For the residents of the neighborhood where a new sports facility is located, the additional noise, congestion and crime that occurs in the area is called a:___________.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B. Negative Externality

Explanation:

According to a different source, the options that come with this question are:

A. Positive externality

B. Negative Externality

C. Profit boost

D. Free-market equilibrium outcome

For the residents of this neighbourhood, the additional noise, congestion and crime that occurs in the area would be called negative externalities. Externalities are the costs or benefits that affect a third party that did not choose to incur in a particular cost or benefit. Externalities can be positive or negative. In this case, such externalities are negative because they are consequences of the facilities that the residents would most likely find undesirable.


Related Questions

Nearly ________ percent of all PAC contributions go to the incumbents.

Select one:

a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 70
e. 85

Answers

Answer:

85

Explanation:

PAC stands for by political action committees . And almost all the contributions from all PAC go to the incumbents. However. the exact percentage is 85%. Hence, the correct answer is definitely 85%. And the incumbents are no one else but the holders of the office or post.

During an interview, Sherlock Holmes confesses that his detective skills were based largely on principles of deduction, algorithms, and rules of logic. In other words, Holmes relies primarily on ________ to solve his cases.

Answers

The correct answer is formal reasoning

Explanation: Thought frees itself from direct experience and the child's cognitive structures mature. This means that the potential quality of their thinking or reasoning reaches its maximum when formal operations are fully developed. Presents the hypothetical-deductive reasoning.

Muslim believes that divine judgement after death leads either to heaven or to hell.

A. True
B. False

Answers

Answer: A.True

Explanation:

_______ theory tells us that crime is a result of certain conditions within certain neighborhoods.

Answers

Answer: Cultural deviance theory.

Explanation: A deviance is an action that violates cultural norms such as crime.

Cultural deviance theory explains that crimes arises as a result of behaving in a manner as others in the same location especially as a result of social pressure. Examples of these crimes are robbery, theft, murder, and assault

Liz wants to quit smoking. She consults a therapist, Dr. Jones, who develops a specific treatment plan for her. The treatment involves several components:
(1) modeling and role-playing to help Liz learn how to overcome the urge to smoke in social situations;
(2) sessions in which Liz identified her beliefs and automatic thoughts regarding smoking and learned how to modify those thoughts;
(3) helping Liz change her automatic responses to situational cues that prompted her to smoke.
A. Dr. Jones is probably using __________?
a. systematic desensitization.b. contingency management.c. cognitive-behavioral therapy.d. interpersonal therapy.

Answers

Answer:

c. cognitive-behavioral therapy.                    

Explanation:

           Cognitive behavioral therapy also known as CBT is for short-term treatment  It is a goal-oriented therapy treatment in psychology that takes a hands on and a practical approach towards problem-solving. Its main objective is to change the thinking pattern or behavior of a person which are behind the people's difficulties.

           It improves mental health by focusing on changing cognitive distortions and behaviors.

           In the context, Liz, an active smoker decides to quite smoking and approaches a therapist. The therapist uses cognitive behavioral therapy for her treatment and approaches her treatment accordingly by influencing her cognitive thoughts and behaviors.

Thus the correct option is (c).

Information from higher brain regions is transmitted to the medulla through the
A. corpus callosum.B. hippocampus.C. angular gyrus.D. thalamus.

Answers

Answer:

D. thalamus.

Explanation:

Thalamus, which is a part of the intermediate brain, is a walnut-sized nerve tissue. It is located in the middle part of the human brain. All sensory organs except the sense of smell is located in the thalamus. Behavior for performing a specific job is shaped here. It receives sensory information from brain stem and optic nerves and transmits it to higher brain regions. The outer appearance of the thalamus resembles two bulbs standing side by side. It consists of two identical pieces and the length of each piece is approximately 6 cm. Thalamus occurs in the early stages of embryonic development due to its effect on the senses. The embryo that does not develop in the thalamus region cannot survive. In the same way, a person who suffers damage to the thalamus region will die in a short time. One of the most important features of thalamus is the filter feature on the senses. This feature allows us to classify our feelings according to their importance. It puts the less important senses in the background while highlighting the important ones. In this way, we can concentrate on what we do. The thalamus is one of the most primitive parts of the brain and has a constructive effect on primitive behavior. Behaviors such as anger, fear and violence are controlled by the thalamus. Therefore, damage to this organ to affect these senses may cause psychological disorders. The thalamus controls primitive behaviors and secretes hormones of the adrenaline type resulting from primitive behaviors. The reason for this is to maximize the functionality of the body and to escape from a dangerous environment without harm. When the body encounters a dangerous situation, its movements are restricted by the thalamus. The reason for this is that the person does not act in fear. For example, most people cannot act with fear when they encounter snake species. This is related to the effects of thalamus on primitive emotions.

Agent Sam tells a prospective buyer about a property’s ""beautiful landscaping"" and excellent architecture."" The property is actually quite average. What activity is Sam engaging in?

Answers

Answer:

Active fraud              

Explanation:

         Agent Sam is a real estate property agent and he speaks with a prospective customer about a house. Agent Sam falsely claims that the property has a very beautiful landscape and is magnificent.

         The agent misleads and lure the prospective customer by saying that the building has an excellent architecture whereas in reality the property is average and is not as beautiful as mentioned by the agent.

        Thus the agent is engaging in fraud by misleading the customer and it is an offense. When the customer finds out about the fraud done by the agent, he can sue the agent.

        A fraud is a wrongful deception which is intended for personal or a financial gain.

Agent Sam, by describing a property as having "beautiful landscaping" and excellent architecture when it is actually quite average, is engaging in a practice known as misrepresentation.

This can create false impressions for potential buyers. Misrepresentation in real estate involves making exaggerated or false statements about the features or condition of a property in order to influence a buyer's decision. Often, real estate advertisements may only showcase the most appealing aspects of a property, potentially omitting or hiding less desirable features, like a nearby landfill or factory.

Examples of such practices include not revealing neighborhood drawbacks or highlighting only the positive attributes of an area or structure. This is contrasted with an honest realtor who would present properties aligning closely with a buyer's budget and preferences without undue influence or misrepresentation. An ethical approach would require realtors to disclose relevant information that could affect the property's value or desirability, allowing buyers to make well-informed decisions.

Describe likely differences between gender-typed and androgynous people with respect to the way or the extent to which they might think differently about academic interests and athletic pursuits.

Answers

Gender-typed people and androgynous people differ in several ways when we look at general trends. Gender-typed people are those who fit easily within traditional gender roles. These people tend to suscribe to traditional beliefs of masculinity and femininity, as well as traditional gendered behaviours.

When it comes to academic interests, they most likely believe that subjects such as science and engineering fit males better, while subjects such as English, teaching and art are more "female." When it comes to athletic pursuits, they would most likely identify activities such as dancing with women, while they believe activities such as football and boxing are more "male."

On the other hand, androgynous people have a more fluid and less strict view of gender. They are more likely to believe that all people should be able to engage in particular behaviours. They also tend to believe that women and men are equally skilled at all subjects, and that the path each person choses to follow depends on their personal interests and not on their gender.

this semester we have gone over in detail theories of human nature that managers might assume in trying to understand the worker they manage. Describe ALL three theories. In your view, are they really theories of "human nautre" or are they really descriptions of three kinds of organizations or organizational structure that produce one kind of 'human nautre' or another ? you must justify your answer with examples with either personal experience or reference current events

Answers

The three theories of human nature where we have the first, pessimistic -where the workers work s little as possible and steal ideas given an opportunity Optimistic- Workers are generally satifactory and do not require monitoring.

Which of the following is associated with alterations in cognitive function, psychological distress, and/or psychosis?

1) Insomnia
2) Sleep deprivation
3) Psychostimulant use
4) All of the answers provided are correct

Answers

Answer:4) All of the answers provided are correct

Explanation: All of the answers provided are correct,they all have to do with distortion of a person's sleep.

Insomnia is a condition where a person is unable to sleep,the person lacks enough sleep,which eventually leads toalterations in cognitive function, psychological distress, and psychosis.

Sleep deprivation is a situation where a person deprives himself or is deprived of the needed sleep with can lead toalterations in cognitive function, psychological distress, and/or psychosis.

Psychostimulants are drugs or substances that adversely affects a person by causing sleep disorders and alterations in cognitive function, psychological distress, and/or psychosis.

Final answer:

Insomnia, sleep deprivation, and psychostimulant use all can lead to alterations in cognitive function, psychological distress, and/or psychosis. Each alter's brain function in distinctive ways, thereby impacting mental health.

Explanation:

All the listed options, i.e., Insomnia, Sleep deprivation, and Psychostimulant use, are indeed associated with alterations in cognitive function, psychological distress, and/or psychosis. Insomnia and sleep deprivation can hinder the proper functioning of the brain, affecting cognitive abilities and causing mood swings, irritability, depression, or anxiety. Psychostimulant use, on the other hand, impacts the central nervous system which can result in cognitive impairments, mood disorders, and in severe cases, psychosis. Therefore, the answer to your question is 4) All of the answers provided are correct.

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How does the interaction of language, religion, ethnicity, and gender cause conflict on different scales?

Answers

Answer:

in addition to traditional psycholinguistic training, children with LI may gain from interventions that support concluding behavioural turns, as in aberrant caused conflicts; and in initiating contact in conflict situations, even when a frame of reference is not immediately available, as was the case when opponents have not established social interaction in the pre-conflict period.

One hundred forty-nine middle class individuals (69 males and 80 females), approximately 80% of whom were Caucasian, participated in a study. The study was designed to test the hypothesis that individuals whose gender role and occupation did not match (i.e., feminine individuals in predominantly male occupations or masculine individuals in predominantly female occupations) would experience more gender role conflict than individuals whose gender role and occupation matched. The hypothesis was supported. A feminine gender role predicted higher gender role conflict in predominantly male occupations, and lower gender role conflict in predominantly female occupations than a masculine gender role. A masculine gender role predicted the lowest gender role conflict scores in predominantly male occupations, and the highest in predominantly female occupations. Furthermore, higher masculinity scores were related to greater gender role conflict for females than males in more predominantly male occupations.

Historically, we can see a similar process at work in the relationship between ancient Judaism and early

Christianity. The early Christians built up an image of pagans and Jews as ‘un-Christian’ in part because

there was quite a bit of contact between the three traditions. John Gager has argued that although

hardliners worked hard to generate and enforce a distinction, Christian and pagan interaction with the

Jewish tradition was not solely negative and that many Christians and pagans engaged creatively with

Judaism (Gager, 1985). Similarly, ideas about heresy developed at least in part out of uncertainty about

what it meant to be an orthodox Christian. When we read the texts of earlier periods it seems obvious

that Christians were always arguing amongst themselves about who was a heretic and who held correct,

orthodox belief. But it might not have been that simple. These conflicts may have flared up precisely

because contact was occurring and movement between groups was seen as a real possibility by those

patrolling community boundaries.

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The property is a brick 38 unit apartment building built in 1985. There are 24 two bedroom and 14 one bedroom units on 6 acres. The sellers on the property listing are three brothers who claim to own the property as tenants in common. Your title research, however, indicates that the property was previously owned by the father of the brothers and his sister, Brunhilda, as joint tenants. The father passed away two years ago, and the brothers assumed they inherited their father's share. Brunhilda is alive and living in a neighboring state. The brothers assure you they can validly transfer the property to you by quitclaim deed. You are trying to acquire some development property to add to the apartment property described above. There is a ten acre piece next to the apartment property, but it is zoned Trans-ag 2, allowing a single family dwelling on 2 acres. You would like it to be changed to High Density Residential zoning with a conditional use permit for a day care center on the property. What should you do? Explain your answer carefully.

Answers

Answer:

The first ting to do is to prove that te property would be legally adequate.

Explanation:

The true owners of the property (legally) are the brothers and Brunhilda because she is part of the will. Once the father passed away, the property became of all of the sons, including Brunhilda, this means that if you buy the property and she isn´t part of the deal, she has all the rights to sue you because its hers too.

So, the first thing to do before buying it and building something is to make sure the sell is totally legal.

During a storm in Tornado Alley, a house is destroyed, but its owner Dorothy survives. Dorothy plans to return to the site to salvage her possessions, but she delays. Meanwhile, Elliott combs through the ruins and removes all useful items. Dorothy learns of the recovery and files a suit against Elliott, claiming that the items are hers. Elliott responds that the destroyed house was abandoned and therefore he has good title to whatever he took possession of. What is the court likely to rule, and why?​

Answers

Answer:

According to what has been established by the law, Dorothy would recover all her belongings

Explanation:

According to what has been established by the law, Dorothy would recover all her belongings, due to the fact that she did not abandoned her house at any moment. What happened, was due to a natural event whose control was beyond her reach. Therefore, Elliot should deliver all the objects to its rightful owner.

Final answer:

The court is likely to favor Dorothy over Elliott, as simply delaying salvage efforts does not constitute abandonment of property rights.

Explanation:

In the case involving Dorothy and Elliott, the court is likely to rule in favor of Dorothy, stating that the items removed by Elliott from the destroyed house still belong to her. The concept of abandoned property does not apply as Dorothy's delay in salvaging does not equate to abandonment of her possessions.

It is a common legal principle that property ownership does not instantly transfer when property is lost or left due to a disaster. Instead, the original owner retains the rights to their property unless it is legally declared abandoned, which involves a clear intention to forsake ownership.

Every year The Sprinters' Club, a group for athletes, declares one of its members as the "most outstanding athlete of the year." The title is based solely on performance, and all members vie for it. The power of the club to bestow this title to one of its members is an example of _____ power.rewardreferentlegitimateexpertcoercive

Answers

Answer:

The answer is Reward Power

Explanation:

Reward Power is the power a manager has which is conveyed by giving some type of award to an employee or compliance with one's wishes or achieving company or organisational goals in order to influence the employee to act. It can be done through giving of bonuses, raises, medals, promotion, etc.

It can also be described as a form of power that is based on the perceived ability to give positive consequences or remove negative ones.

In the question, the Sprinters' Club declares one o its members as the "most outstanding athlete of the year" and other members vie for it, this is an example of reward power

What was the main issue in the Supreme Court's Miller v. Alabama decision?

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

The main issue in the Supreme Court decision was that those who committed the crimes were juveniles. It is unconstitutional to sentence juveniles to life terms without paroles because it violates the 8th Amendments prohibition of cruel and unusual punishments, which considered the impact of juveniles’ immaturity, family backgrounds and environments.

Final answer:

The Supreme Court's decision in Miller v. Alabama dealt with the unconstitutional nature of mandatory life imprisonment without parole for juveniles, violating the Eighth Amendment.

Explanation:

Miller v. Alabama Supreme Court Decision

The main issue in the Supreme Court's decision on Miller v. Alabama revolved around the constitutionality of imposing mandatory sentences of life imprisonment without the possibility of parole on juvenile offenders. The court ruled that such harsh sentencing violated the Eighth Amendment's prohibition of cruel and unusual punishments. This landmark decision acknowledged the inherent differences between juvenile and adult offenders and the potential for rehabilitation and change in young individuals.

After you have practiced several times by yourself and then a few times for friends and family, what should you do?A. Stop practicing and forget about your speech until the day that you give it. B. Do a final practice session in which you record and watch yourself give your speech. C. Read through your speech silently a few more times. D. Change a substantial portion of your speech.

Answers

The best option for final speech practice is to record and watch yourself give the speech, which allows you to observe and correct any distracting behaviors and polish your performance. Option B is correct .

After practicing your speech several times alone and then a few times for friends and family, you should pursue a strategy that helps polish your performance and rectify any unnoticed mistakes. The most advisable option based on the information provided would be to do a final practice session in which you record and watch yourself give your speech (Option B).

By doing this, you will be able to observe and correct small behaviors that may distract the audience or affect your grade. You'll notice things like a monotone voice, unnecessary movements, or awkward phrasing that might not be apparent without seeing and hearing yourself as others would.

Practicing by recording yourself provides a valuable perspective that silent reading or small changes cannot offer. Plus, this method gives you a chance to evaluate the timing, pacing, and overall flow of your speech, ensuring you're fully prepared for the actual presentation. Remember, practice doesn’t just make perfect—it's essential for making your actions habitual and natural during your speech.

Who appears to have fathered one or more children with his slave?
a. Benjamin Rush.
b. Thomas Jefferson.
c. Ben Franklin.
d. John Adams.
e. George Washington.

Answers

Answer:

b. Thomas Jefferson.

Explanation:

Thomas Jefferson though consider blacks as biologically inferior, helped many slaves. There are many evidences that proves that after the death of his wife Martha Jefferson he was in a relationship with Sally Hemings a woman of mixed race and they had at-least one or as many as six slaves. Sally remained enslaved by Jefferson until her death and the mystery of Jefferson and Hemings is still open to debate even today.

According to the theory of plate tectonics, 250 million years ago all of Earth’s landmasses were clustered into one supercontinent, known as Pangea. Based on the past and current movements of Earth’s plates, predict how the location of the continents might shift during the next 250 million years. Do you think they’ll spread out, cluster together, or move in a combination of the two? What types of landforms do you anticipate forming as a result? What effect, if any, do you anticipate this movement will have on life on Earth?

Answers

The following can be said about the shifting of continents in the next 250 million years and it’s effects on various factors:As far as the divergent or convergent shifting of the continents is concerned, it can be said that there are possibilities of both the spreading out and the clustering together of the continents. This can be said from the current evidence available of the movement of some continental plates towards and away from each other.The landforms that the spreading out continents would form would be that of sea coasts and the ones formed by clustering together continents would be that of large mountains or plateaus.This movement would not have any major effect on the life on earth as this movement is currently happening at an extremely slow pace.
Final answer:

Plate tectonics suggests that continents will continue to shift over the next 250 million years, spreading out, clustering together, or moving in a combination of the two. This movement can lead to the formation of various landforms and have significant effects on life on Earth.

Explanation:

According to the theory of plate tectonics, the location of continents will continue to shift over the next 250 million years. The movement of Earth's plates suggests that continents will spread out, cluster together, and move in a combination of the two. This is supported by the past movement of continents and the ongoing process of tectonic activity.

As a result of these movements, various types of landforms can form. Examples include mountain ranges forming when two continental masses collide, and rift valleys forming when tectonic plates spread apart, creating a depression in the Earth's surface.

The movement of continents can have significant effects on life on Earth. It can impact climate patterns, alter ocean currents, and lead to the formation of new habitats or the isolation of existing ones. This can result in the evolution of new species, changes in ecosystems, and the reshaping of Earth's biodiversity over time.

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Buta has the latest television and satellite system with integrated computer apps, on-demand technology, and tablet accessibility. She is always first among her friends to adopt new technologies. Which of the following adopter categories best describes Buta?LaggardImpulse purchaserInnovatorEarly adopterEarly majority

Answers

Answer:

Innovator

Explanation:

Innovator:-

Innovator is the person who believes in adapting new things and always tries in innovation. Innovation is defined as the new ideas and the creative thoughts which can be useful to the human kind. It requires better technology, better requirements and enlarging market needs.

In the given question, Buta is a innovator in which he is being involved in new technology and is always adopting new ones.

the correct answer is Innovator.Buta fits the profile of an innovator, as she always adopts new technologies first, showing enthusiasm and willingness to experiment with the latest advancements.

Based on the technology adoption life cycle, Buta is likely categorized as an innovator. Innovators are those who are enthusiastic about new technologies and are the first to embrace them, often before they become mainstream.

They are unconcerned about the cost and are focused on experimenting with the latest innovations. Given that Buta always adopts new technologies and is ahead of her friends in doing so, she fits the profile of an innovator who is excited to try out the newest advancements as soon as they are available.

Curtis finds that his girlfriend is quite uncommunicative this morning. Given what we know about the side effects of extinction, which of the following behavior patterns would we expect Curtis to display?a. an increase in his attempts to communicate with her.b. an increase in emotional behavior.c. an increase in aggression.d. an increase in variability of the behavior.

Answers

Answer:

a. An increase in his attempts to communicate with her.

Explanation:

The term extinction refers to a behavioural phenomenon that takes place in operant and classical conditioning. This describes the fading of non-reinforced conditioned responses over time. This occurs when an operant behaviour that has been previously reinforced no longer produces reinforcing consequences, which leads to the behaviour gradually stopping. However, a side effect of extinction is the sudden and temporary increase in the response, such as in the case of Curtis.

Based on your own experiences, what are some symbols (e.g., letters of the alphabet) people use to communicate?

Answers

Communication can take many different forms, and this is especially true in modern times, as our types of technology have changed the way in which we operate and communicate with one another.

An example of symbols that people use to communicate with each other are emojis. These are images that convey messages without the use of words and are extremely common in modern messages sent through technological devices. Another example of such symbols are road signs. These allow drivers to quickly and efficiently understand a message, which increases safety on the road.

People use various symbols for communication, including letters of the alphabet to form words, hieroglyphs for pictorial writing, and sign language gestures. Modern symbols like emojis and logos also convey specific meanings. Symbols help translate ideas and thoughts into understandable formats.

Based on my experiences, there are several symbols that people use to communicate:

Letters of the alphabet: These are used to form words, which are visual symbols that represent specific meanings. For example, the word 'cat' immediately conjures an image of the animal it represents.Hieroglyphs: These are pictorial symbols used in ancient Egypt to convey sounds, words, or phrases.Sign language: In American Sign Language (ASL), hand gestures represent letters and words, allowing those who are deaf or hard of hearing to communicate.Emojis: These are modern symbols that represent emotions, objects, and ideas in digital communication.Logos: These visual symbols represent brands and organizations and convey specific messages or identities.

Each of these systems of symbols plays a crucial role in human communication, translating thoughts and ideas into easily understandable formats.

The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?

A Kept, because it provides important information regarding the effects of the relationship between King and Gandhi.
B Kept, because it serves to contextualize the social and political environment in which Gandhi operated.
C Deleted, because it contains information that is irrelevant to the main topic of the second paragraph.
D Deleted, because it contradicts the idea that Gandhi relied on nonviolent means to enact social change.

Answers

The correct answer is letter C.

Explanation: In this case the best option is letter C.

Deleted, because it contains information that is irrelevant to the main topic of the second paragraph.

At one large university, a group of education specialists wanted to test the effectiveness of a newly designed academic improvement course. Students seeking academic help at the university counseling center were asked to participate in this 6-week program. Only students who were judged to have deficiencies in reading comprehension and other study-related skills were chosen for the program. Students whose academic problems were judged to be the result of emotional difficulties of one sort or another were not enrolled in the program but were counseled in a manner more appropriate to their problem. A group of 30 students completed the program at the counseling center. A review of grades and teachers' comments revealed that a large majority of the students were doing better in school after completing the program than before. The difference between pre-program and post-program performance measures was statistically significant. Identify TWO major threats to the internal validity of this study as it has been described. For each threat identified explain why there is another plausible hypothesis for the obtained effect other than that based on the effectiveness of the academic improvement course.

Answers

Answer:

One of threats that this study may have is that the gap among students who have deficiencies in reading comprehension are not easily determined or separated from the ones with emotional problems.

Explanation:

Since validity in a research study corresponds to the way in which a conclusion is achieved since a strong basis of knowledge of a certain real fact.

One of threats that this study may have is that the gap among students who have deficiencies in reading comprehension are not easily determined or separated from the ones with emotional problems.

Another threat for the validity of this research project , that also has to do with the first threat, is that the background of the student is not being taken into account for the result of improvement at the end of the study.

In this case it would be necessary to have a deeper understanding of the student's previous improvement, it would be also necessary to have contact with their parents or previous teachers, because for the emotional conclusions of the first sample selection, it is necessary to take into account that most of the times children are afraid to express their feelings and previous experiences.

The two major threats to the internal validity of the study on the academic improvement course are maturation and selection bias. Maturation refers to the natural development and changes that could occur in students over time regardless of the program, questioning whether progress was due to the program or just the students' growth. Selection bias might be present because only students with specific academic deficiencies were chosen, so improvements may not be solely attributable to the program but rather to the population selected.

Regarding maturation, over a six-week period, students could experience natural improvements in academic skills as they progress in their coursework and adapt to educational demands, suggesting another hypothesis for observed advancements. The program's timeframe overlaps with regular academic progress, possibly conflating the program's effects with typical student development. Selection bias occurs when participants are not randomly selected, leading to a group that isn't representative of the entire population. In this case, the students selected for the program all had specific deficiencies in reading comprehension and study skills, which could mean that they were particularly prone to benefit from any targeted intervention. Hence, the significant improvements may not be generalizable, challenging the notion that the improvement course was exclusively responsible for their enhanced academic performance.

Lena wonders why her son’s preschool teacher provides extensive playtime in learning centers instead of formallessons in literacy and math skills. Explain to Lena why adult- supported play is the best way for preschoolers todevelop academically? What research findings indicate that child centered rather than academic preschools andkindergartens are better suited to fostering academic development?

Answers

Answer:

Playtime in learning centers improve social and learning skills for the kids.

Explanation:

Kids that are in preschool are in their most important learning phase and growing. Studies have shown that playtime in learning centers are moreeffective for them than fromal lessons in literacy and math skills because they help kids to develop their social and learning skills.

Twin studies suggest that a strong influence on emotional stability comes from:________

Answers

Answer:

The answer is- genetic predisposition

Explanation:

The correct question should be "twin studies suggest that a strong influence on emotional instability comes from____"

Twin studies suggest that a strong influence on emotional instability comes from genetic predisposition.

Twin studies are studies which are conducted on identical or fraternal twins and they aim to reveal the importance of environmental and genetic influences for trait phenotypes and disorders.

Genetic predisposition is an increased likelihood of developing a particular disease or trait based on a person's genetic makeup. It results from specific genetic variations which are often inherited from a parent. It influences possible phenotypic development of an individual organism within a species or population under the influence of environmental conditions.

Therefore a strong influence on emotional instability in twins come from genetic predisposition

Final answer:

Twin studies, particularly the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, demonstrate that genetics play a significant role in determining emotional stability, as identical twins show similar personality traits regardless of their upbringing.

Explanation:

Twin studies suggest that a strong influence on emotional stability comes from genetics. The renowned Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart demonstrated that identical twins have very similar personalities whether they were raised together or separately. This includes traits such as a sense of well-being and resistance to stress, which contribute to an individual's emotional stability. The study highlighted the significant role of heritability in personality traits, indicating that genetics could account for more than 50% of the variation in these characteristics.

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Which of the following statements about cognitive mapping is correct?
The research on cognitive mapping is generally high in ecological validity.

Answers

Answer:

The research on cognitive mapping is generally high in ecological validity.

tasks made using any recorder can be edited in the task editor ture or false

Answers

The answer is True

Explanation: The Task Editor can be used to edit existing tasks created by various recorders.

What test items are determined by the Program Management Office that is developing the system?

Answers

The correct answer is Critical Technical Parameters (CTPs)

Explanation: They are developed and coordinated by: The Independent Operational Test Agency.

The name given to postiions of power and authority like chariman and policeman often emphasize the male gender. why does this matter?

Answers

Answer:

According to the question's description, any job that prefers a particular gendered person suitable for that position is signified with a particular name .For example any male is considered suitable for a job that is regarded with the chairman, watchman etc.

Names that are specifically given to a job's designation defines about that particular male or female is the best suited to perform the particular work and responsibility as compared with the other gender.

Derrick was very excited about college as a freshman. His biggest concern was fitting in. During his first semester, he was introduced to the social game of "beer pong" and found that being a member of the dorm team helped his gain acceptance. Now Derrick enjoys "beer pong" every weekend. So far, there have been no negative consequences. How would you classify this behavior or the basis of what you know?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: Substance use.

Explanation:

Substance use can be described as the individual's use of certain substances that have certain physiological and psychological effects.

These substances are commonly known as drugs and they come in a variety of types. Human beings all over the world use drugs both medically and recreationally.

Certain drugs are legal and others are illegal, and its use can be problematic or non-problematic.

Substance use becomes problematic when the normal functioning of the individual gets impaired and leads to adverse consequences to his well being, both physically and mentally.

In this particular case, Derrick's use of alcohol is yet to be problematic because so far there have been no negative consequences to his substance use.

In conclusion, Derrick's behavior can be classified as a non-problematic substance use.

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