Final answer:
To assess hydration status, weighing before and after exercise, monitoring saliva production, and observing the color of urine are effective indicators. Physical changes in the body as a response to dehydration trigger thirst and involve ADH in regulating kidney function.
Explanation:
When it comes to assessing hydration status, certain indicators can provide valuable information. The correct statements regarding how to assess hydration status are:
Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration due to changes in body water content.Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration, signaling a decrease in serous output and an increase in thicker mucus, resulting in a dry mouth sensation.Dark urine can be an indicator of a water imbalance, as the kidneys concentrate or dilute urine based on the body's hydration levels.These methods are part of a broader understanding of dehydration and hydration management. Dehydration occurs when water loss exceeds intake and is signalled by physiological responses such as increased blood osmolality, which triggers the thirst response. Also, the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays an essential role in the regulation of body water levels by signaling the kidneys to recover water from urine.
The correct options are : a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can be used to detect overhydration and dehydration. b. Reduced saliva production can be an indicator of dehydration. c. Dark urine can be an indicator of water imbalance.
a. Weighing the body before and after exercise can indeed be used to detect changes in hydration status. A decrease in body weight post-exercise suggests a loss of fluids, indicating dehydration. Conversely, an increase in body weight could suggest overhydration, especially if the weight gain is rapid and significant.
b. Saliva production is dependent on adequate hydration. When the body is dehydrated, one of the first responses is to conserve water, which can lead to reduced saliva production, resulting in a sensation of dry mouth.
c. Urine color is a common indicator of hydration status. Dark urine often indicates a concentrated urine due to less water being available to dilute the waste products, which can be a sign of dehydration. Conversely, very light or clear urine can be a sign of adequate hydration or even overhydration.
Option d, None of these, is incorrect because it negates the validity of the other statements, which are accurate indicators of hydration status.
The physical fitness standard is associated with the lowest fitness requirements for maintaining good health.True / False.
Answer:
I think that is False. Hope its right
Final answer:
The statement that the physical fitness standard is associated with the lowest fitness requirements for maintaining good health is False. Good health requires a well-rounded fitness level with diverse components, and regular physical activity leads to improved fitness and numerous health outcomes.
Explanation:
The statement 'The physical fitness standard is associated with the lowest fitness requirements for maintaining good health' is False. At least a minimal level of physical fitness is essential for carrying out daily activities without being physically challenged. However, good health is not merely the absence of disease or the lowest level of fitness, but it involves a well-rounded level of fitness that includes aspects such as cardiorespiratory endurance, muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility, and body composition.
Engaging in regular physical activity can lead to improved physical fitness, which is a significant health outcome. Research, like the systematic review by Fogelholm (2010), has shown a correlation between physical activity and decreased mortality, morbidity, and disease risk factors. Therefore, it's crucial not to settle for the 'lowest fitness requirements,' but instead to engage in at least 30 minutes of moderate physical activity, for a minimum of three days per week to reap significant health benefits.
A positive correlation indicates that there are indeed health benefits to the variable under investigation, like the increased physical activity. These benefits are not just limited to disease prevention but also to enhancing the quality of life and potentially extending life expectancy. For those who are insufficiently active, an increase in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity can result in greater relative gains in benefits compared to those already meeting the guidelines.
The ability of the body to resist infection from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, damage from foreign substances and harmful chemicals is known as
The body's ability to resist infection and damage from foreign substances is referred to as the immune system. This system comprises cells, tissues, and organs such as white blood cells, which play a significant role in combating pathogens.
Explanation:The ability of the body to resist infection from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, damage from foreign substances, and harmful chemicals is known as the immune system. The immune system defends the body from invading substances and is made up of a network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to protect the body. For example, white blood cells are one of the body's main defenses against disease-causing microorganisms, capable of identifying and destroying pathogens. The strength and efficiency of the immune system can be influenced by factors including nutrition, stress, exercise, and sleep.
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The body's ability to resist infections and damage from foreign substances is known as the immune system. It consists of nonspecific innate immunity and specific adaptive host defenses. Through physical barriers and internal defenses, such as inflammation and secretion of immune factors, the body defends itself against pathogens.
Explanation:The ability of the body to resist infection from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, damage from foreign substances, and harmful chemicals is known as the immune system. It can be described as two interrelated parts: nonspecific innate immunity and specific adaptive host defenses. Part of the immune system is the physical and chemical barriers which act as the first line of defense.
The skin, for instance, acts as a continuous, impassable barrier to potentially infectious pathogens. Not only do physical barriers deter pathogens, but the body also deploys internal defense mechanisms when pathogens enter the body, such as inflammation, pathogen engulfment, and secretion of immune factors and proteins.
Despite the body’s powerful defenses, it is important to mention that pathogens may sometimes overcome these mechanisms. Hence the immune system must continually adapt and respond to the ever-evolving threats of pathogens. The immune system’s ability to protect the body is crucial in maintaining overall health.
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Mei-Ling and Stefon have to give a presentation together. They disagree about what should be the main points of the presentation and begin to argue. After much disagreement, Mei-Ling suggests that they each make a list of points they like and don't like about each other's ideas. Then, they combine the liked points from each of these lists and make them into the main points of the presentation. Which type of conflict resolution did Mei-Ling use?
The correct answer is; negotiation and compromise.
Further Explanation:
Since Mei-Ling and Stefon both had a disagreement on the main points, it was going to be an issue to continue with the presentation. Mei-Ling did the best thing in the situation and negotiated with Stefon and then came to a compromise.
When someone negotiates a deal, they try and reach a compromise that will satisfy both parties. In this case, they made lists of things they disliked and things they liked. They both compromised and combined the lists of things they both liked and included this into the presentation. By doing this, there were no hard feelings, both had their points heard, and the presentation went forward with no further issues.
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Answer:
C on edge!
Explanation:
Janis wants to keep a clean home so she can have friends over. Although cleaning isn't the most enjoyable activity to her she discovers something interesting: when she sweeps the kitchen she then feels like putting more effort into cleaning the rest of the day. How might we describe this in psychological terms
Answer:
This can be described as a commitment.
Explanation:
From a psychological point of view, we can say that when Janis swept the kitchen's floor, she committed herself to have a clean house so that she can invite her friends. She is directing her activities to reach a goal and is easier because after sweeping the kitchen she is mentally predisposed to reach her goal of keeping the house clean.
Which of the following is a common exclusion in a medical expense plan:_______
A. Loss due to an accident
B. Minor surgical procedure
C. Office visit expense
D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Answer: D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Explanation:
Medical expense plan includes the finance which can be used for health related emergency like accident, surgery, implantation, and pregnancy. The medical expense plan also covers drugs and medicine prescription, arrangement of equipment like stunts, wheelchair, eyeglasses and others required for medical treatment.
Worker's compensation is a kind of medical insurance that provides benefits to the workers who are suffering from job related hazards, injuries and illnesses. It is excluded from the medical expense plan.
Final answer:
A common exclusion in a medical expense plan is loss due to Workers' Compensation.
Explanation:
In a medical expense plan, a common exclusion is loss due to Workers' Compensation. Workers' Compensation is a type of insurance that provides benefits to workers who suffer injuries on the job and is separate from a medical expense plan.
This exclusion exists because Workers' Compensation insurance covers work-related injuries separately, so they are not typically covered under a medical expense plan.
For example, if a person gets injured while working and is eligible for Workers' Compensation benefits, their medical expenses related to the injury would be covered by the Workers' Compensation insurance, not the medical expense plan.
People with an eating disorders can seek professional help to overcome their disorder or can wait until the disorder goes away on its own.
a. Trueb. False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Eating disorders are a range of psychological conditions that cause unhealthy eating habits to develop. They might start with an obsession with food, body weight, or body shape.
In severe cases, eating disorders can cause serious health consequences and may even result in death if left untreated.
Those with eating disorders can have a variety of symptoms. However, most include the severe restriction of food, food binges, or purging behaviors like vomiting or over-exercising.
Although eating disorders can affect people of any gender at any life stage, they're most often reported in adolescents and young women. In fact, up to 13% of youth may experience at least one eating disorder by the age of 20.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Tissue growth by cells dividiging in response to a normal demand, such as callus formation on our hands when we work hard, is called_____________.
Answer:
hyperplasia
Explanation:
Cellular adaptation refers to the ability of the cell to change in order to respond to any changes that occur in the environment. Oftentimes, the changes are adverse. The adaptations can be seen in different situations such as hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia or dysplasia.
We will focus on hyperplasia.
Hyperplasia- this refers to an increase in tissue size as a result of an increase in the number of cells. There are two types of hyperplasia, the physiological and the pathological. Callus formation is a physiological type of hyperplasia because the growth occurs only in the epithelial cells and the growth is not abnormal. The callus is formed because it tries to protect the injured site. An abnormal growth of cells signals a pathological hyperplasia.
Physiological Hyperplasia is the term for normal tissue growth by cell division in response to a demand, such as callus formation from hard work.
Explanation:The tissue growth you're referring to, where cells divide to meet a normal demand, such as the formation of a callus when we carry out hard work, is known as Physiological Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia, in general, is a term that refers to the multiplication of cells leading to the enlargement of a tissue or organ. The 'physiological' part means it happens as a normal response to a stimulus, not due to a disease setting. In the case of a callus, for example, the skin cells in our hands divide more than usual to add extra protection against the physical demand posed by the hard work. This is a protective mechanism by the body.
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which form of managed care restricts providers to caring for individuals who are memebers of theri organization?
Answer: Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
Explanation:
The answer is Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) which is in contrast with Preferred Provider Organization (PPO), Point of Service Plan (POS), and Exchange Provider Organization (EPO).
This type of managed care restricts providers to caring for individuals within its organization.
Health Maintenance Organization provide a wide range of comprehensive health care services for the benefits of its members usually in exchange for a fixed periodic payment which could be monthly or even annually depending on the prearrangement.
In this type of managed care, the Health maintenance Organization coordinates all the basic health care of their members.
Answer:
Health maintenance organization (HMO)
Explanation:
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a network or organization that provides health insurance coverage for a monthly or annual fee. An HMO is made up of a group of medical insurance providers that limit coverage to medical care provided through doctors and other providers who are under contract to the HMO.
A high school soccer player sustained five concussions before she was told that she should never play contact sports again. After her last injury, she began experiencing episodes of double vision. She was told that she had most likely incurred damage to which cranial nerve?a) V (Trigeminal)
b) VI (Abducens)
c) IV (Trochlear)
d) VII (Facial)
Answer:
VI (Abducens).
Explanation:
Cranial nerves may be defined as the nerves that controls the sensory and motor functions of the neck and head. These nerves emerge directly from the brain and are 12 in number.
Abducen is the sixth cranial nerve that helps in the movement of the lateral rectus muscle and also responsible for the outward gaze. This nerve work as somatic efferent nerve. This nerve also effects the vision of an individual and results in double vision.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Answer:
B. VI (Abducens)
Explanation:
Abducens cranial nerve supports movement of the eye laterally. Any damage to the nerve can cause double vision.
Place the following events in the order in which they occur during sound transmission. 1. Tympanic membrane vibrates. 2. Internal ear fluids are set in motion. 3. Hearing receptors are stimulated. 4. Ossicles of the ear vibrate. 5. Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Answer:
The correct order of events in sound transmission is 1, 4, 2,3 5
Explanation:
1. Tympanic membrane vibrates.
4. Ossicles of the ear vibrate.
2. Internal ear fluids are set in motion.
3. Hearing receptors are stimulated.
5. Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Sound is received by external ear or pinna that travels into the ear canal and causes the eardrum or tympanic membrane to move. The tympanic membrane vibrates with sound waves. Sound vibrations move through the ear bones or ossicles to the cochlea and cochlea moves due to sound vibration. Fluid movement causes the hair cells to move. As hair cells move up and down, electrical signals is generated. The auditory nerve sends electrical signal to the brain, which turns it into a sound.
The order of events during sound transmission is: Tympanic membrane vibrates, Ossicles of the ear vibrate, Internal ear fluids are set in motion, Hearing receptors are stimulated, and Auditory cortex is stimulated.
Explanation:The transmission of sound occurs in a sequential order. The events listed occur in the following order:
Tympanic membrane vibrates: Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane, causing it to vibrate.Ossicles of the ear vibrate: The vibrational energy is then transferred to the ossicles of the ear.Internal ear fluids are set in motion: The moving ossicles stimulate the oval window of the cochlea, setting the internal ear fluids in motion.Hearing receptors are stimulated: The moving fluid in the cochlea stimulates the auditory receptor cells or hair cells.Auditory cortex is stimulated: These receptors then convert the mechanical energy into electrical nerve impulses which are sent to the auditory cortex of the brain for sound perception.Learn more about sound transmission here:https://brainly.com/question/30763237
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Hans Selye’s definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the ________.A best action to take in order to eliminate the stressorB body’s baseline reaction to ordinary eventsC body’s physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on itD mental health of the individual
Hans Selye's definition of stress focuses on the body's physiological reaction to any demand.
Hans Selye's definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body's physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on it.
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Hans Selye characterized stress as the body’s physiological response to any demand placed on it. Stress triggers automatic physical changes, such as an increased heart rate, which is why this ability is termed as a response-based definition.
Explanation:Hans Selye’s definition of stress is considered a response-based definition because it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body’s physiological reaction to any demand that is placed on it. According to Selye, stress arises when the body has to respond to challenging or dangerous situations. For example, if someone is threatened, their body might release adrenaline to prepare for a fight or flight response. This definition focuses on physiological changes, like increased heart rate or blood pressure.
This response to a stressor automatically happens without conscious thought and affects both one's physical body and mental state. This is why it is called a response-based definition. Other types of definitions might focus instead on the psychological effects of stressors or the events that cause stress.
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Which vitamin is added to enriched grains and cereals in order to reduce the risk of birth defects?
Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:
Folic acid is a Vitamin B. It is the vitamin that helps to make new cells in the body, it helps to reduce the birth defects related to brain and spine thus must be taken by the pregnant mothers.
The foods enriched with cereals, breads and other grains, dried beans, green vegetables, nuts and dried beans are the sources of folic acid.
The physically inactive person should train around the ______ intensity during the first weeks of training.
Answer:
The correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
Explanation:
A physical inactive person is a person who is not getting enough physical inactive as per recommended level. This type of person is needed to have extra intense physical exercise with aerobic exercise.
The American Heart Association recommends to the physically inactive person to train around 30 to 40 minutes of intense thrice or four times for the first weeks of training. It helps in developing cardiovascular health in an individual.
Thus, the correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
A client's increase in biceps strength from performing dumbbell curls is evidence of which fitness principle?
Answer:
The correct answer is specificity principle
Explanation:
General physical fitness is necessary for participating and playing any game but to improve a particular skill which is required in a particular game the principle of specificity comes into play.
For example, a weight lifter will do specific training to improve its muscle strength like lifting heavy weights while a cross country runner will focus on endurance training than improving muscle strength and power.
So increasing biceps strength by performing dumbbell curls is the example and evidence of specificity principle.
Which of the following is true of the thermic effect of food (TEF)? Group of answer choices The amount of energy associated with TEF is independent of the amount of food consumed. Fatty foods have higher TEFs than high-protein foods. TEF is estimated to be about 50–75 percent of total energy intake. TEF is the cost associated with the body's utilization of the foods a person eats.
Answer: TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Explanation:
The thermic effect of food, is the energy needed for digestion, absorption and removal of waste product of metabolism.That is the value of energy spent which is above the basal metabolic rate from the cost of utilization of the food by the body,
It is highest in protein, lowest in fat,about 10% of total energy intake,it varies with the type of food consumed.
Therefore the correct answer is ;TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
The primary somatosensory cortex interprets incoming somatic sensory information such as touch or temperature. Different areas of the body have a higher density of sensory receptors and in turn a higher proportion of the primary somatosensory cortex dedicated to it. Which body region would you expect to have the highest density of sensory receptors?
The body region you would expect to have the highest density of sensory receptors and a higher proportion of the primary somatosensory cortex dedicated to it is the face and fingers.
What are sensory receptors?Sensory receptors are specialized cells that detect and respond to stimuli from the environment, such as light, sound, pressure, temperature, and chemicals. These receptors are activated by stimuli, which trigger a nerve impulse that is sent to the central nervous system.
The central nervous system then processes the information and generates an appropriate response. Sensory receptors are found in various parts of the body, such as the skin, inner ear, eye, nose, and tongue. They are specialized for specific types of stimuli and vary in their sensitivity, distribution, and structure. Sensory receptors play a crucial role in our perception of the world and allow us to respond to our environment by enabling us to see, hear, touch, smell, and taste.
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Which of the following is a true statement?
a. Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles.
b. Estrous cycles are not controlled by hormones.
c. All mammals have menstrual cycles.
d. The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
e. Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles.
Answer: A) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
Explanation:
The endometrium can be defined as the inner layer of the epithelium. It along with the mucous membrane forms the covering of the mammalian uterus. It is the basal and functional layer of the uterus. This layer thickens and then shed during the menstruation cycle in humans and in some other mammals including the apes, monkeys, bats and elephants. But the endometrium layer is reabsorbed in the estrous cycle.
A chemical substance can travel from lungs to the brain in __________.a. five to eight seconds b. about a minute and a half c. about the same time as when injected sub-Q d. one-half second or less
Answer:
Five to eight second.
Explanation:
The living organisms are made of the chemical. The hormone, receptors and any information that travels in the body are mainly depends on the chemical substances present in the body.
Chemical substance needs to be travel in the body whenever its require. The speed of the chemical substance depends upon its nature whether the substance is polar or non polar and at the site in which the substance is released. The chemical that travels from the lungs to the brain can travel maximum into 5 to 8 seconds.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Which of the following is NOT a maternal benefit of breastfeeding?
a. Minimizes postpartum blood loss
b. Helps uterus return to nonpregnant size
c. Delays return to fertility
d. MAY help lose weight more quickly
e. All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Answer:
E - All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Explanation:
Breastfeeding is the feeding of newborns and young ones with milk from the breast of the mother. It provides the ideal nutrition for infants as it contains an almost perfect combination of vitamins, fat and protein required for a baby to grow and develop.
Although it is a personal choice, It is usually recommended by gynecologist to be done exclusively for 6 months after giving birth.
It has many benefits for both mother and child and all the options listed above (from A-D) can be considered maternal benefits of breastfeeding.
You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye?
A. right eye: superior oblique left eye: superior rectus
B. right eye: superior rectus left eye: superior rectus
C. right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus
D. right eye: superior rectus left eye: inferior oblique
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The right eye plus the inferior oblique left eye and superior rectus.
Kayla's therapist first taught her mindfulness meditation so she could focus on the present. Then, Kayla and her therapist talked about events in Kayla's past that led to her current problems. Now her therapist is teaching her to have self-respect and to think for herself. Kayla is probably being treated for ___________.a. borderline personality disorder.
b. depression.
c. antisocial personality disorder.
d. OCD.
Answer:
I would say the correct answer is B. depression.
When you have depression, it's hard to focus and stay present since you're so wrapped up in your thoughts. In addition, depression is very related to self care and self respect, which is why Kayla is working on self-respect with her therapist.
Sorry it's a bit late, but I hope this helps.
To reduce the risk of neural tube birth defects in infants, the mother-to-be should consume adequate amounts of __________ prior to conception.
Answer:
Folic acid.
Explanation:
Vitamins are the important chemicals compounds required in the body in the adequate small amount. Their deficiency in the individual might cause a characteristics disease.
The proper vitamins and diet supplements are necessary for the pregnant woman. Their deficiency can cause abnormal development of the offspring. The folic acid is a type of the vitamin B and its deficiency may be responsible for the neural tube defects in the child.
Thus, the answer is folic acid.
A 10-month-old child has been brought into the emergency room (ER) by her parents, who state that after few days with low-grade fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea, their child presented with a "barking" cough and increased work of breathing. What condition is this child likely exhibiting?
Answer:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
Explanation:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) can be described as a type of infection of the respiratory tract which is caused by a virus. Due to this, swelling inside the trachea occurs in children which leads to the symptoms associated with barking. Heavy cough and strained voice are characterized in this condition. Fever and flu are also common in this condition.
Hence, we can see that the child represents all the symptoms of Laryngotracheobronchitis.
Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?
a. Skinfold caliper measurement
b. Bioelectrical impedance
c. BMI measurement
d. Hydrostatic weighing
Answer:
d. Hydrostatic weighing
Explanation:
Body fat percentage is the most reliable indicator for establishing the ideal weight of a person, but it is also the most difficult to measure. Generally, a man with more than 25% body fat is considered obese. The percentage is increased to 30% in the case of women.
There are different formulas to calculate the percentage of body fat, but unlike other methods such as BMI or waist circumference, which can be calculated easily, this percentage is difficult to measure accurately. For this, different solutions can be used:
One of them, hydrostatic weighing, consists in weighing the person under water, although this technique is complex and can only be carried out by laboratories that have the necessary equipment.
What type of study compares self-reports of physical activity with rates of illness and mortality?
Answer:
Epidemiologic study (analytics)
Explanation:
Epidemiologic study is a study that focuses on the occurrence of a phenomenon in a representative population or sample. It is based on observation of facts and their variations.
DESCRIPTIVE: analyzes the distribution of the phenomenon as a function of time, place and the characteristics of people through it to identify possible risk factors and its origin and mode of propagation. It raises hypotheses.
ANALYTICS: seeks to identify the relationship between the phenomenon and various factors or conditions to which it may be attributed behavior and distribution. Tests hypotheses of causal relationship between exposure factors and events.
Why is acute pain said to be protective in nature?
A) It enables the person to increase personal strength.
B) It warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
C) As a subjective experience, it serves no purpose.
D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Answer: D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Explanation:
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Acute pain is said to be protective in nature because it warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
Which is a potentially life-threating condition found during the primary triage survey that would necessitate priority nursing care?
Answer: Concussion
Explanation:
Primary triage survey is done as a part of the initial assessment of an injured person. It is to check the injuries, stability of the vital organs, and the mechanism of injury.
Concussion can be the first finding of the primary triage survey. It will be visible on the head. It results in the brain injury. The effects can be temporary or severe. The person may loose memory, coordination and may lead to coma.
Which of the following foods or drinks would be best to consume immediately following exercise such as resistance training
a) fiber-rich carbohydrates, such as whole-grain bread, and legumes and other vegetables
b) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
c) lean proteins, such as lean meats, poultry, fish, and legumes
d) None of these
Answer:
The correct option is B) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
Explanation:
Our body stores carbohydrates in the form of glycogen. During exercise sessions, the glycogen stored is converted into glucose. Glucose is the main energy source of the body and is used to produce ATP by cellular respiration.
After exercise,the glycogen storage in the body gets lowered. Hence, to store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen we need to intake simple carbohydrates such as a sports drinks, fruits etc to compensate.
Carlos has a family history of premature heart disease and stroke. To lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, Carlos should:______A) Increase his intake of trans fat.B) Take medication to increase his blood pressure.C) Stop smoking sigrats.D) Increase his intake of vitamin k.
Answer: C. Stop Cigarette Smoking
Explanation:
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases and stroke and for the fact that there is a family history of heart disease and stroke, it means that smoking cigarettes is going to raise the possibility of coming down with heart diseases and stroke therefore cessation of cigarette smoking will be key in lowering his risk of coming down with those diseases.
As regards other options, increase in fat intake is a direct risk factor for atherosclerosis which can lead to heart diseases and stroke.
Taking medication that can increase his blood pressure will be entirely negative to his health and increased intake of vitamin k really has nothing to do with health conditions in question
During the elementary school years, children grow an average of ________ inches a year.A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 4
D. 4 to 5
Answer: I think it’s B!!!!!
Explanation: