Explanation:
A medical assistant's scope of practice generally does not include these duties: Independently perform telephone triage (medical assistants are not legally authorized to analyze and interpret data or diagnose symptoms). Independently diagnose or treat patients. Inject collagen.
Hydrothermal processes are probably responsible for the formation of ____ ore deposits than other processes
Answer:
Answer is more.
Explanation:
The formation of minerals and various rocks through the action of water at high temperature and pressure with the mind of creating or bringing about changes in the earth's crust is described as the hydrothermal process.
This process brings about the formation of more and large various mineral resources. This is because, the largest single crystal formed in nature or ever created by man are both through hydrothermal processes.
If a male genotype is Tt and the female genotype is TT, then what are the phenotypic ratios for tall and short corn?Phenotype :a. short b. all tallc. tall d. all short
Answer:
The correct answer is b. all tall
Explanation:
If the genotype of one parent for height is Tt and another parent is TT then after the fusion of gamete all the offspring will show tall phenotype because all the offspring will have at least one allele of tall character.
T t
T TT Tt
T TT Tt
So after cross two phenotype would be homozygous dominant for tall character and the other two will be heterozygous dominant for tall character. Therefore all the offspring would be tall.
Answer:
The correct answer is b. all tall
pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a human disorder that causes gradual deterioration of the muscles. Only boys are affected, and they are always born to phenotypically normal normal parents. Due to the severity of the disease, the boys die in their teens. Is this disorder likely to be caused by a dominant or recessive allele
Answer: recessive allele
Explanation:
The fact that it affects boys only it shows that its inheritance follows X-linked recessive pattern.
The sex chromosome for male is XY and for female XX
.Therefore. the disorder is on the X=chromosomes of the father. Y chromosomes are smaller than X and weak, therefore they can not bear the allele of the disorder.
However.if a female inherited the allele of the disorder from the father. she can pass this trait to her son during fertilisation,
Tropical rainforests have high species richness of trees. Provide the most reasonable explanation why animal species richness is also high in tropical rainforests?
Tropical rainforests are biodiversity hotspots with high species richness due to their ideal climate for plant growth, complex vertical stratification providing varied habitats, and unique evolutionary histories across global regions. The diverse tree species and associated plant life, like epiphytes, in turn support a wide variety of animal life.
The high animal species richness in tropical rainforests is closely linked to the exceptional diversity of trees and complex forest structure. The net primary productivity of these ecosystems is amplified by ideal annual temperatures and precipitation levels, fostering rapid plant growth and producing a multitude of habitats within the forest's unique stratification. This stratification, which includes the forest floor, understory, canopy, and emergent layers, supports a wide array of plant, fungal, and animal life, such as epiphytes and arboreal animals, facilitating a high level of biodiversity.
Tropical rainforests, though occupying only about 7% of the Earth's land surface, house over half of the world's species. These areas are hotspots for biodiversity due to their extensive biodiversity, the result of a large global distribution and distinct geological histories that have enabled species to evolve in isolation across different regions like South and Central America, Africa, Asia, and Australia.
After age ______ or so, the total calorie needs of physically inactive adults fall steadily throughout adulthood.
Answer:
30
Explanation:
According to dietary guidelines, from the age of 30, the calorie needs of physically inactive adults begin to decline.
This is because physical activities and exercise aid the human body in the burning up of calories, thus, when an adult does not engage in any activity, he burns less calories than those who do and thus requires less calories than them
Consider the experiment in which the expression of two copies of the same gene are measured using the green fluorescent protein reporter for the first copy of the gene and red fluorescent protein reporter for the second copy of the gene in E. coli cells. Provide an example of intrinsic versus extrinsic noise observed for this system.
Answer:
Explanation:
Consider, for example, “shot noise” in a digital camera. ... Defining Extrinsic versus Intrinsic Noise in Transcription ...
The sensing method that reflects pulsed radar waves off features below the surface is called:________A. Air photo analysisB. Geographic Information Systems (GIS)C. Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) CorrectD. Satellite Imaging Technology (SIT)
Answer: C- Ground Penetrating Radar(GPR)
Explanation: C. Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR)
Its a sensing method that reflects pulsed radar waves.
What variable influence the process of fermentation? A. Like aerobic cellular respiration, fermentation produces ATP molecules. B. Fermentation requires less oxygen then aerobic cellular respiration. C. The independent variable of the experiment was the type of sugar used to produce ATP. D. According to the experimental data, the preferred fuel choice is glucose. E. The rate of fermentation is greater when the fuel source is a disaccharide. F. The greater the amount of sugar used, the greater the rate of fermentation.
For anyone who still needs it the answers are:
A. Like aerobic cellular respiration, fermentation produces ATP molecules.
C. The independent variable of the experiment was the type of sugar used to produce ATP.
D. According to the experimental data, the preferred fuel choice is glucose.
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The variables that have influence on process of fermentation can be expressed as :
A. Like aerobic cellular respiration, fermentation produces ATP molecules.
C. The independent variable of the experiment was the type of sugar used to produce ATP.
D. According to the experimental data, the preferred fuel choice is glucose
Fermentation can be regarded as a process involving breaking down of substance into a simpler substance.It involves production of chemical changes in organic substrates as a result of action of enzymes. Microorganisms such as yeast and bacteria are very essential in the fermentation process, just like other processes like aerobic cellular respiration, there is always a production of ATP moleculesWhen carrying out the process, the independent variable usually depends on type of sugar involve in production of ATPTherefore, option A,C,D are correct.
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A food that supplies two grams each of fat, carbohydrate, and protein delivers_____total calories.
Answer:
34 calories
Explanation:
One gram of carbohydrates provides total= 4 calories.
2 grams of carbohydrates would provide= 4 x 2 = 8 calories.
One gram of protein provides total= 4 calories.
2 grams of protein would provide= 4 x 2 = 8 calories.
One gram of fat provides total= 9 calories.
2 grams of carbohydrates would provide= 9 x 2 = 18 calories.
Total calories from food that gives two grams each of fat, carbohydrate, and protein= 8 + 8 + 18 = 34 calories.
The excretory functions of the urinary system are performed by the
Answer:
Kidneys
Explanation:
One of the primary functions of the urinary system is the excretion of metabolic wastes. Urea is the primary nitrogenous end product of metabolism in human beings. Other excretory waste products in humans are ammonium, creatinine, and uric acid. Kidneys excrete metabolic waste by urine formation. Urea, ammonia, creatinine, uric acid, and urobilin contain nitrogen and therefore, are collectively known as nitrogenous wastes. Other wastes excreted in the urine are foreign substances that have entered the body, drugs and environmental toxins.
Kidneys produce urine in three steps: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. Water accounts for almost 95% of the volume of urine and the remaining 5% consist of electrolytes, nitrogenous end products and substances derived from drugs.
In some experiments, several identical groups are set up, keeping conditions similar among them. In the _____ group, a change is deliberately introduced. In the _____ group, this change is not introduced. In this way, the researcher can determine if the change has an effect.
Answer:
In some experiments, several identical groups are set up, keeping conditions similar among them. In the experimental group, a change is deliberately introduced. In the control group, this change is not introduced. In this way, the researcher can determine if the change has an effect.
Explanation:
In every experiment that has to do with having a replicate, there must be a control group which is used to checkmate the effect of what is being tested, hence; nothing is introduced in the control group unlike the experimental group
The type of antimicrobial drug that would be least toxic to humans is a drug thatA) Inhibits protein synthesisB) Disrupts the cytoplasmic membraneC) Inhibits nucleic acid synthesisD)Inhibits cell wall synthesis
Answer:
The correct answer is D) Inhibits cell wall synthesis.
Explanation:
Antimicrobial drugs are drugs that act against microbes like bacteria, fungus, virus, protozoa, etc. These drugs must be specific and should not harm the host cells but must be effective against microbial cell.
Both microbes and humans contain proteins, cytoplasmic membrane, and nucleic acid therefore antimicrobial drugs that target these structures can harm the host cell.
As human lack cell wall, therefore, the antimicrobial drug which inhibit cell wall synthesis will not be able to harm humans and will selectively kill the cells that contain cell wall like bacteria. Therefore the right answer is D.
Item 3 If part of the DNA gene being transcribed is TGCAAT , what will the mRNA code be for that part?
Answer:
ACGUUA
Explanation:
Transcription is a process that makes mRNA using the DNA template strand. The enzyme RNA polymerase adds ribonucleotides complementary to the sequence of the DNA template strand. RNA lacks the "thymine" and instead has the "uracil". Adenine base in the DNA sequence is transcribed into the “uracil" base in the corresponding RNA. Similarly, "guanine" in the DNA template strand specifies the "cytosine" base in the transcribed RNA.
Therefore, if a DNA template strand has a sequence "TGCAAT", the corresponding mRNA would have a sequence of "ACGUUA".
Which reaction produces monosaccharides? dehydration synthesis of monosaccharides polymerization of polysaccharides dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides hydrolysis of polysaccharides
Answer:
The correct answer is hydrolysis of poly saccharides
Explanation:
Polysaccharides are composed of numerous monosaccharides units joined with each other by glycosidic linkages.If the polysaccharides are treated with strong acids such as Hydrochloric acid or hydrolytic the glycosidic linkages are broken down resulting in the formation of monosaccharide constituents.
For example homo polysaccharide plant poly saccharide starch is composed of glucose units linked with one another by α-1,4-glycosidic linkage.When starch is digested by amylase enzyme then hydrolysis of starch occur resulting in the formation of di saccharide maltose, dextrin and maltitriose which further undergo hydrolysis by the catalytic activity of various hydrolytic enzymes to generate momosaccharide sububits.
Which of the following is excluded under both the Limited Pollution Liability coverage form and Pollution Extension endorsement?
a. Escape of pollutants
b. Clean up costs
c. Threatened discharge of pollutants
d. Waste disposal leaks
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Limited Pollution Liability coverage form has limited coverage facility. It provides scope of covering the pollution liability but does not provide any coverage for meeting out the cleanup expenses. It covers the damage caused by pollution.
While in Pollution Extension Endorsement charge the insurance does not apply to testing, monitoring, clean up, neutralization and reducing the effect of pollutants are covered.
Hence, option B is correct
Mycoplasma tuberculosis, the causative agent in tuberculosis, primarily infects the alveolar macrophages and is therefore very fortunate in its size. Why is this statement true?a. a facultative primary pathogen.b. a facultative opportunistic pathogen.c. an obligate primary pathogen.d. an obligate opportunistic pathogen.
Answer:
d. an obligate opportunistic pathogen.
Explanation:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a rod shaped bacterium which causes tuberculosis. Most of the pathogenic bacteria are obligatory pathogen. It is airborne bacterium which is efficiently spread from person to person through droplet nuclei reach the terminal air-spaces. From air space the mycobacterium ingested by alveolar macrophages and then carried by lymphatics to regional lymph nodes. It is very small and does not get caught in the mucociliary ladder and it is enough large to be immediately exhaled, so, they lands in the alveoli. Thus, it is an opportunistic obligate pathogen.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing the differences among the various diuretic agents. Which would the instructor cite as a difference between spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide?a. Potassium losses are greater with spironolactone than with hydrochlorothiazide.b. Potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone.c. Spironolactone is more likely to be taken with a potassium supplement.d. The two diuretics act in different parts of the nephron
Answer:
Hello!
The answer is b. Potassium losses are greater with hydrochlorothiazide than with spironolactone.
Explanation:
Hydrochlorothiazide and spironolactone is a drug combination prescribed to treat edema, congestive heart failure and nephrotic syndrome.
Hydrochlorothiazide and Spironolactone both help prevent fluid retention in the body by preventing excessive absorption of salt. Therefore, both of these drugs would ultimately cause salt or potassium losses.Unlike hydrochlorothiazide, spironolactone, being a potassium sparring diuretic (a drug that increases urination without the loss of potassium), prevents potassium levels in the body from getting too low.Since spironolactone is a potassium sparring drug, it should never be taken with a potassium supplement as it can lead to hyperkalemia (excess potassium).Both diuretics act in the same part of the nephron, the distal tubule.You isolate intact mitochondria and equilibrate them in a buffered solution at pH 9, containing 0.1 M KCl and ADP plus Pi, but without succinate. You collect them by centrifugation, and quickly resuspend them in a new buffer at pH 7, without KCl , but with valinomycin (a K ionophore). Note: the K rushing out will create a huge positive charge differential. What do you predict will be the result on oxygen consumption and the production of ATP?
Answer:
Explanation :the amount of ATP generated per unit of oxygen consumed can vary significantly.
the rate of aerobic metabolism, requires careful interpretation with respect to the amount of ATP produced.
The phylum Gymnospermae has four divisions. Fossil evidence helped to divide and classify the gymnosperms. The division Ginkgophyta has leaves instead of needles. According to this dichotomous key, what would the fossil evidence also MOST LIKELY show?
Answer:
Explanation:The fossil will produce seed
Unlike others which will produce flowers
A population of buffalos is isolated such that no new buffalos can come into their territory.
Which of the following is primarily responsible for the appearance of new alleles in this population?
a. Reassortment of chromosomes during the process of creating sperm or eggs.
b. Mutations in cells that will become sperm or eggs.
c. Changes in the environment that favor some buffalo traits over others.
d. Random mating between the buffalos in the population.
Answer:
B - Mutations in cells that will become sperm or eggs.
Explanation:
Mutation is the process of changing the nucleotide sequence of DNA. When DNA is mutated, this often causes new alleles to appear, go missing, or be added. These processes are called Substitution, Deletion, and Insertion.
The UNO Company was formed on January 2, Year 1, to sell a single product. Over a 2-year period, UNO’s costs increased steadily. Inventory quantities equaled 3 months’ sales at December 31, Year 1, and zero at December 31, Year 2. Assuming the periodic system and no accounting changes, the inventory cost method that reports the highest amount for each of the following is
Inventory 12/31/Year 1
Cost of Sales Year 2
A.LIFO
FIFO
B.LIFO
LIFO
C.FIFO
FIFO
D. FIFO
LIFO
Answer:
(C) FIFO
FIFO
Explanation:
- FIFO inventory tends to be higher than the LIFO inventory when the prices are increasing. Contrary to LIFO, FIFO assumes that the expensive or highest amount goods are in the inventory where as in the case of LIFO these products are first to be sold. So according to the data provided inventory at end of year (December 31) and start of Year 2 is higher for FIFO than LIFO. At end of year 2 amount of goods sold must have equaled the amount of goods purchased which means higher inventory under FIFO than LIFO which means Option C is correct.
Final answer:
The inventory cost method that reports the highest inventory value at the end of Year 1 is FIFO, and the method that reports the highest cost of sales for Year 2 is LIFO, in a scenario where a company's costs increase steadily over time. Option D is correct.
Explanation:
When assessing the impact of different inventory cost methods on the financial statements of a company, the choice between First In, First Out (FIFO) and Last In, First Out (LIFO) can be significant. For the scenario presented, where UNO Company's costs increase steadily over two years and inventory levels fluctuate, the method chosen will affect both the reported inventory value at the end of Year 1 and the cost of sales for Year 2.
Under FIFO, the oldest inventory costs are matched with sales first, reflecting lower costs from earlier periods in the cost of sales and leaving the more recent, higher costs in ending inventory. Conversely, LIFO matches the most recent, higher costs with current sales, leading to higher costs of sales and a lower ending inventory valuation when costs are rising.
Given UNO Company's situation:
The highest Inventory at 12/31/Year 1 would be reported using FIFO because it reflects the most recent, higher costs as part of the inventory value.The highest Cost of Sales for Year 2 would be reported using LIFO because it uses the most recent, increased costs for valuing the cost of goods sold.Therefore, the correct answer to report the highest amounts would be:
Inventory 12/31/Year 1: FIFOCost of Sales Year 2: LIFOWhich of the following is NOT one of the key brain structures involved in encoding and storing memories?
a. hypothalamusb. hippocampusc. prefrontal cortexd. cerebellum
Answer:
Hypothalamus
Explanation:
The prefrontal cortex, hippocampus and the cerebellum are involved in memory formation.
The prefrontal cortex is involved in making decisions,forming goals and planning , it's also based on past memories.
The hippocampus is involved in forming long term memories and also in spatial navigation
The hypothalamus is the part of the brain responsible for the body's ability of homeostasis.it is also involved with endocrine control and works closely with the pitutary gland.
The hypothalamus is not one of the key brain structures involved in encoding and storing memories. The hippocampus, prefrontal cortex, and cerebellum all play crucial roles in memory formation, encoding spatial, semantic, and implicit memories respectively. Additionally, the substantia nigra, not the hypothalamus, is not a structure of the forebrain.
Explanation:The key brain structures involved in encoding and storing memories include the hippocampus, the prefrontal cortex, and the cerebellum. The hippocampus is crucial for explicit memories, involving the encoding of information about spatial relationships, context, and associations among memories. The prefrontal cortex is involved in remembering semantic tasks. The cerebellum processes implicit memories, which are not consciously recalled, such as motor skills and classical conditioning responses.
For instance, the cerebellum is integral for learning an eye-blink response to a puff of air, a type of classical conditioning. In contrast, the hypothalamus is not primarily known for memory storage and encoding but is involved in various other functions such as the regulation of hunger, thirst, sleep, and emotional responses.
Regarding the structures of the forebrain, the thalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala are all part of the forebrain. However, the substantia nigra is part of the midbrain, not the forebrain, and is therefore not the correct answer to both the structure involved in memory and the forebrain.
Place the events in the correct order, with 1 occurring first and 5 occuring last.
A) Transcription of one DNA strand results in mRNA, which is a complementary copy of the information in the DNA strand needed to make a protein.
B) DNA contains the information necessary to produce proteins.
C) The amino acids form a polypeptide chain.
D) Amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, are carried to the ribosome by tRNAs.
E) The mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to a ribosome.
Answer:
1 - b
2- a
3 - e
4 - d
5 - c
The correct order of events of protein synthesis would be from the properties of DNA to forming of polypeptide chain. The correct order would then be B, A, E, D, C.
The following are the correct order of events of translating genetic information on a DNA:
transcription: information of a DNA is transcribed into mRNA in the nucleus. the mRNA is moved from the nucleus to the ribosome.amino acids attached to tRNAs are also moved to the ribosome.the message on the mRNA is translated with the tRNA dropping the amino acid corresponding to the codons on the mRNA and individual amino acids are joined by polypeptide bonds.More on protein synthesis can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/23533340
After triacylglycerols are hydrolyzed into free fatty acids and glycerol, how is glycerol used for energy? A. It undergoes β-oxidation B. It enters the glycolysis pathway C. It enters the citric acid cycle D. It is converted to ketone bodies E. It undergoes ω-oxidation
Answer:
The correct answer is B it enters glycolysis pathway.
Explanation:
Tria cylglycerol is a complex lipid which can be defined as fatty acid ester of glycerol.The hydrolytic enzyme lipase act on tri acylglycerol to form fatty acid and glycerol by hydrolyzing the ester bond present between fatty acid and glycerol.
The fatty acid enters the β oxidation pathway and the other product of tricacylglycerol hydrolysis that is glycerol is converted to glycerol -3-phosphate by the catalyric activity of glycerol kinase.The so formed glycerol-3-phosphate is converted to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate by alcohol dehydrogense enzyme.
The so formed glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is an intermediate of glycolysis.
Choose the three best explanations for why Mrs. H's alveoli might collapse if she does not do her deep breathing with the Incentive spirometer. A) The alveoli are lined with water, and attraction between the water molecules pulls them together. This surface tension will pull the alveoli closed if she does not open them with deep breathing. B) When she is lying down, it is harder for her to expand her chest cavity anyway. She needs to put extra effort into it. C) The anesthesia was toxic to her lung cells, and she needs to clear it out of her alveoli as fast as she can. D)B Surgery stimulated her sympathetic system, which has constricted her bronchioles and could lead to an asthma attack. E) Shallow breathing that does not fill her lungs will only move air into the alveoli in the upper part of her lungs, letting those in the lower part stay closed. F) With her gall bladder removed, she cannot produce the soapy substance that lines alveoli and makes them easier to inflate.
Answer:
E) Shallow breathing that does not fill her lungs will only move air into the alveoli in the upper part of her lungs, letting those in the lower part stay closed.
A) The alveoli are lined with water, and attraction between the water molecules pulls them together. This surface tension will pull the alveoli closed if she does not open them with deep breathing.
B) When she is lying down, it is harder for her to expand her chest cavity anyway. She needs to put extra effort into it.
The alveoli might collapse if Mrs. H does not use her incentive spirometer because the water lining of the alveoli can create surface tension that pulls them closed, shallow breathing keeps lower alveoli collapsed, and without deep breaths, the surfactant cannot reduce surface tension effectively.
Explanation:Among the provided explanations for why Mrs. H's alveoli might collapse without the use of an incentive spirometer for deep breathing, the three best explanations are:
A) The alveoli are lined with water, and the attraction between water molecules creates a surface tension that can pull the alveoli closed. Deep breathing can help overcome this force and fully open them.E) Shallow breathing does not fill the entire lungs with air, typically only reaching the alveoli in the upper parts, which can result in the lower part's alveoli remaining collapsed.The presence of a surfactant within the alveoli, which is a surface-tension reducing substance produced by the lungs, is crucial. Without adequate breaths, the surfactant cannot effectively reduce surface tension, possibly leading to alveoli collapse.These factors highlight the importance of deep breathing exercises to maintain lung function and prevent alveolar collapse. The surfactant plays a role in managing the surface tension which is crucial for preventing alveoli from collapsing during exhalation.
Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?
A) competitive exclusion
B) predation of Chthamalus by Balanus
C) cooperative displacement
D) primary succession
E) mutualism
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Competitive exclusion.
Explanation:
The principle of competitive exclusion says that:
Two different species that share the same niche can not live in the same place. If two species have the same requirements, they can not coexist. Two species can not coexist indefinitely on the bases of the same limited resource.When two competing species coexist, this is because of niche partitioning or niche differentiation. If there is not any differentiation between them, the dominant species displaces the weak species.
In the exposed example, Chthalamus can live in the upper intertidal zone, where Balanus can not live because they can not tolerate desiccation. Balanus live in the lower intertidal zone, where Chthalamus can not live because of its vulnerability to predation. But these two species compete for the middle intertidal zone, where they can both live.
Balanus excludes Chthalamus because the first species is much bigger and grows faster than the second one. So the middle intertidal zone is only inhabited by Balanus.
The area occupied by Chthalamus is smaller in the presence of Balanus. In the absence of Balanus, Chthalamus can live in a bigger area, occupying the middle intertidal zone.
Part 2: Codominance - Predicting stripe color in lizard tails A certain species of lizard can have red stripes, yellow stripes, or red and oranges stripes. An RR lizard has red stripes, an YY lizard has orange stripes, and an RY lizard has red and orange stripes. A lizard with red stripes(RR) mates with a lizard with orange stripes(YY). 3. Create a Punnett square to show their offspring, the F1 generation. Punnett Square Parent R R Y RR Ry Y YY ry 4. What pattern do you notice in the genotypes of the F1 generation lizards? 5. What are the phenotypes of the F1 generation lizards?
Answer:
In F1 generation all lizards are heterozygous RY, and will have red and orange stripes in their tails
Explanation:
If the cross is between RR and YY lizards, in a Punnett square we'll have RR vs YY
Let's say YY is female and RR male
Y Y
R RY RY
R RY RY
All lizards will be RY, coding for red and orange colours in their tails (phenotype) in F1 generation
What is something that can go wrong during interphase? A. The cell could divide unevenly resulting in a very small cell and a very large cell. B. The chromatids could separate and all move to the same side of the cell. C. A base pair could be mismatched during the duplication process causing a mutation.
Answer:
Answer is C. A base pair could be mismatched during the duplication process causing a mutation.
Explanation:
An interphase is known to be the resting phase between the first and second division of meiosis, where change was more apparent.
During this phase, the cell copies its DNA in preparation for mitosis. This means that, the cells take up the nutrients, grow, read DNA and produce proteins. Thees processes are considered as the normal cellular functions.
One possible problem that can occur during interphase is a mismatch of base pairs during DNA replication, leading to mutations.
During interphase of the cell cycle, several things can potentially go wrong. Among these, C. A base pair could be mismatched during the duplication process causing a mutation is a correct statement. During the S phase of interphase, DNA replication takes place, and there is a risk of base pair mismatches. While there are mechanisms in place to correct such errors, a mismatch that is not repaired can cause a mutation that might have significant consequences for the cell and organism. This emphasizes the biological importance of the error-checking and repair processes during DNA replication.
One common test of language lateralization is invasive; it involves injecting ____________ into the carotid artery.
Answer:
barbiturate/sedatives
Explanation:
Lateralization is a process of studying the split functions of the brain hemispheres. The most common test used for testing lateralization is obtained from sodium amytal studies. In this study a barbiturate or a sedative is injected into the carotid artery either left or the right artery. So, till the time the barbiturate hampers the functioning of any hemisphere, the functions associated with that hemisphere also gets hampered or are sustained for a while. This technique is of invasive nature
All EXCEPT which of the following are differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA replication?
a. the number of replication origins
b. the ability to form a replication fork
c. the type and number of polymerases involved in DNA synthesis
d. the rate of DNA synthesis
Answer:
b. the ability to form a replication fork
Explanation:
Replication fork refers to the specific point where the parent DNA is unwound to expose the template strands and the separated strands quickly replicated. Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA replication mechanisms include the formation of the replication fork. For circular DNA molecules, both ends of the unwound DNA loop have active replication forks as the replication is bidirectional. The two replication forks meet at a point on the side of the circle opposite to the origin.
For a linear DNA, the leading strand is continuously synthesized in the direction of the movement of the replication fork while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in short pieces called Okazaki fragments in a direction opposite to the movement of the replication fork.