total Asset Value = 2 x $1,042,000
Total Asset Value = $2,084,000
Grand Total = $1,025,000 + $2,074,000 + $2,084,000
Grand Total = $5,183,000
Derby Inc. manufactures a product which contains a small part. The company has always purchased this motor from a supplier for $125 each. Derby recently upgraded its own manufacturing capabilities and now has enough excess capacity (including trained workers) to begin manufacturing the motor instead of buying it. The company prepared the following per unit cost projections of making the motor, assuming that overhead is allocated to the part at the normal predetermined overhead rate of 150% of direct labor cost.Direct material $ 38Direct labor 50Overhead (fixed and variable) 75Total $ 163The required volume of output to produce the motors will not require any incremental fixed overhead. Incremental variable overhead cost is $21 per motor. What is the effect on income if Derby decides to make the motors
Answer:
Income will be higher by $16 per unit
Explanation:
As per the data given in the question,
Direct material = $38
Direct labor = $50
Overhead = $21
Total variable cost = $38 + $50 + $21
= $109
Cost of supply = $125
Income increased per unit = cost of supply - total variable cost
=$125 - $109
= $16
Because the cost of inhouse is lower therefore net income will be more by $16 per unit
For the year ended December 31, 2021, Norstar Industries reported a net income of $920,000. On January 1, 2021, the company had 780,000 common shares outstanding. The following changes in the number of shares occurred during 2021: Apr. 30 Sold 40,000 shares in a public offering. May 24 Declared and distributed a 5% stock dividend. June 1 Issued 36,000 shares as part of the consideration for the purchase of assets from a subsidiary. Compute Norstar's earnings per share for the year ended December 31, 2021.
Answer:
$1.06 per share
Explanation:
The computation of the earning per share is shown below:
Earning per share = Net income reported ÷ Weighted number of outstanding shares
where,
Net income reported is $920,000
And, the weighted number of outstanding shares is
= 780,000 shares + (780,000 shares × 5%) + (40,000 shares × 8 ÷ 12) + (40,000 shares × 8 ÷ 12 × 5%) + (36,000 shares × 7 ÷ 12)
= 780,000 shares + 39,000 shares + $26,667 + $1,333 + 21,000 shares
= 868,000 shares
So, the earning per share is
= $920,000 ÷ 868,000 shares
= $1.06 per share
We simply applied the above formula
Division A makes a part with the following characteristics: Production capacity in units 32,900 units Selling price to outside customers $ 22 Variable cost per unit $ 18 Total fixed costs $ 103,400 Division B, another division of the same company, would like to purchase 15,200 units of the part each period from Division A. Division B is now purchasing these parts from an outside supplier at a price of $20 each. Suppose that Division A has ample idle capacity to handle all of Division B's needs without any increase in fixed costs and without cutting into sales to outside customers. If Division A refuses to accept the $20 price internally and Division B continues to buy from the outside supplier, the company as a whole will be:
If Division A does not agree to the $20 internal transfer price and Division B continues to purchase from an external supplier, the company fails to maximize its overall profit. Division A could sell the parts internally at $20 each, covering its variable cost and contributing to fixed costs and profit.
If Division A refuses to accept the $20 price internally and Division B continues to purchase the parts from an outside supplier at $20 each, the company as a whole will not optimize its overall potential profit. Since Division A has ample idle capacity, it could provide the parts to Division B without incurring additional fixed costs and without impacting its external sales.
Accepting the internal transfer at $20 per unit would still cover Division A's variable cost of $18 per unit, contributing an additional $2 per unit to cover fixed costs and profit. Refusing to do this means the company is effectively paying more for the parts than necessary, and losing the potential profit from intra-company transfers.
Furthermore, setting the transfer price equal to the marginal cost (which is the variable cost per unit) might be theoretically ideal if Division B were the only buyer of the product and the external market didn't exist or wasn't accessible.
However, considering the external market options for both divisions, it would make sense for Division A to agree to the $20 transfer price in this scenario since it is above the marginal cost of $18 and below the external market price of $22, providing a better decision basis for Division B and improving the profitability of the company as a whole.
The exclusive Swink Golf Driving Range has had a standard price of $16.00 per hour. The facility has 30 golfing stations, with average usage of 40%, 9 hours a day, 7 days a week. Morgan Swink, the owner, would like to enhance revenue. He proposes new pricing at $12 per hour on weekdays and $23 per hour on weekends. He estimates that weekday usage will increase to 50% and weekend usage will remain at 40%, even with the price increase. Variable cost is a consistent $3 per hour. Which strategy is better? Total revenue under the current pricing is $ nothing (round your response to the nearest dollar).
Answer:
The strategy of total revenue under new pricing is better because it has $ 972 more than current pricing policy
Explanation:
Total revenue under current pricing per week = Average usage % * Number of golfing station* Price per hour * number of hours per day * number of days per week
= [tex]\frac{40}{100}[/tex] * 30 * $16 * 9 * 7
= $ 12,096
Total revenue under new pricing per week = Weekday revenue + Weekend revenue
= (Average usage % * Number of golfing station* Price per hour * number of hours per day * number of weekdays per week) + (Average usage % * Number of golfing station* Price per hour * number of hours per day * number of weekends per week)
= ([tex]\frac{50}{100}[/tex] * 30 * $12 * 9 * 5) + ([tex]\frac{40}{100}[/tex] * 30 * $23 * 9 * 2)
= $ 8,100 + $ 4,968
= $ 13, 068
A forward contract is described by:_______.
a. agreeing today to buy a product today at its current price.
b. agreeing today to buy a product at a later date at a price to be set
in the future.
c. agreeing today to buy a product if and only if its price rises above the
exercise price today at its current price.
d. agreeing today to buy a product at a later date at a price set today.
Answer:
Agreeing today to buy a product at a later date at a price set today.
Explanation:
Forward contract can be described as a type of contract that exists between two parties. Both parties agree on a specific and defined price to buy and sell their assets at a later date. The specific price agreed upon by the both the buyer and seller is known as forward price.
It is necessary for the buyer and seller to ensure the forward contract is completed before the fixed date to prevent problems that might arise. The advantages of this type of contract include: consistency in the price agreed upon by both parties, downside risks are prevented due to the ability to determine future rate.
An investor is short 3 ABC July 50 call options and 3 ABC July 45 put options. Currently, ABC stock is selling for $47.50 and the investor has a small profit. The investor should consider closing the options position if ABC stock is likely to: (A) remain between $45 and $50 (B) be the target of a takeover bid (C) continue to exhibit low volatility (D) have unchanged earnings per share
Answer:
B. Be the target of a takeover bid.
Explanation:
It is gathered from analysis and in the cause of the risk management involved that it is likely to be the target of a takeover bid.
This investor has put on a Short Combination. The reason for a Short Combination would be the investor expecting the market price of the stock to remain neutral and expects to gain from the premiums received by selling both options. If the investor hears about a takeover bid, chances are that ABC's stock will fluctuate either above or below the 45 and 50 mark which would lead to a loss for the investor. Thus the reason that the investor would likely close both options positions upon hearing such rumors.
Wildhorse Co. purchases a patent for $333,000 on January 2, 2019. Its estimated useful life is 10 years. Prepare the journal entry to record amortization expense for the first year. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.)
Answer:
Debit Amortization expense $33,300
Credit Accumulated amortization $33,300
(To record amortization expense for the first year)
Explanation:
Using the straight-line amortization, the applicable formula is: Cost / Estimated useful life
Amortization = $333,000 / 10 years = $33,300
The accumulated amortization and the amortization expense will be the same in the first year. So, the net book value of the patent is $333,000 - $33,300 = $299,700
n an economy, the working-age population is 400 million. Of this total, 320.0 million workers are employed. 12.0 million workers are unemployed. 56.0 million workers are not available for work (homemakers, full-time students, etc.). 8.0 million workers are available for work but are discouraged and thus are not seeking work. 4.0 million workers are available for work but are not currently seeking work due to transportation or childcare problems. The labor force participation rate in this economy is
Answer: 83%
Explanation:
The Labour Force Participation Rate is a measure that checks the activeness of a nation's workforce.
It is calculated by dividing the segment of the population that are either working or ACTIVELY seeking employment by the total number of working age people in the economy that are not in prison.
It is assumed that unemployed people are Actively seeking employment.
In the above scenario therefore, the active population are,
= (320 million employed + 12 million unemployed )/400 million
The rest of the population are either unavailable for work or not actively seeking employment.
= 332/400
= 0.83
= 83%
The labor force participation rate in this economy is 83%