The correct answer is: 24 chromosmes.
Mitosis is the cell division of somatic cells (all cells except gametes) in which mother cell produce two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as she had.
During the S phase of interphase, replication occurs and the genetic material of a cell is duplicated. There are still 24 chromosomes but they exist in a X shape structure-two sister chromatids (genetically identical). So, there are 24 chromosomes, but 48 chromatids. Sister chromatids separate during the anaphase of mitosis and each chromatid is then considered a separate, individual chromosome. After division and cytokinesis, the normal chromosome number is restored to the cell.
Give the name of the watershed in austin that contains the most wells. how many wells does it contain
It is the Lake Travis watershed and it has 209 wells.
Which of the following is NOT a beta-lactam antibiotic?
methicillin
vancomycin
cephalothin
penicillin G
Answer:
vancomycin
Explanation:
β-lactam antibiotics are those antibiotic that that contain a beta-lactam ring (the cyclic amide with the nitrogen atom attached to the β-carbon) in their molecular structures. This class of antibiotics is the most commonly used and it includes penicillin derivatives, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems. The mechanism of action of β-lactam antibiotics is inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis in the bacteria.
What is the primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells?
The correct answer is: sodium gradient
It is very important for glucose to be transported into proximal tubule cells (reabsorbed) because that is the way to prevent it from disappearing from the body through the urine.
Glucose is co-transported with sodium ions into the proximal tubule via the SGLT2 cotransporter. This cotransporter is an example of secondary transport because it uses the energy from downhill sodium ion gradient created by the ATPase pump to transport glucose.
The primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells is secondary active transport, involving a Na+/glucose symporter that uses the Na+ gradient created by Na+/[tex]K^+[/tex] ATPase to transport glucose against its gradient.
The primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells of the kidneys is secondary active transport. This process utilizes a Na+/glucose symporter, which co-transports sodium ions and glucose molecules across the apical membrane of the proximal tubule cells. The energy for this process comes from the sodium ion gradient established by the Na+/[tex]K^+[/tex] ATPase pump, which maintains a low intra-cellular sodium concentration by actively pumping sodium out of the cell.
Secondary active transport is so named because it relies on the primary active transport mechanism of the ATPase pump to create the sodium gradient necessary for the symporter function. The SGLT proteins use the energy released as sodium moves down its electrochemical gradient to transport glucose against its own gradient into the cell. Once inside, glucose exits the cell into the bloodstream via the basolateral membrane through GLUT transporters, by the process of facilitated diffusion.
which of these is required for natural selection?
A.)All individuals of a population must be identical.
B.)There must be a small number of individuals in a population.
C.)There must be variation among the members of a population.
D.)A population of individuals must forced out of their natural habitat.
c, variation is the answer
With regard to the process of neural transmission, a refractory period refers to a time interval in which:
a. a brief electrical charge travels down an axon.
b. an individual reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus.
c. chemical messengers go across the synaptic gaps between neurons.
d. a neuron recharges before it can fire again.
d. a neuron recharges before it can fire again.
Explanation;Refractory periods are a short phase in time following an action potential where another action potential cannot be generated. It is the period immediately following the transmission of an impulse in nerve or muscle, in which a neuron or muscle cell regains its ability to transmit another impulse. There are two types of refractory period, that is the absolute refractory period and the relative refractory period. Absolute refractory period is the first part of a refractory period during which, the neuron will not fire again no matter how great the stimulation and this only lasts for a short time.Relative refractory period occurs when a stronger than usual stimulus is required to trigger the action potential before the neuron returns to resting state.The refractory period is a time after an action potential when it is difficult or impossible for another to be fired due to the need for the neuron to return to its resting state.The correct option is d.
The refractory period refers to the time interval after an action potential in which a neuron or muscle cell cannot regenerate another action potential. This period is vital for the neuron to return to its resting potential. During the absolute refractory period, no additional action potentials can be initiated regardless of the stimulus because the voltage-gated sodium channels are either open or in an inactivated state. During the relative refractory period, a neuron can in principle fire again, but only by a much stronger stimulus, due to the movement of potassium ions out of the cell which causes hyperpolarization.
what is carried to the body cells by blood? pick 2
salt
nutrients
oxygen
nitrogen
Hey, it’s Nutrients and Oxygen
A client has a supratentorial craniotomy for a tumor in the right frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex. which position does the nurse recognize is the most appropriate for this client postoperatively?
Head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees with the neck in neutral alignment
Explanation;Supratentorial craniotom is the exposure of any part of a cerebral hemisphere over the basal line joining the nasion to the inion.The HOB after supratentorial craniotomy should be at least at 30 degrees. Avoidance of prolonged pressure directly on the incision will prevent breakdown or added discomfort.The food oyramid suggest that a healthy diet consist of a large portion of cheese, butter, olive oil, or breads
I’m not 100% sure but I believe it’s breads since it’s the only food group
Answer:
OLIVE OIL
Explanation:
Years of smoking and exposure to air pollutants can contribute to the incidence of
Hello there!
Your answer would be lung cancer, chronic bronchitis, emphysema and asthma.
Years of smoking and exposure to air pollutants can contribute to the incidence of lung cancer, chronic bronchitis, emphysema and asthma.
Lung cancer is one of the factors that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This happens when too much lung cells are being produced in the lungs at once, which causes cancer cells to grow, this would form a tumor in the lung. There are many treatments that could be taken to remove this tumor. This is one of the things that are caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Chronic Bronchitis is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This also involves the lungs. Chronic Bronchitis is a disease in the lungs that caused inflammation in them, which is very dangerous to the human body. Growth of mucus, coughing, and etc are symptoms of this. This is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Emphysema is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This is a disease that causes the alveoli (a balloon shaped pass way in the raspatory system) to over swell. This mostly causes a shortness of breath to a person. This is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Asthma is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This condition is very common to people who have smoked, been around smoke, or has been around places whose air is very polluted. This conditions causes the airways to clog up, which makes it hard to breathe. This is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Cuts are ________ meaning an injury to the skin and the soft tissue underneath it
Cuts are injuries to the skin and underlying soft tissue, often caused by sharp objects, which can lead to infections if pathogens enter the body through the break in the skin.
Cuts are injuries to the skin and the soft tissue underneath it. Because the skin is the part that meets the world most directly, it is highly susceptible to injury. Common causes of skin injuries can be sharp objects, heat, or excessive pressure or friction. When the skin breaks from a cut, such as a paper cut, it allows a pathway for pathogens to enter the body. If untreated, this can lead to an infection, with the innate immune system responding to fight off the invading bacteria.
More severe skin damage can occur below its surface, in the subcutaneous layer known as the hypodermis, where infections like cellulitis can develop, causing redness and painful inflammation.
Which phrase does not describe one of the functions of proteins of the plasma membrane? initiating the replication of genetic material binding to a substance to carry it through the membrane forming a channel through the membrane acting as a receptor for substances external to the cell?
Answer:
Initiating the replication of genetic material
Explanation:
This is the function of the primer and polymerase enzyme. The plasma membrane is the outermost boundary of the cell. It is selectively allows material in and out of the cell. It has channels through which these materials pass through. If these materials are too large, they are taken in and out through endocytosis and exocytosis respectively.
Most farms were once tilled by animals pulling plows. Today, mechanized plows can quickly till large areas of land. How have mechanized plows most likely affected modern agriculture? A. Mechanized plows allow a wider variety of crops to be planted on a farm. B. Mechanized plows help decrease erosion. C. Mechanized plows help improve a farm's soil quality. D. Mechanized plows allow larger areas to be farmed by a single farmer.
Answer:
The correct answer is "Mechanized plows allow larger areas to be farmed by a single farmer."
Explanation:
Mechanized plows allow large areas of land to be plowed quickly. A further benefit is that mechanized plows do not fatigue as people and animals do. Because of this, mechanized plows help contribute to the increasing size of modern farms.
Answer:
Mechanized plows allow larger areas to be farmed by a single farmer.
Explanation:
i did it and got it wright
sects often have an outsider status in society?
true
false
your answer is true hope this helps
I think true is the correct answer. Hope this helps
Imagine a population of mice living at the beach where there is light-colored sand interspersed with patches of tall grass. In this scenario, light-colored mice blend in with the sand, and dark-colored mice can hide in the grass. Medium-colored mice, on the other hand, would not blend in with either the grass or the sand.
Is this Directional, Stabilizing, or Disruptive selection
C: disruptive selection
Medium-colored mice would not blend in with either the grass or the sand because of the Disruptive selection.
What is Disruptive selection?Disruptive selection may be defined as a type of selection in which individuals of the intermediate phenotype are less fit than those of both higher and lower phenotypes. Due to this, the extremes are favored.
In the question, light-colored mice blend in with the sand, as they get an advantage from light-colored sand while dark-colored mice can hide in the grass and are capable to survive in the ecosystem.
But the medium or intermediate-colored mice would not blend in with either the grass or the sand. As a result of this, they are less fit for surviving in the same condition.
Therefore, medium-colored mice would not blend in with either the grass or the sand because of the Disruptive selection.
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At what point in development is the sense of hearing already quite acute?
Our sense of hearing is developing in the womb and is already quite acute in the third trimester of pregnancy.
During the signal transduction process, the signal often triggers a signal transduction cascade. For example, an activated receptor activates hundreds of protein A. Each activated protein A activates hundreds of protein B and so on until a cellular response occurs. What purpose does this cascade serve? The cascade serves to amplify the signal, so one activated receptor can have a significant response. Having several intermediates allows for the cell to determine what signals it will sense. Having a cascade allows the cell to respond to different signals. The cascade makes signaling easier to shut off or terminate.
The correct answer is: The cascade serves to amplify the signal, so one activated receptor can have a significant response
The signal transduction process is represented by series of molecular events that end up with cellular response (change of behavior or characteristic).
Component of a signaling pathway (based on their role) are:
• Ligands or first messengers
• receptors or the signal transducers
• primary effectors
• second messengers
• secondary effectors…
Signal transduction is part of almost all type of processes in the cell such as cell growth control, proliferation, metabolism etc.
The signaling cascade serves to amplify the signal and impacts multiple downstream components, allowing one activated receptor to stimulate a significant cellular response. The phosphorylation of proteins contributes to shaping this response. The termination of signal response, notably through de phosphorylation is vital to control cell behavior.
Explanation:During the process of signal transduction, a signaling pathway or cascade is often initiated upon the binding of a ligand to a cell-surface receptor. This chain of events facilitates interactions among second messengers, enzymes, and activated proteins, triggering a response in the cell's environment. A significant part of this cascade is the phosphorylation of molecules by enzymes known as kinases, which alter the shape of proteins and hence, their activity.
Activation of an intracellular component of the receptor often amplifies the signal, with a single activated receptor influencing multiple downstream components of the signaling pathway. The cascading mechanism serves to significantly amplify the signal, allowing one activated receptor to have a prolific cellular response. This amplification is beneficial in cases where the hormonal signal is of a very low concentration.
The effect of cell signaling can be terminated through the degradation of signaling molecules or de phosphorylation of phosphorylated intermediates in the pathway. This termination is essential to ensure the appropriateness of signal response.
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What role do plants have in the carbon-oxygen cycle? They release oxygen into the air as a waste product of photosynthesis. They release carbon dioxide into the air as a waste product of photosynthesis. They absorb oxygen from the air to use during photosynthesis. They do not have a role in the carbon-oxygen cycle.
The answer is A.
hope this helps!
Answer:
a
Explanation:
hope this helps.
A cell in prophase I of meiosis has _____________ as much DNA as each of the daughter cells following cytokinesis of meiosis II.
The cell in prophase I of meiosis has four times as much DNA as each daughter cell following cytokinesis of meiosis II, due to the halving of DNA content during meiosis.
Explanation:A cell in prophase I of meiosis has four times as much DNA as each of the daughter cells following cytokinesis of meiosis II. This is because during prophase I, the cell has undergone DNA replication and thus has double the amount of DNA. After cytokinesis of meiosis II, we have four daughter cells, each having half the amount of DNA as the cell in prophase I. Think of it this way, during meiosis I and II, the DNA content is successively halved in each daughter cell. Hence, in comparison to the cell in prophase I, each of the four daughter cells at the end of meiosis II has a quarter of the DNA.
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Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be
to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts.
to test for liberation of O2 in the light.
to test for CO2 fixation in the dark.
to do experiments to generate an action spectrum.
to test for production of either sucrose or starch.
option c-to test for liberation of o2 in light
Which of the following statements about mutualisms is FALSE? Organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner. Mutualisms are subject to natural selection. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in nodules on the roots of soybeans are an example of a mutualistic interaction. The fitness of both species involved in a mutualistic interaction is increased by the interaction. Some mutualisms require a specific partner (one species), while others are less specific (any one of several different species).
False; Organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner.
Explanation;Mutualisms are a form of symbiosis in which both symbiotic partners benefit from the interaction, often resulting in a significant fitness gain for either one or both parties.An obligate mutualist cannot survive without its partner while a facultative mutualist can survive on its own. In mutualism the action of natural selection on one species may cause selection to operate in new ways on the other. Mutualistic interactions, such that evolutionary changes in each species benefit the other speciesAnswer:
The correct answer is "Organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner".
Explanation:
It is false that organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner. A mutualism is defined as a relationship in biology and sociology where both individuals are benefited from it. Most mutualism relationships are facultative, which means that the organisms do not depend its survival from the relationship. For instance, the mutualism relationship between corals and symbiotic algae help both organisms to obtain nutrients, however corals and symbiotic algae can survive for themselves.
What are two main types of posttranscriptional modifications that take place in the mRNA of eukaryotes?The excision of the introns and the addition of a 7-mG cap to the 3' end.The addition of a poly-T sequence at the 5' end of the gene and the addition of a poly-U tail at the 3' end.The addition of a 7-mG cap at the 5' end of the transcript and the addition of a poly-A sequence at the 3' end of the message.The addition of a poly-A sequence at the 5' end and the addition of a 7-mG cap at the 3' end of the RNA transcript.
The correct answer is: The addition of a 7-mG cap at the 5' end of the transcript and the addition of a poly-A sequence at the 3' end of the message
These posttranscriptional processes are called:
• 5’ capping - It protects the mRNA from 5' degradation by exonucleases. Cap is also involved in ribosomal binding.
• Polyadenilation or addition of poly(A) tail – It also protects mRNA from degradation of 3’exonucleases. A long poly(A) tail can also increase translation.
The auditory function of the middle ear is to convert _______ pressure waves into _______.
Air;Fluid pressure waves Hope it help
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model? f(A1) = 0.9800, f(A2) = 0.0200 f(A1) = 0.9700, f(A2) = 0.0300 f(A1) = 0.9997, f(A2) = 0.0003 f(A1) = 0.9604, f(A2) = 0.0392
The correct answer is: f(A2) = 0.0300 f(A1) = 0.9997
If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, that means that the frequency of recessive homozygous is 9/10000=0.0009.
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium p2+2pq+q2=1 (p+q=1) where p2 is frequency of dominant homozygous (only p is dominant allele), 2pq is frequency of heterozygous and q2 is the frequency of recessive homozygous (only q is the frequency of recessive allele). This means that q2=0.0009 and (A2) q=0.03. p (A1)=1-0.03=0.97
what would have happened if we had cut both the jellyfish glo gene and puc18 plasmid with the EcoR1 restriction enzymes
Final answer:
Cutting both the jellyfish glo gene and the pUC18 plasmid with EcoRI would create compatible sticky ends that could be ligated together, allowing jellyfish DNA to be integrated into the plasmid and potentially expressed in E. coli.
Explanation:
If both the jellyfish glo gene and the pUC18 plasmid are cut with the EcoRI restriction enzyme, both DNA samples would have sticky ends. These ends can anneal due to their complementary base sequences, which are specific to the EcoRI cutting pattern. When mixed with DNA ligase, the enzyme responsible for joining DNA fragments, a small number of the jellyfish DNA fragments would integrate into the pUC18 plasmid, creating a recombinant DNA plasmid. This plasmid could then be used to transform E. coli, potentially expressing the traits encoded by the inserted jellyfish DNA, such as bioluminescence if the glo gene is expressed.
In the 1930's Dr. Robert Goddard began his experimentation with space travel. These were the forerunners of the Apollo Spacecraft crew's setting foot on the moon in 1969. Where did Dr. Goddard bring these experiments to life?
It was actually on March 14, 1926 in Auburn, Massachusetts that D. Robert Goddard launched his first liquid fueled rocket successfully.
Goddard’s rockets made little impression on government officials. Only through modest subsidies from the Smithsonian Institution and the Daniel Guggenheim Foundation, as well as the leaves of absence granted him by the Worcester Polytechnic Institute of Clark University, was Goddard able to sustain his lifetime of devoted research and testing.
When neurons are not producing electrical signals
When neurons are not producing electrical signals we say that they are at resting phase: voltage across their membrane is called the resting membrane potential, or the resting potential.
This potential is determined by the concentration of ions (Na, K) across the membrane and by membrane permeability to each type of ion. While the ions move through channels down their gradients they lead to a separation of charge and that is what creates the resting potential.
The membrane of the neuron is much more permeable for K ions so the resting potential is close to the equilibrium potential of K+.
Earthquakes produece two types of waves that flow through the interior of earth
earthquakes produce both body and surface waves which is the fast sesmic wave!!
hope this helps!!
What are the lengths of the legs of a right triangle in which one acute angle measures 19° and the hypotenuse is 15 units long? A. 9 units, 12 units B. 11 units, 10.2 units C. 4.9 units, 15.8 units D. 4.9 units, 14.2 units E. 5.2 units, 14.1 units
The lengths of the legs of a right triangle is 4.9 units, 15.8 units and one acute angle measures 19° and the hypotenuse is 15 units long.
The answer is C. 4.9 units, 15.8 units
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
Option D, [tex]4.9[/tex] units
[tex]14.2[/tex] units
Explanation:
In a right angled triangle one angle is [tex]90[/tex]° while the sum of other two angle is [tex]90[/tex]°
Now if we go by the geometrical concepts
[tex]Sin (19) = \frac{base}{hypotenuse} \\[/tex]
Base length of the triangle is equal to
[tex]15 * sin 19\\= 4.9[/tex] units
As per the rule of Pythagorean theorem -
[tex](Hypotenuse)^2 = (Base length)^2 + ( Vertical side length)^2\\[/tex]
Substituting the values in above equation, we get -
[tex](15)^ 2 = (4.9)^2 + X^2\\X = \sqrt{(15)^2 - (4.9)^2} \\X = \sqrt{200.99} \\X = 14.2[/tex] units
The cardiovascular system is composed of which of the following?
lungs, blood vessels, and heart
heart, lungs, and brain
heart, blood, and blood vessels
heart, arteries, and veins
heart, arteries, and veins
Although generally not considered to be alive,a _______ is studied alongside other microbes such as bacteria
The answer is virus it is considered to be alive