Answer:
Dehydration synthesis deals with the combination of two molecules, or compounds, with the loss of water to form a large molecule (macromolecule). This process uses up energy.
Hydrolysis, the opposite of dehydration synthesis, is a chemical process that degrades another molecules with the aid of water to form a molecule with a different make up. This process gives energy. Organic hydrolysis pairs water with neutral molecules, while inorganic hydrolysis combines water with ionic molecules.
Hydrolysis degrades the raw nutrients in the macromolecules such as protein etc., dehydration synthesis consumes raw nutrients to build up this macromolecules .
Answer: Dehydration synthesis is the process involved in making macromolecules
Explanation: Macromolecules are polymers, they have smaller subunits known as monomers that are joined together by bonds to create one single unit, the Macromolecule. The process involved in this creation is the dehydration synthesis reaction in which the monomers are linked with the loss of water. These reactions can be described based on the energy macromolecule formed and from with monomers are involved in the linking. Example, carbohydrates from monosaccharides, proteins from amino acids and fatty acids from acetyl-CoA
Adaptive radiation can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the exception.
a) vacant ecological niches
b) genetic drift
c) colonization of an isolated region that contains suitible habitat and few competitor species.
d) evolutionary innnovation
e) an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms (such as plants) that another group uses as food
Answer: Option B.
Genetic drift.
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation is the fat evolution of several species from a common ancestors, when a change in environment make available new resources or create new opportunities. It is characterized by ecological and morphological diversity. The factors or conditions that lead to adaptive radiation are colonization of an isolated that contain suitable habitat and few competitors species, evolutionary innovation,adaptive radiation in a group of organisms that another group use as food and vacant ecological niches.
Genetic drift is not a direct consequence factor of adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is a process that occur in small population which is due to change in allele frequencies of a population due to certain occurrences. In this case few of the population can separate from the entire or the whole population is reduced, hence it is not a direct consequences of adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is the exception among the listed factors because it does not actually lead to or is not associated with adaptive radiation which usually occurs when a change in the environment makes new resources available or opens new environmental niches.
Explanation:In the context of evolution, adaptive radiation is a process where organisms diversify rapidly into a multitude of new forms, particularly when a change in the environment makes new resources available, creates new challenges, or opens new environmental niches. The factors that can lead to adaptive radiation include vacant ecological niches (option a), colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitats and few competitor species (option c), evolutionary innovation (option d), and an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms that another group uses as food (option e). However, genetic drift (option b) does not lead to adaptive radiation because it refers to random changes in the frequencies of alleles in a gene pool, which is not necessarily aligned with adaptation or the filling of ecological niches.
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Energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs requires three stages. The energy extracted from fuels is converted to ATP.
Select the statements that are true for the different stages required for energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs. In the first and second stages the majority of ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
a. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
b. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
c. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and no ATP is produced.
d. In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
e. In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
The energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occurs in three stages. The accurate statements describing these stages are: a) In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced; d) In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced; e) In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
Explanation:The processes of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occur in three stages. The statements that accurately describe these stages are as follows:
Statement a: In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. During the third stage, namely oxidative phosphorylation, most of the oxidation occurs and some ATP is produced directly.Statement d: In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. This stage, known as digestion, involves breaking down complex macromolecules into simpler monomers. During this process, some ATP is produced.Statement e: In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is also true. The second stage, named glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, involves the breakdown of monomers, usually glucose, into pyruvate. Small amounts of ATP are produced in this stage.Therefore, statements a, d, and e accurately represent the stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs.
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According to the question, Statements b, d, and e are correct.
The three stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs involve the breakdown of macromolecules to monomers with small ATP production, the conversion of monomers to acetyl-CoA with further small ATP production, and the complete oxidation to CO2 and H2O with most ATP production. Statements b, d, and e are correct.
The process of energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs through respiration involves three stages:
Stage I: Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are broken down into their individual monomer units such as simple sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids. A small amount of ATP is produced during this stage. (d is correct)Stage II: The broken-down monomer units are further processed through metabolic pathways to form a common end product, acetyl-coenzyme A (CoA). A small amount of ATP is also produced during this stage. (e is correct)Stage III: Acetyl-CoA is completely oxidized to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). During this stage, most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced. (b is correct). NADH and FADH, produced in earlier stages, participate in the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, which results in the majority of ATP production.Most cells are quite small. Limits on cell size are related to limits on the rate of movement of "good stuff in" and "bad stuff out" across cell membrances. Movement rates are greatly influecnced by the surface area-to-volume ratio
Answer:
Hi
The cell size ranges between 0.3 μm for the smallest and 100 μm for the largest. The lower limit of the sale given by the minimum volume necessary to house all the biochemical machinery that is essential to maintain the vital state. The upper limit is explained by understanding the extent to which the size of the affected cells increases the surface/volume ratio and the effectiveness of the exchange of substances with their environment, which is important for cell nutrition.
Explanation:
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP ) is a biological oxidant involved in the oxidation of testosterone to estradiol.
True/false
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
NADP does not convert testosterone to estradiol. This oxidation is done by a steroid 17-a-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase.
This oxidation is essential for stability of hormone: it helps to regulates the elevation of Testosterone in women,subduing the manifestation of male sexual characteristics,
and
for preventing autoimmune diseases.
The oxidation involved two basic steps of reaction, controlled by two different enzymes.
NADP is a Co- factor, when in reduced form( NADPH) is used in Calvin cycle, of light independent reaction of photosynthesis, and in Nucleic acid and triglycerides synthesis.
It has nothing to do with conversation of Androgen( testosterone to Estradiol.
Glucagon excess may also be as important as insulin insufficiency of diabetes. Glucagon: Stimulates lipolysis. Stops the release of amylin. Increases somatostatin production. Decreases ghrelin levels.
Answer: Glucagon stimulates lipolysis and decrease ghrelin levels.
Explanation:
Glucagon is an hormone that is secreted in the pancrease which convert stored glycogen to glucose that is released in the blood. High blood glucose increase insulin levels. Too much of glucagon can cause diabetes. Glucagon stimulate lipolysis which provide fatty acids to tissues to be use as fuel. Glucagon decrease the ghrelin levels. Glucagon stimulates amylin secretion.
_______________ are performed to assess the adequacy of the amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle and thus indicate the presence or absence of heart disease. The top number on a blood pressure reading is _______________; the bottom number on a blood pressure reading is _______________.
Answer:
STRESS TEST
SYSTOLE
DIASTOLE
Explanation:
A standard exercise stress test employs an EKG (electrocardiogram) to watch closely any variation in the heart's electrical activity, the heart valves, the activities of the heart muscle, if the heart does not have shortage of blood flow during exercise and to study how heart functions when undergoing physical activity.
Diastole and systole are two levels of the cardiac cycle. They are seen during heart beats function as it pumps blood using a collection of blood vessels that transports blood to each and every singular part of the body. Systole is produced during contraction of the heart to pump blood out, and diastole is produced during relaxation of the heart when it contracts.
Let's consider, 120/80 mm Hg. The up figure stands for the level of pressure in the arteries when the heart muscle contracts --- systolic pressure. The below figure stands for blood pressure as seen when the heart muscle is between beats--- diastolic pressure.
Answer:
Stress Test
Systole
Diastole
Explanation:
Stress Test is a medical test the determines the heart potentiality to reply to external stress in a controlled observed environment. The stress response can be triggered or evoked by exercise. Stress Tests are performed to assess the adequacy of the amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle and thus indicate the presence or absence of heart disease. During this test, a device known as Electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to measure and record the electrical activity of the heart.
The top number on a blood pressure reading is Systole because during this period, it is a period of contraction, therefore the heart muscles are contracting thereby ejecting blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
The bottom number on a blood pressure reading is Diastole because it is a period of relaxation of the heart muscle. Here, three coronary arteries surrounds the heart whereby the heart receives blood. When these arteries are clear, amount of blood moving into the heart muscle is supplied in adequate proportion. The heart muscles receives little blood and oxygen during low blood pressure level. This is caused by some certain event (e.g exercise) where the heart beats faster and as the heart beats faster, the heart rate drops in level and started to increase and the diastolic pressure decreases. This is what results to little amount of blood and oxygen that is received by the heart muscles as being said earlier.
Based on your understanding of nucleic acids, what type of bonds form between the CRISPR/guide RNA molecule and the target DNA? What type of bonds would an enzyme such as Cas9 affect?
Answer: Hydrogen bonds
Explanation: The CAS9 enzyme affect the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate backbone of the PAM sequence in the target DNA
The type of bonds form between the CRISPR guide RNA molecule and the target DNA Hydrogen bonds. The CAS9 enzyme affect the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate backbone of the PAM sequence in the target DNA.
What is nucleotides bases?The base pairing between nucleic acid strands (either DNA or RNA) is through hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases. In DNA, Adenine always forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine, while Guanine always forms three hydrogen bonds only with Cytosine. Moreover, adjacent nucleotides in the same strand are covalently linked by phosphodiester bonds.
The CRISPR/Cas9 genome editing systems make use of single-guide RNAs (sgRNAs) that interact with DNA through hydrogen bonds. These sgRNAs have perfect complementarity to the target DNAs in order to bind them. On the other hand, Cas9 is an enzyme that hydrolyzes phosphodiester bonds in both DNA strands very precisely and accurately by using a sgRNA complementary to a specific DNA sequence.
Therefore, The CAS9 enzyme affect the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate backbone of the PAM sequence in the target DNA.
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Draw one of the positively charged amino acids. Indicate whether you would expect to find it on the surface of or buried in a globular protein.
Answer:
COO-
|
H3N+ ------C -------H
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
+NH3
Lysine (positively charged amino acid)
It is present on the outside of a globular protien.
Explanation:
Formula of lysine:
C6H14N2O2
Globular proteins are folded such that their tertiary structure consists of the polar, or hydrophilic, amino acids arranged on the outside and the nonpolar, or hydrophobic, amino acids on the inside of the three-dimensional shape. This arrangement is responsible for the solubility of globular proteins in water.
As lysine is a positively charged polar / hydrophilic amino acid , it is arranged on the outside of the globular protien.
Which of the following best describes the natural process that occurs during malting?
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
B) living plant begins to decay
C) flower produces seeds
D) fruit transported by other animals
Answer:
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
Explanation:
Malting is a process of growth and drying that causes a change in the structure of cell walls, proteins, and starch granules. The process entails the steeping to increase the moisture content required for germination process, to modify the kernel and to dry it.
Malting is the process of a seed growing into a new plant. It involves soaking, germination, and drying of cereal grains in controlled conditions. This activates enzymes that convert starches into sugars.
option a is correct
Explanation:The natural process that occurs during malting is when a seed begins to grow into a new plant. Malting is a process of germinating cereal grains, such as barley, under controlled conditions.
During the malting process, the grains are soaked, allowed to germinate, and then dried. This process activates enzymes in the grain, which convert starches into sugars that can be used by the developing plant.
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The fact that being homozygous recessive for the CCR5 receptor protects people from being infected with HIV, thus causing an increase in the recessive CCR5 allele, is an example of
Answer:
Positive natural selection
Explanation:
Positive natural selection is fundamental to adaptive evolution and it is characterized by its ability to be passed on, that is heritable, and beneficial to a population.
Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? steroid hormone synthesis stores steroid hormones stores calcium forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus In liver cells, it contains detoxifying enzymes.
Answer: D - forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus
Explanation:
The function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum(SER) varies, depending on cell type.
1. SER is important in the synthesis of lipids, such as cholesterol and phospholipids, which form all the membranes of the organism. In some cells, such as those of the adrenal gland and certain other endocrine glands, it plays a key role in the synthesis of steroid hormones from cholesterol.
2. In the liver, enzymes in the SER catalyze reactions that render drugs, metabolic wastes, and harmful chemicals water-soluble, thereby contributing to their detoxification, or removal, from the body. The SER also plays a role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose, with glucose-6-phosphatase, an enzyme present in SER, catalyzing the final step in glucose production in the liver.
3. In skeletal muscle cells, SER occurs as a specialized membrane structure known as the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a critical storage site for calcium ions, taking up the ions from the cytoplasm. It also releases calcium ions when the muscle cell is triggered by nerve stimuli, resulting in muscle contraction. In this way, the sarcoplasmic reticulum helps regulate calcium ion concentrations in the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is also found in smooth muscle cells, though in a more loosely organized form than in skeletal muscle.
Answer:
The SER does not form transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus.
Explanation:
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum carried out varries functions such as the synthesis and storage of steroid hormones, the regulation of calcium by sequestering it. SER also contains detoxifying enzymes that detoxifies a wide range of drugs and poisons.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not form transport vessicles but it is the rough endoplasmic reticulum that does, because the RER is the site for protein synthesis and then it's transport to the golgi apparatus and other destinations.
Amniotes produce eggs that contain fluids that bathe the embryo during gestation..
a True
b. False
Answer: a) true
Explanation: The fluid inside the egg helps in the survival of embryo and maintain fluid environment.
Answer:True
Explanation:
Ambitious have a protective covering called amnion this serves as a protective coat while developing . It contains amniotic fluid and it as been said that some of the fluid are found in the developing embryos and its also aisds there movement . The fluid contain protein and some minerals
A basic truth of inheritance that had been known well before Darwin's time was that Select one: a. Offspring inherit genes from their parents. b. selective breeding improves domesticated plants and animals c. Offspring frequently resemble their parents AND they inherit genes from their parents d, Offspring frequently resemble their parents.
Answer: d. Offspring frequently resemble their parents.
Explanation: Before Darwin's postulation on evolution, Lamarck talked about the inheritance of characteristics from parents to Offsprings. That is, Phenotypically, and genetically Offspring resembles the parents.
Final answer:
A fundamental truth of inheritance before Darwin's time is that offspring often resemble their parents, encompassing the concept that traits are passed down through generations. Darwin's Theory of Evolution iterates that along with resemblance, inheritable genetic variation is critical to natural selection, influencing survival, reproduction, and potential species evolution over time.
Explanation:
A basic truth of inheritance known well before Darwin's time was that offspring frequently resemble their parents. This acknowledges the fact that most characteristics of an organism are inherited, though the specific mechanics of inheritance were not understood until later. During Darwin's era, breeders already used artificial selection to improve domesticated plants and animals, exploiting the fact that offspring could inherit certain beneficial traits. Darwin extended this concept to natural populations, proposing that natural selection acts upon variations so that individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on these favorable variations to their offspring.
Through observing artificial selection, Darwin knew that offspring can exhibit chance variations which could be inherited. Moreover, the fitness of an organism, determined by its ability to survive and produce fertile offspring, is a primary factor in natural selection. Both artificial and natural selection can lead to changes in species over time, with natural selection potentially resulting in new species emerging from accumulated changes.
The cornerstone of the Theory of Evolution is the observation that offspring not only resemble their parents but that they inherit genes - the units of inheritance - from them. This principle is supported by centuries of observable evidence from selective breeding and the study of natural populations. Consequently, Darwin's Theory of Evolution is fundamentally grounded in the inheritability of traits and the natural variation within a population, which natural selection acts upon to drive evolutionary change.
Identify true statements regarding DNA. Check all that apply.
(1) It constitutes our genes.
(2) It is copied into RNA that is then passed on to future generations.
(3) It assembles amino acids in the right order to produce each protein.
(4) It gives instructions for synthesizing all of the body's proteins.
Answer:
(1) It constitutes our genes.
(4) It gives instructions for synthesizing all of the body's proteins.
Explanation:
DNA stores the genetic information in its nucleotide sequence. It carries the information to code for all the proteins present in the organisms. The nucleotide sequence of DNA serves as a template for synthesis of RNA which in turn is translated into the proteins. In this way, DNA molecules instruct for the synthesis of proteins with specific amino acid sequences. A gene is a DNA segment that codes for a particular polypeptide. Therefore, all the genes are made up of DNA.
DNA constitutes our genes and provides the instructions for synthesizing all body proteins. However, it does not assemble amino acids directly to form proteins, nor is it directly copied into RNA and passed onto future generations.
Explanation:Among the four statements provided about DNA, the following three are true:
It constitutes our genes. DNA is the hereditary material in humans and most other organisms. Most DNA is located in the nucleus, and a small amount can be found in the mitochondria.It is not directly copied into RNA that is then passed onto future generations. DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, which further undergoes translation to form proteins. This RNA is not passed on to future generations, only DNA is.It does not directly assemble amino acids to produce each protein. However, it carries the genetic instructions for the sequence of amino acids required to build a specific protein. The actual assembling of amino acids is done by the ribosomes, using the instructions translated from DNA to RNA.It gives instructions for synthesizing all of the body's proteins. The information stored within DNA sequences is like instructions, and these 'instructions' determine the type of protein to be synthesized.Learn more about DNA here:https://brainly.com/question/32215555
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In the shotgun approach to whole-genome sequencing (shotgun sequencing), random DNA fragments of a chromosome are sequenced. The fragment sequences are then assembled into a continuous sequence that represents the DNA of the entire chromosome.
Remainder of question from another source:
What are the steps in the shotgun approach to whole-genome sequencing?
PLACE IN ORDER
A. 1-kb fragments are cloned into plasmids.
B. Chromosomes copies are broken into 1-kb fragments
C. The plasmids are sequenced.
D. Multiple copies of the same chromosome are prepared.
E. A computer combines the fragments sequences.
Answer:
DBACE
Explanation:
First, multiple copies of an entire chromosome are created (D). Then, the chromosome is fragmented into lots of pieces approximately 1kb in length. These pieces will contain overlapping sequences (B). Next, the newly created 1kb fragments will be cloned into plasmid vectors (A). The plasmids containing the DNA fragments are then sequenced (C), and the sequence is combined and aligned by a computer, aided by the fact the fragments are overlapping (E).
Study the cladogram below. Which statement is true regarding the organisms on the cladogram?
Group of answer choices
The salamander has lungs, but not claws or nails.
These organisms do not have a common ancestor.
The salmon is more closely related to the hamster than the lizard.
The chimpanzee is more closely related to the salamander than the lizard.
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
In the answer choices A. is the only one that matches the cladogram.
Suppose a newborn baby was accidentally mixed up in the hospital. In an effort to determine the parents of the baby, the blood types of the baby and two sets of parents were determined. Baby 1 had type O Mrs. Brown had type B Mr. Brown had type AB Mrs. Smith had type B Mr. Smith had type B .
a. Draw Punnett squares for each couple (you may need to do more than I square/ couple)
b. to which parents does baby # I belong? Why? Hint you may want to refer to your Punnett squares.
Answer:a. Draw Punnett squares for each couple (you may need to do more than 1 square/ couple)
Baby 2 MUST belong to the Browns because Mr. Brown is the only parent with an A allele to
contribute… then the rest works out as follows:
b. To which parents does baby #1 belong? Why? Hint you may want to refer to your Punnett
squares.
Baby 1 must belong to the Smiths, because they are the only ones with the possibility of EACH
having a recessive allele to pass down to the baby, Mr. Brown has type AB blood and therefore
only has the dominant A and dominant B alleles – no recessive allele possible.
Explanation:
Baby I belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Smith.
Individuals Blood type Genotype Parents Name
Baby I O Smith Smith
Mrs. Brown B Bi
Mr. Brown AB AB
Mrs. Smith B Bi
Mr. Smith B Bi
The Punnett squares
[tex]\begin{matrix} & B & B \\ B & BB & \\ & & \end{matrix}[/tex] [tex]\begin{matrix} & B & B \\ B & BB & BB\\ i & Bi & Bi\end{matrix}[/tex]
[tex]\begin{matrix} & B & i \\ B & BB & Bi\\ i & Bi & ii\end{matrix}[/tex]
Since, baby I have O type of blood group, so the baby should have 'i' alleles from both parents. This can be true only when both the parents of the baby I have 'i' allele in their genotypeThus from the Punnett square diagram, we can say that baby I belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Smith.
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In anabolic reactions that involve the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller precursor molecules, NADH and ATP are __________ when they provide the needed electrons or energy. a. Consumedb. Formed c. Degenerated d. Oxidized
Answer:
a. Consumed
Explanation:
Anabolic reactions mostly require the input of energy to form the complex molecules by binding the simpler ones together. Hydrolysis of ATP release the energy which is used during the anabolic reactions. Similarly, anabolic reactions mostly require an electron donor and NADH serves as the same. For example, glucose synthesis from CO2 is an anabolic pathway. It consumes the energy of ATP and uses NADPH as an electron donor. NADH is used during the synthesis of membrane lipids such as Plasmalogens.
A "Cuckold bee" is a common term to describe several different kleptoparasitic lineages in Apoidea.
True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In biology or animal behavior, the term cuckold refers to the act of invading a strange net. The term might be applied to different species that parasite other species. A very well known example is the cuckoos bird.
The Cuckold bees or cuckoo bees are many parasitic species belonging to the Apoidea taxon that characterize for invading nests of other bees.
Females lay their eggs in the cells of the host nest. Depending on the species, the intruding female might kill the owner larvae of the cell, or the emerging parasitic larvae is the one that can destroy the host using their highly developed mandibles as weapons.
As they develope, foreign larvae feed on the foodstuffs that the female owners of the nests bring for their own offspring.
The term 'Cuckold bee' is true for describing kleptoparasitic bees in the Apoidea superfamily that lay their eggs in other bees' nests.
Explanation:The statement "A Cuckold bee is a common term to describe several different kleptoparasitic lineages in Apoidea" is True. The term 'Cuckold bee' is often used to describe the behavior of certain bees that lay their eggs in the nests of other bees, thereby having their offspring raised by the host bee.
This is indeed a form of kleptoparasitism, as the parasitic bee exploits the host both for its nest and the resources collected by the host bee, without providing any benefit in return. This behavior is exhibited by various lineages within Apoidea, which include bees, wasps, and ants.
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How do the stages of mitosis and meiosis occur in a specific order and never alternate.
Answer:
The cell divides by the two main process known as mitosis and meiosis. The somatic cells divide by the process of mitosis and germ cells divide by the process of meiosis.
The cell follows the sequential pathway - prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. This specific order follows because the cell cycle have various check point at each stage of the cell cycle. The cyclins and cdk's regulate the transitions from one stage to another stage of the cell cycle. If the cell correctly passes these transition without any defects in the cell.
1. How many different combinations do you think are possible for a cell like ours with 3 pairs of chromosomes using only random alignment?
Answer:
Eight
Explanation:
The arrangement of chromosomes shall be governed by the principle of independent assortment which allows each chromosome to assort independently. If we follow the general rule of pairing, the number of chromosome pair formed depends of the number of different types of chromosome denoted by “n”. Total number of chromosome pair would be 2 raised to the power n. Therefore, if n is equal to three, then total eight pairs would be formed.
For instance if (P, p), (Q,q), (R,r) are three set of chromosomes, then the eight pairs would be as follows –
• P Q R
• P Q r
• P q r
• P q R
• p Q R
• p Q r
• p q R
• p q r
Rabbits, turtles, fish, humans, and whales all share certain characteristics but also differ from each other. All of these species have cells with nuclei. Other characteristics that all of these organisms share is the fact that they must consume plants and/or other organisms to get their energy.
A. What level(s) of classification do all of these organisms share?
The levels of organisation are
Domain: Eukarya
Kingdom Animalia
Phylum :Chordata
Explanation:
They all share these levels of organisation because;
for the Domain Eukarya, they have;
→multi-cellular cells containing nucleus; and other membrane bound organelle.e.g Mitochondrial.
→their DNA located in the nucleus packaged as linear chromosomes bounded by histone proteins.
→mode of reproduction which is sexual.
They share Kingdom Animalia because;
→they have multi-cellular, specialised cells, bounded by plasma membranes.
→they have specialized tissues, organs, and system.
→they all undergo heterotrophic mode of nutrition as evident in the question 'that they must consume plants and animals as source of energy'
→they exchanged communication by nervous ssytem and
→ use homeostatic mechanisms to regulate water balance of the body through the kidney.
→Humans,Rabbits,and whales are VIVIPAROUS; they give birth to young ones alive.
→Most fishes lay eggs to reproduce, they are said to be Ovoviviparous.
They belong to phylum Chordata because ;
→they all have noto chord; which serve as template for axial skeleton.
dorsal hollow nerve cord -template for the brain and spinal cord
→pharyngeal slits- templates for gill aches in bony fishes and components of inner ear in land animals.
→ tail length varies in these organisms.
An individual who shows similar symptoms or trends of metabolic syndrome but are in an acceptable body fat range could be also be called (select all that apply):
Answer:
Unmotivated, Skinny fat, mentally obese physically normal
Explanation:
If you could measure the resting metabolic rate of the following animals, which would most likely have the lowest mass-specific (or relative) metabolic rate?
A. 100 Kg Horse
B. 100 Kg Shark
C. 10 g Mouse
D. 10 g Fish
The horse and mouse are endotherms among them rat will have high mass-specific metabolic rate.
The shark and fish are endotherms among them fish will have high mass-specific metabolic rate.
Explanation:
The endotherm (heat requires in them to maintain internal temperature of the body) organism have high metabolic rates to maintain homeostasis, this requires the large amount of energy. Smaller animals have the greater surface area to volume ratio, hence more heat loss and higher metabolism. In larger animals body volume increases, surface area increase is also very slow, hence less heat loss and lower Metabolic rate. Smaller animals exchange oxygen to tissues at a high rate.
Same goes with ectotherms the larger the animal the smaller is the metabolic rate. During winters their activity slows down as they cannot adjust with the temperature of the surrounding.
However metabolic rates of ectotherm and endotherm cannot be compared.
The organism that will have the lowest mass-specific metabolic rate is the 100 kg shark.
Metabolic rates simply refer to how sugar is broken down to keep the cells of an organism running. Different organisms have different metabolic rates.
It should be noted that bigger animals have lower metabolic rates As the body volume of an organism increases, the surface area increases slowly. From the organisms, the 100 kg shark will have the lowest metabolic rate.
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Which of these is not a connective tissue? Adipose tissue Bone Blood Ligaments No exceptions; all of these are connective tissues
Answer: All of these are connective tissue
Explanation:
Answer: All of the mentioned are connective tissue.
Explanation:
Connective tissues are tissues that form matrix under the epithelial layer,they binds, connects and support other tissues or organs. Connective tissues are found between every other tissues in the body. The types of connective tissues are adipose tissues,cartilage, bone, collage,elastic fiblre, reticular fibre, lymphoid tissue,bonemarrow,ligaments and lymphatic. Connective tissues also function in transmitting substances around the body.
50 points Please help
Discuss the importance of oxygen to all living organisms, and describe how three different organisms—human, flatworm, and fern—obtain the oxygen they need
Answer:
Hey hope this helps.
Explanation:
It allows the process of respiration to occur. For humans we inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide. For the flatworm it does the same it inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide. Now for a fern since it is a plant it can not take in oxygen it can only release it. This happens through photosynthesis. It is where plants take in the carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
Oxygen helps the organism to grow, reproduce and get energy from the food through cellular respiration.
Human inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide through the process of respiration.
Flatworm also take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide.
Fern being a plant, takes up carbon dioxide to perform photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct.
Why oxygen is important?Animal requires oxygen for the growth and reproduction as cells die in absence of oxygen.
To get energy from food, oxygen is requires as a terminal electron acceptor for cellular respiration.
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Why might different cells of the same organism have cell cycles of different durations?
Answer:
Cell cycles:
The amount of time or the duration of time required to complete the development and maturation of the body cells. As the parent cells are present less in number and then through the process of cell division the cells divides and forms more like itself.
Explanation:
Duration of the cell cycle:
From the initial point to the last by means of the maturation of a single, there is a sequence or chain of phases through which the cell passes and they develop into a more complex form. But, some phases requires more time then the rest of the phases.
But, there is a difference in the duration of various phases during the development of cells of the same body, as they require time to complete certain tasks, as most of the time the focus is on the cell's proliferation rather then regulating the cell cycle. As different cell phases needs different duration's or timing to complete there growth.For example, during the different phases of the cell growth, there are various proteins involved and for that reason during each phase of the cell growth we analyze the dislocation of certain enzymes and protein. And obviously some of them needs to be produced first and then used by the cells so, it do takes some time to complete the whole process in general.Final answer:
Different cells of the same organism have cell cycles of different durations due to factors such as cell type, function, developmental stage, and various regulatory mechanisms. Division frequency can vary from hours in embryonic cells to never in mature neurons or heart cells, and is influenced by internal checkpoints and external signals.
Explanation:
Cells within the same organism have cell cycles of varying durations due to numerous factors including the cell type, function, stage of development, and internal and external regulatory mechanisms. For example, in humans, embryonic cells may divide every few hours, while epithelial cells usually require two to five days, and specialized cells like cortical neurons or cardiac muscle cells may never divide again once they reach maturity. Furthermore, conditions such as the presence of growth-promoting hormones or cell crowding can also influence the length of the cell cycle.
The control of the cell cycle is an intricate process that involves both internal checkpoints and external signals, which coordinate the correct timing of cell growth and division. For instance, cells may receive signals to divide in response to the death of nearby cells or the release of hormones, and conversely, dense crowding of cells can inhibit cell division. Hence, the cell cycle length is tailored to the specific needs and context in which the cell operates, reflecting the complexity and adaptability of biological systems.
The rapid inward diffusion of Na+ followed by the outward diffusion of K+ produces a rapid change in the membrane potential of a neuron called ____.
Answer: depolarization
Explanation:
On depolarization, the sodium gates in the neuron membrane closes after sodium ions flow inside, while potassium gates open causing potassium ions to flow out and reestablish the original resting potential of the membrane.
The rapid change in membrane potential from resting to action potential is DEPOLARIZATION
Aniridia is a type of blindness due to a single dominant gene. Migraine headache is the result of a different dominant gene. A man with aniridia, but normal headaches whose mother was not blind, marries a woman who suffers from migraines and has normal vision but whose father did not have migraine headaches. What is the expected proportion of their children that would have both aniridia and migraines together
Answer:
[tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] = 25%
Explanation:
Aniridia is a type of blindness due to a single dominant gene---- Let Aniridia allele be A
Migraine headache is the result of a different dominant gene----- Let Migraine allele be M
Let normal headache allele be h
Let normal vision allele be v
If A man with aniridia, but normal headaches i.e Ah marries a woman who suffers from migraines and has normal vision i.e Mv
What is the expected proportion of their children that would have both aniridia and migraines together?
The punnet square for this cross is shown below as:
A h
M AM hM
v Av hv
The offspring traits are as follows (AM, hM, Av, hv)
AM----- Aniridia and Migraine
hM------ normal headache and Migraine
Av------- Aniridia and normal vision
hv------- normal headache and normal vision
The expected proportion of their children that would have both aniridia and migraine together is [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] = 25%
Final answer:
With aniridia and migraines being dominant genetic conditions, and each parent carrying one dominant gene for one condition, the expected proportion of their children having both conditions is 25%.
Explanation:
The question asks what the expected proportion of children inheriting aniridia and migraines, both dominant conditions, would be when a man with aniridia but without migraines marries a woman with migraines but without aniridia.
Because aniridia and migraines are each caused by dominant genes, we can denote the gene for aniridia as 'A' (with 'a' being the normal gene) and the gene for migraines as 'M' (with 'm' being the normal gene). The man has genotype Aa (since his mother didn't have aniridia, he must have one normal 'a' gene), and the woman has genotype Mm (since her father didn't have migraines, she must have one normal 'm' gene).
To determine the expected proportion of their children having both conditions, we can draw a Punnett square. The possible genotypes of the offspring would be AM, Am, aM, and am. Each of these genotypes has a 1 in 4 chance of occurring. Since both conditions are independent and due to different genes, the probability of a child having both aniridia and migraines is the product of the individual probabilities, 1/2 chance for aniridia (A from the father) and 1/2 chance for migraines (M from the mother), which gives us 1/4 overall probability.
Therefore, the expected proportion of their children having both aniridia and migraines would be 25%.
The N-H bond in ammonia is polar because
A: nitrogen occupies more space than hydrogen.
B: hydrogen is much more electronegative than nitrogen.
C: it is a hydrogen bond.
D: it is an ionic bond.
E: nitrogen is much more electronegative than hydrogen.
Answer:
The N-H bond in ammonia is polar because the nitrogen is more electronegative than the hydrogen.
Explanation:
The nitrogen atoms in a molecule of ammonia is more electronegativity than the hydrogen atoms thus making it a polar molecule.
Answer: Option E.
N-H bond in ammonia is polar because nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen.
Explanation:
Ammonia is a compound that contain nitrogen and hydrogen. It has a trigonal pyramidal i shape, the three hydrogen atoms and one nitrogen atom are covalently bonded together. The nitrogen atom is more electronegative and it attracts more electron to itself. The nitrogen atom is slightly negative and the hydrogen atoms are slightly positive, there is unequal sharing of electrons between the nitrogen atom and hydrogen atoms due to high attraction of electrons to nitrogen atom, this is what is refer to Polar molecule. A polar molecule I a molecule with unequal sharing of electron between the atoms.