Answer: Option E - One of the animal’s major body axes would fail to develop normally.
Explanation:
Cytoplasmic determinants help the organs of the embryo to develop.
Hence, absence of cytoplasmic determinants would result in one of the animal’s major body axes failing to develop normally.
2. Suppose that you and 19 of your classmates (giving a final population of 10 males and 10 females) are on a cruise, and your ship sinks near a deserted island. You and all of your friends make it to shore and start a new population isolated from the rest of the world. Two of your friends carry the recessive allele (i.e., are heterozygous) for phenylketonuria. If the frequency of this allele does not change as the population on your island increases, what will be the incidence of phenylketonuria on your island?
Answer:
0.25%
Explanation:
20 people start the new population. So there are 20 genes or 40 alleles for the recessive disorder phenylketonuria. 2 out of 40 alleles are recessive for the condition hence frequency of the allele = 2/40 = 0.05
Frequency of the allele does not change when the population increases so it is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. According to it, if q is the frequency of recessive allele, q² = frequency of the recessive condition
Here, q = 0.05 So,
q² = (0.05)² = 0.0025
In percentage, it is 100 * 0.0025 = 0.25%
Hence, incidence of phenylketonuria in the new population is 0.25%
Hence, 0.25% of the population will be born with Phenylketonuria.
Hardy-Weinberg principle:The principle states that the allelic frequency remains constant through generations and the gene pool remains constant. This phenomenon is called genetic equilibrium.
The population of 20 people comprises 40 alleles. Out of these 40 alleles, 2 are for phenylketonuria.
Assigning this allele to [tex]q[/tex],
We get,
[tex]q=\frac{2}{40}\\ q=5\%[/tex]
Now as per the Hardy-Weinberg principle, if the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is [tex]q[/tex] then the incidence/frequency of recessive allele individuals will be,
[tex]q^2=q\times q\\=0.05\times 0.05\\q^2=0.0025\\=0.25\%[/tex]
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The net result of excretion of H+ in the urine is the ____ within the blood.
A. retention of H2PO4-
B. conversion of CO2 to H2CO3
C. conversion of CO2 to HCO3-
D. retention of Na+
B
The net result of excretion of H+ in the urine is the __conversion of CO₂ to H₂CO₃__ within the blood.
Explanation:
Excretion of H+ ions from the blood via urine means decreasing the H+ content in the blood. This consequently means the blood pH rises ad becomes more basic (remember H+ ions are responsible for acidity for a solution). For the body to maintain the homeostatic pH of between 7.35 and 7.45, the carbonic anhydrase activity will increase hence dissolving more CO₂ into the blood plasma to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). Carbonic acid dissociated fast into H⁺ and HCO₃⁻. The H+ from the dissociation replenishes the H⁺ to the right concentration.
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Which of the following statements is FALSE of basic emotions? They are innate. They are universal. They are greatly influenced by experience. They can be determined from facial expressions.
The statement that can be considered as false as regards basic emotions is B: They are universal.
Basic emotions can be regarded as a special class of emotions that encompass all other emotions. According to theorist, It is a type of emotion with some attributes such been innate, they can be influenced by experience and can be determined from facial expressions.There basic emotions that exist are:
happinesssadness fearangerTherefore, option C is correct.
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Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
Complete Question :
Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
1 Monitoring urinary output
2 Assessing nutritional status
3 Monitoring respiratory status
4 Assessing communication needs
Answer: the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis is Monitoring respiratory status.
Explanation.Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body's immune system attacks the nerves. needsThe most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure caused by respiratory muscle paralysis.
There are a number of unique features to eukaryotic pre-mRNA splicing. Select all that apply.A. Introns are thought to encode specific subunits of proteins.B. Introns likely slow down gene expression.C. Introns need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations.D. There are often multiple introns in a gene.
Answer:
Option (A), (C) and (D).
Explanation:
Introns are the non coding nucleotide sequence of the gene. They may present within the gene or may lie outside the exons. Introns are responsible for the gene evolution.
Introns can also responsible for encoding the proteins subunit. Introns needs to be removed from the exons by the process known as splicing. Different splicing are alternate splice, group I and II intron. Different multiple introns can be present in the gene.
Thus, the correct option is (A), (C) and (D).
Final answer:
Introns likely slow down gene expression, need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations, and there are often multiple introns in a gene.
Explanation:
B. Introns likely slow down gene expression.
C. Introns need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations.
D. There are often multiple introns in a gene.
These are the unique features of eukaryotic pre-mRNA splicing. Introns slow down gene expression because they need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations. Genes can have multiple introns, which need to be spliced out before the mRNA can be translated into protein.
The ""preservationist ethic"" is associated with ______________ .
Answer: maintenance the health of the natural world. Through allocation,exploitation and protection
Explanation:
This involves the health state of the living organisms of the word :the vegaation, the aquatic organisms and ithe biodervasity.
The preservationist ethic is associated with conservation movement.
The preservationist ethic is a philosophy that advocates for the protection and conservation of natural resources, ecosystems, and wildlife. It is closely associated with the conservation movement, which emerged in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The conservation movement was a response to the rapid industrialization and exploitation of natural resources that was occurring at the time.
Key figures in the movement, such as John Muir and Theodore Roosevelt, championed the idea that certain areas of natural beauty and ecological significance should be preserved for future generations. This ethic led to the establishment of national parks, wildlife refuges, and other protected areas, as well as laws and policies aimed at sustainable use of natural resources. The conservation movement has evolved over time and continues to influence environmental policy and conservation efforts around the world.
Two processes which chemically alter parent material are Select one:
a. oxidation and hydrolysis.
b. decomposition and oxidation.
c. hydrolysis and liming.
d. freezing and thawing.
Answer:A oxidation and hydrolysis
Explanation:
These two reactions involved the formation of two new product materials different from the r original parent materials
There was a s different tructural arrangement in bond formatio in new product s
Electron composition also varies
a moving cell with a high mitochondria content is likely A. an animal cell getting ready to photosynthesize B. a plant cell without a cell wall C. A heterotrophic cell D. A Golgi apparatus without a nucleus
Answer: option C - A heterotrophic cell
Explanation:
An organism is said to be an heterotroph if it is unable to produce its own food, making it rely on green plants or other autotrophs for nutrients. So, heterotrophic organisms are usually the classed as consumers (primary, secondary etc).
Due to the need of energy consumption and absorption, heterotrophic organisms (with heterotrophic cells) usually have high mitochondrial content (to help in energy metabolism) and moves about (mobile) in search of nutrients (prey)
The letter associated with each subshell tells us what, specifically? Choose the one best answer.
A. the principal quantum number of the orbital.
B. the principal shell of the orbital.
C. the maximum number of electrons.
D. the three dimensional shape of the orbital.
E. none of the above
Explanation:
Principle quantum number
In electronic configuration of an atom the Orbits or Shells are denoted using n.
K=1, L=2, M=3, N=4 ................ and so on. This number n is of significance which denotes the energy level where the electrons are found.
Orbital Angular Momentum Quantum Number (l)
The orbital angular momentum no. [tex]l[/tex] denotes the subshell of the electron. It tells the shape of the subshells as well.
s subshell corresponds to l=0, p subshell corresponds to l=1, d subshell corresponds to l=2, f subshell corresponds to l=3, and so on.
Magnetic Quantum Number (m)
Magnetic quantum no. denotes the no. of orbitals present in the subshell.
Each orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons both having opposite spin.
The no. of orbitals is taken from the angular momentum quantum number having given as [tex](2l+1)[/tex]
Now the magnetic quantum no. ranges from [tex]-l\ to\ +l[/tex] which includes zero in the middle.
There are n² number of orbitals found in an energy level.
Spin Magnetic Quantum Number (S)
Spin quantum no. can have values either [tex]-\frac{1}{2}\ or\ +\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
orbitals cannot contain two electrons of the same spin.
Electron with positive sign is known as alpha electron and the negative one is called beta electron.
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Final answer:
The letter associated with each subshell specifies the three-dimensional shape of the orbital. The correct option is D.
Explanation:
The letter associated with each subshell indicates the three-dimensional shape of the orbital. For instance, the letter 's' refers to a spherical orbital shape, 'p' refers to a bell-shaped orbital, 'd' and 'f' are for more complex shapes with five and seven orbitals respectively. The principal quantum number (n) designates the size and energy level of an orbital, while the angular momentum quantum number (l) corresponds to the subshell and describes the shape of the orbitals within that subshell. The correct answer to the question is therefore option D. The three-dimensional shape of the orbital is the key characteristic represented by the subshell's letter designation.
A portion of a polypeptide produced by a mammalian cell was found to have the following sequence of amino acids:...Lys-Ser-Pro-Ser-Leu-Asn-Ala... - In a normal cell...Lys-Val-His-His-Leu-Met-Ala...- In a mutant cella.) What was the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded this portion of the original polypeptide?b.) What was the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA encoding this portion of the mutant polypeptide?c.) Can you determine which nucleotide was deleted and which was inserted?
a) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the original polypeptide: AAA UCU CCU UCU UUA AAU GCU
b) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the mutant polypeptide: AAA GUU CAU CAU UUA AUG GCU
c) The nucleotide that was deleted was C, and the nucleotide that was inserted was G.
a.
The given sequence of amino acids for the original polypeptide is:
Lys-Ser-Pro-Ser-Leu-Asn-Ala
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the corresponding codons for each amino acid:
Lys (AAA or AAG)
Ser (UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, or AGC)
Pro (CCU, CCC, CCA, or CCG)
Ser (UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, or AGC)
Leu (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, or CUG)
Asn (AAU or AAC)
Ala (GCU, GCC, GCA, or GCG)
b) Nucleotide sequence of the mRNA segment that encoded the mutant polypeptide:
The given sequence of amino acids for the mutant polypeptide is:
Lys-Val-His-His-Leu-Met-Ala
Using the genetic code table, we can determine the corresponding codons for each amino acid:
Lys (AAA or AAG)
Val (GUU, GUC, GUA, or GUG)
His (CAU or CAC)
His (CAU or CAC)
Leu (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, or CUG)
Met (AUG)
Ala (GCU, GCC, GCA, or GCG)
c) Comparing the mRNA sequences for the original and mutant polypeptides, we can see that the following changes occurred:
Original: AAA UCU CCU UCU UUA AAU GCU
Mutant: AAA GUU CAU CAU UUA AUG GCU
The differences are:
The codon UCU (Ser) was replaced by GUU (Val)
The codon CCU (Pro) was replaced by CAU (His)
The codon UCU (Ser) was replaced by CAU (His)
The codon AAU (Asn) was replaced by AUG (Met)
Pre-Lab Questions What are two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments? Describe three ways that microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem as a whole. Give two examples of genera that produce endospores, and explain why they are important in human health. What are coliforms? Why are they important in assuring water quality? Why is E. coli the indicator bacterium for fecal contamination?
What are two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments?
Answer:
1. Presence of thick cell wall in prokaryotes help them to survive in hypo-osmotic and hyper-osmotic conditions.
2. Production of endospores by bacteria. Bacteria use these structures to produce off sprigs because these structures are heat and drought resistant. They germinate when the conditions became favorable for growth.
Describe three ways that microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem as a whole.
Answer:
1. As decomposer return the nitrogen contents back to ecosystem.
2. Bacteria detoxify may harmful substances present in water bodies therefore some species of bacteria are used for bio-remediation of ecosystem.
3. Bacterial byproducts help plant to grow faster because these byproducts act as stimuli for plant growth.
Give two examples of genera that produce endospores, and explain why they are important in human health.
Answer:
Endospore Producing Genus:
Bacteria belongs to genus Bacillus and Clostridium produce endospores.
Importance for humans.:
1. Bacillus species are used to produce antibiotics, metabolites, enzymes which help in curing human diseases.
2. While species of Clostridium cause food poisoning in human.
What are coliforms? Why are they important in assuring water quality?
Answer:
Coliforms are gram negative bacteria have road like shape found in spoiled water.
Importance:
These bacteria are important indicator of polluted water therefore in water quality testing their presence tells us about the water quality that how much is this water polluted.
Why is E. coli the indicator bacterium for fecal contamination?
Answer:
E. Coli found in the intestine of humans. As E. Coli itself does not cause mild infections therefore its presence indicates the presence if other deadly pathogens which may cause dangerous diseases to human.
Final answer:
Prokaryotes survive in extreme environments via adaptations like protective cell walls and the ability to form endospores. Genera like Bacillus and Clostridium are crucial in understanding human health due to their durability and disease potential. E. coli serves as an indicator of fecal contamination in water quality monitoring.
Explanation:
Two ways that some prokaryotes are able to survive in extreme environments include having a protective cell wall that allows them to endure both hyper- and hypo-osmotic conditions, and the ability of some soil bacteria to form endospores, which resist heat and drought. Microorganisms in soil contribute to the ecosystem by assisting in soil formation and stabilization, fixing nitrogen into usable forms for eukaryotes, and participating in bioremediation to remove pollutants from the environment.
Examples of genera that produce endospores include Bacillus and Clostridium, which are important in human health due to their resistance to adverse conditions and their potential to cause diseases. Coliforms are a group of gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria that are typically used as an indicator of water quality. E. coli is the most commonly used indicator bacterium for fecal contamination because it is predominantly found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals, making it a reliable sign of fecal pollution in water sources.
Why do scientists studying evolutionary medicine in humans examine distantly-related species (e.g., yeast, nematode worms, frogs, plants, mice)? a) Clusters of orthologs common to humans and other species can be associated with the same functions b) They can be informative about how cells sense their environments c) Other organisms reproduce more quickly than humans, d) Shutting down genes is possible in more distantly related species but it is not ethically allowed in humans e) all of the above f) a, b, and c
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-F
Explanation:
The modern medical, molecular and genetic studies are performed on the model organism like C. elegans, mice and many others.
The reason for the studies is that the life span of these organisms is of short duration as compared to humans. These organisms are also made of cells which are sensitive to their environment as humans.
The studies have shown that this organism shows an orthology relationship in their genes due to the origin of the genes from the same ancestral genes.
Thus, option-F is the correct answer.
Explain how the retreat of North American glaciers 16,000 years ago influence the distribution of trees.
Answer:
North American glacier:About some 15,000 years ago earth faced a catastrophic event of ice age termed as Last Glacial Maximum(LGM), which covered most of the globe. As the northern region of the American continent, along with that most of the region in the European lands. Which made it very hard for the living beings to survive.
Explanation:
Effects on Plants-The process of producing more food was been halted by the severe conditions globally and there were more unfavorable conditions for the plants, as the level and height of ice over the surface was in the range of Km's. As the trees and plants did not had any water available due to low temperature in the region.As most of the Amazon was in scattered form and the rain forests were greatly effected by the ice age, as it covered the surface of the land in the north American region.Due, to too much ice and lack of fertile soil available there were less crop and less trees developed, which caused more severe conditions.Which of the following is an example of an epigenetic change in eukaryotes? A) a loss of an AT base pair from a gene B) the addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene C) the substitution of an AT base pair by a GC base pair in a gene as a result of a mistake during DNA replicationD) a deletion that simultaneously removes two genes from the genome E) None of these examples represents epigenetic changes.
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
The addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene.
Epigenetic modifications entails DNA methylation and histone modification
According to the evolutionary perspective, which of the following statements accurately reflects the role of gender differences?
a) Gender differences have little bearing on the survival of the species.
b) Males with more nurturing characteristics attract females with competitive traits.
c) Females with nurturing characteristics are valued for their tendency to help children survive.
d) Forceful and competitive females attract males who can provide them with sturdy offspring.
Answer:
C- Females with nurturing characteristics are valued for their tendency to help children survive
Explanation:
The role of the female gender according to the evolutionary perspective was simply that of procreation and nurturer. They were required for their ability to birth offsprings that would grow into adults and thus, females recognized as possessing nurturing characteristics tended to attract more males as mates as it was believed they'll procreate children and help them survive well into adulthood
On a field expedition to Yellowstone National Park, you collected water samples from some of the hot springs in the hope of discovering new species of thermophilic bacterium. One such bacterium grew in the laboratory and after sequencing the entire genome of this new bacterium by the whole-genome shotgun approach, you use a computer program to search for start/stop signals for translation and homology searches based on similarity to cDNAs in the database. You predict approximately 20,000 genes. Is this an accurate representation of the total number of genes in the organism? Why or why not?
Answer:
No, it is not correct.
Explanation:
No, this is not an adequate representation for the total number of genes in the studied organism. The reason is because we are looking for start/stop signals to make comparisons with a database, and only genes that encode proteins carry start/stop signals; therefore, the 20,000 genes that were predicted correspond only to genes that encode proteins, leaving aside others that do not, so the estimate obtained is not correct.
Development and impact on desert areas is mainly due to Select one:
a. air conditioning.
b. roads and highways.
c. modern irrigation.
d. None of these are correct.
Answer:
Answer is C. Modern irrigation.
Explanation:
The word 'irrigation ' means the process of supplying water or watering of land in preparation for planting and watering of planted crops to survive.
Modern irrigation involves the construction of hoses, channels and canals. This is done so that water will be available through out the seasons for the crops, and water will be supplied to areas where there is scarcity of water.
Irrigation is very important because it prevents famine, improves water condition in the soil by dissolving nutrients for plant use.
During a period of almost a million years, Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis lived in the same region of East Africa. If these species shared a habitat, how did they not outcompete one another? Be sure to provide a detailed answer that includes information from the fossil record, such as specific physical traits and behaviors in these species.
Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis coexisted in East Africa but didn't outcompete each other due to their different physical traits and behaviors. A.boisei had a robust skull and teeth for chewing tough plant material, while H. habilis had a more modern skull, larger brain, and was skilled in making and using tools.
Explanation:Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis coexisted in the same region of East Africa for a long time, but they didn't outcompete each other because they had different physical traits and behaviors.
Australopithecus boisei, also known as 'Nutcracker Man,' had a massive, robust skull and large molars for chewing tough plant material. It had a specialized diet and was adapted to eat hard, gritty foods by using its strong jaw muscles.
On the other hand, Homo habilis had a smaller, more modern-looking skull and teeth. It had a larger brain and was more skilled in making and using tools. Homo habilis had a more diverse and flexible diet, which allowed them to exploit a wider range of resources.
These differences in physical characteristics and behaviors allowed Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis to occupy different ecological niches within the same habitat, reducing competition between the two species.
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Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely avoided competition through niche partitioning, with distinct diets, tools, and social behaviors.
Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely occupied different ecological niches within the same region. While both were early hominins, they likely had distinct dietary preferences, foraging strategies, and social behaviors.
Australopithecus boisei, characterized by robust skull features including large molars and thick enamel, is often referred to as the "Nutcracker Man" due to its specialization in consuming hard, tough foods like nuts and seeds. In contrast, Homo habilis, with a more gracile skull and smaller teeth, likely had a more varied diet, including softer foods like fruits, vegetables, and meat.
Homo habilis is associated with the earliest stone tool production, suggesting a capacity for more efficient food processing and resource exploitation. This technological advantage may have allowed Homo habilis to access a broader range of food resources compared to Australopithecus boisei.
Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely had different social structures and behaviors. Homo habilis, with a larger brain size and evidence of more complex tool-making abilities, may have had a more sophisticated social organization, allowing for cooperation in resource acquisition and defense against predators
In ecological terms, species can coexist in the same habitat by partitioning available resources, thereby reducing competition. Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely occupied different dietary niches, with minimal overlap in resource utilization. This niche partitioning allowed them to coexist without significant competition for food resources.
While Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis lived in the same region of East Africa, they likely avoided direct competition through differences in dietary preferences, tool use, and social behaviors, ultimately allowing them to coexist in the same habitat for almost a million years.
Match the cell adhesion or junction with the appropriate choice. Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all terms will be used. ResetHelp adherens junctions: desmosome: cell junctions: connexons: plaque: tonofilaments: hemidesmosome: adhesive junction: tight junctions: connexin: gap junction: focal adhesion: create a permeability barrier between epithelial cells
Answer:
The missing options are:
A) protein subunits associated with gap junctions.
B) a type of adhesive junction connecting an epithelial cell to the basal lamina.
C) collection of fibrous intracellular attachment proteins.
D) create a permeability barrier.
E) button-like points of strong adhesion between two cells.
F) hollow cylinders associated with gap junctions.
G) type of adherens junction connecting cells with the extracellular matrix.
H) intermediate filaments associated with plaques.
I) collection of adherens junctions particularly associated with epithelial cells.
J) type of adhesive junction containing actin microfilaments.
K) specialized modifications of the cell membrane in which two cells come together in multicellular organisms.
L) point of cytoplasmic contact between two cells.
M) anchors cytoskeleton of one cell with that of a neighboring cell.
Set of answers are:
A) protein subunits associated with gap junctions. Conexin
B) a type of adhesive junction connecting an epithelial cell to the basal lamina. Hemidesmosome
C) collection of fibrous intracellular attachment proteins. Plaque
D) create a permeability barrier. Tight junctions
E) button-like points of strong adhesion between two cells. Desmosome
F) hollow cylinders associated with gap junctions. Connexons
G) type of adherens junction connecting cells with the extracellular matrix. focal adhesion
H) intermediate filaments associated with plaques. Tonofilaments
I) collection of adherens junctions particularly associated with epithelial cells.
J) type of adhesive junction containing actin microfilaments. Adherens junctions
K) specialized modifications of the cell membrane in which two cells come together in multicellular organisms. Cell junctions
L) point of cytoplasmic contact between two cells. Gap junction
M) anchors cytoskeleton of one cell with that of a neighboring cell. Adhesive junction
Explanation:
Connexin: is a transmembrane protein that forms the gap junctions, they are also called gap junctions proteins.
Hemidesmosome junctions: these types of junctions are in the epidermis, specifically between the epithelial cells and the basal lamina of the epidermis.
Plaque: they are part of the adherens junctions, they are fibrous proteins that are attached to certain points of the extracellular matrix.
Tight junctions: are junctions between two epithelia, they are very restrictive and do not allow the passage of soluble molecules creating a permeability barrier.
Desmosomes: are very strong cell to cell junctions on the lateral sides of plasma membranes. They are in tissues that are under mechanical stress, such as the cardiac muscle.
Connexons: is a pore made of six connexin proteins in a gap junction. Connexons are the ones that connect two cells in gap junctions.
Focal adhesions: They connect the extracellular matrix with the cell, regulatory signs and mechanical force is transmitted through them.
Tonofilaments: tonofilaments are the ones that are associated with a plaque in adherens junctions, they are in epithelial tissues.
Adherens junctions: are cell to cell junctions where the cytoplasmatic face is connected to the actin cytoskeleton. They appear as spots forming the plaque or as zonula adherens, which are actin bands around the cell.
Cell junctions are protein complexes that connect two cells that are next to each other or a cell with the extracellular matrix. They have a lot of functions, such as pas information from cell to cell, or the exterior, form a barrier, synchronize cells, etc.
Gap junctions: are connections between the cytoplasm of two cells, molecules and, ions pass directly from one cell to the other.
Tight junctions create a permeability barrier between epithelial cells, desmosomes anchor cells together, and gap junctions allow direct communication between adjacent cells.
Explanation:Tight junctions create a permeability barrier between epithelial cells, preventing substances from leaking between cells. They seal the cells together using specialized proteins called claudins and occludins. This ensures that only selective molecules can pass through the cells. Desmosomes are adhesive junctions that anchor cells together, particularly in tissues that undergo mechanical stress, such as the skin. They consist of proteins called cadherins that connect with intermediate filaments, like tonofilaments, to provide structural support. Gap junctions are formed by connexons and are specialized cell junctions that allow direct communication and the exchange of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells. This facilitates coordinated activities among cells in tissues.
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For the following characteristic, indicate M for monocot and E for eudicot. Vascular bundles neatly and uniformly arranged around the stem
Answer:
M: Eudicot
Explanation:
In the dicot stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with pith concentrated at the core of the stem, rather than being scattered throughout the plant interior. In each vascular bundle, the xylem and phloem are separated by a substance called vascular cambium
The main difference between stems of both the plants is due to the arrangement of the vascular bundle. In monocots stem, the vascular bundles are scattered across the stem without any definite arrangement. On the other hand, in dicots stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in the form of one or two broken rings, following that they have a definite shape.
The correct label for vascular bundles neatly arranged around the stem is E for eudicot. In eudicots, vascular tissue forms a ring in the stem, unlike in monocots where it is scattered.
Explanation:For the characteristic of vascular bundles being neatly and uniformly arranged around the stem, the correct labeling is E for eudicot. In eudicots, also known as true dicots, the vascular tissue, which includes both xylem and phloem, forms a ring in the stem.
This is in contrast to monocots, where vascular tissue is scattered in the stem without a uniform arrangement. An example of this arrangement is the clover stem, a eudicot, that shows vascular bundles organized in a ring with a large central pith.
You are investigating the role of physical activity in heart disease, and your data suggest a protective effect. Whilepresenting your findings, a colleague asks whether you have thought about confounders, such as factor. Under which ofthe following conditions could this factor have confounded your interpretation of the data?a. It is a risk factor for some other disease, but not heart disease.b. It is a risk factor associated with the physical activity measure and heart disease.c. It is part of the causal pathway by which physical activity affects heart disease.d. It has caused a lack of follow-up of test subjects.e. It may have blinded your study.
Answer: option E - It may have blinded your study.
Explanation:
A confounder is a factor, in data analysis, that causes the effects of two distinct processes to be indistinguishable/ unknown.
Of course, the confounder (factor) could have made the protective effect against heart disease a function of more than just physical activity - bringing other factors like heredity or diet history etc into consideration.
So, the confounder (factor) may have blinded your study.
How many grams of carbohydrate per day are recommended for adults 19 years and older?
A. 75 grams
B. 100 grams
C. 130 grams
D. 160 grams
Answer:
correct option is C. 130 grams
Explanation:
solution
as carbohydrate is a macro nutrient that is found in many foods and beverage
Most of carbohydrate occur in plant base food
some main natural source of carbohydrate are
vegetablefruitnutsmilkgrainseedsand for adult age of 19 years to 30 years carbohydrate need is 130 grams per day
and adult male age of 19 years to 30 years fiber need is 38 grams per day
and adult female age of 19 years to 30 years fiber need is 25 grams per day
so correct option is C. 130 grams
What happens when sperm capacitate?
Answer:
Capacitation of sperm or spermatozoon is a process of functional maturation. The changes occur in the cell membrane of the sperm cells.
The removal of the layer of glycoprotein takes place in the capacitation process of sperm that result in making receptors available.
The other change that takes place is the alteration of the acrosomal cap that helps in acrosome reaction possible. These changes help in the sperms to penetrate and fertilize the egg in the female reproductive tract.
In today’s pattern of extinction, the generation of new species is unlikely because _____.
A.most plant species are being destroyed
B.entire ecosystems are being destroyed
C.alien species occupy important niches
D.key animal species are being destroyed
Answer:
B.entire ecosystems are being destroyed
Explanation:
for the generation of new species, the present species should have to survive for the period of thousand years in order to produce and develop much better features to make them much better to survive and adapt themselves according to the time.
but in today word, the world living conditions are changing and threatening due to destruction of ecosystem by many activities performed by humans. These destruction will cause endangerment of the generation of the new species.
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
a. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
b. increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
c. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
d. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Answer:
D. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Explanation:
Activation of the sympathetic division under any emergency or stress conditions results in a series of physiological responses collectively referred to as flight or fight response.
The sympathetic nervous system causes an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Increased pumping of blood through the heart ensures enough supply of oxygen to muscles required to produce the desired responses.
It also causes constriction of blood vessels that supply gastrointestinal tract and reduced muscular activities of smooth muscles of GI trait. The result is reduced blood flow through these tissues, reduced peristalsis and slowing of digestive activities, which are not required during exercise. The sympathetic nervous system also triggers the release of glucose by the liver increases blood glucose level.
Sympathetic division stimulation causes d) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.
Explanation:Sympathetic division stimulation causes d) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the body's response to stress or danger. When this division is stimulated, it triggers a release of epinephrine, which leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. It also inhibits the activity of the digestive system, resulting in decreased GI peristalsis. Lastly, sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and blood pressure to prepare the body for fight or flight.Learn more about Effects of sympathetic division stimulation here:https://brainly.com/question/31522035
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Organisms commonly used to test the effectiveness of disinfectants include Bacillus megaterium, Mycrobacterium bovis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and staphylococcus aureus. Why are these species often used and without performing any test how would you rank their susceptibility to disinfection?
Answer with Explanation:
These species have different structural composition therefore they possess bacterial resistance towards disinfectants. As Bacillus megaterium belongs to spore producing family therefor it is said that they are most difficult to kill followed by Mycrobacterium bovis having a thick wall with waxy coating. While Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative cell and staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacteria.
By following order, you rank their susceptibility to disinfection:
Least Susceptible > Most Susceptible
Bacillus megaterium>Mycrobacterium bovis>Pseudomonas aeruginosa>staphylococcus aureus
Mammal like reptiles and exotic ocean animals were present during the Permian period. What types of life were NOT on Earth 250 million years ago?
Answer:
Dinosaurs, flowers, animals with fur and flowering plants
Explanation:
Mass extinction occurs when more than half of the world’s species die in a geologically short period. A species is a group of organisms similar in appearance, anatomy, physiology, and genetics.
The environment changes so fast that most species can’t adapt or evolve, so they go extinct.
Dinosaurs, birds, and flowering plants were not present on Earth 250 million years ago during the Permian period.
Explanation:The Permian period, which occurred around 250 million years ago, was a time when mammal-like reptiles and exotic ocean animals existed. However, there were certain types of life that were not present on Earth during this period. One example would be dinosaurs, which did not appear until later in the Triassic period, after the Permian period had ended.
Additionally, birds, which are descended from dinosaurs, were also not present during this time. Finally, flowering plants, or angiosperms, had not yet evolved, and instead, the plant life consisted mainly of ferns and conifers.
Learn more about Life during the Permian period here:https://brainly.com/question/33570008
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What happens during the initiation step of DNA transcription? A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand. RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand. A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble. The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.
Answer:
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.
Explanation:
Transcription is the process in which DNA template is used to synthesize mRNA.
There are three steps of transcription:
InitiationIt is the process in which a portion of DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase binds to the promotor region on the DNA.
ElongationIt is the process in which RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template and synthesizes mRNA. During this process, unwinding of double stranded DNA takes place.
TerminationAs the RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template, it finally reaches a termination signal and then stops synthesizing. It is followed by the detachment of the newly formed mRNA and RNA polymerase from the DNA.
QUESTION:
A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this process does not happen in the process of transcription. This event happens in the process of translation in which mRNA is used to synthesize proteins or amino acids. mRNA attaches to ribosome during this process.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this event takes place in the process of elongation.
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.This is the correct answer choice as this event takes place in the process of initiation of transcription
The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice. This event takes place in the event of termination of transcription.
If George is spanked immediately after his baby sister cries, he is likely to become fearful every time she cries. If Ken is spanked immediately before his baby sister cries, he is not likely to become fearful when she cries. What do the different reactions of George and Ken suggest about the role of cognitive processes in associative learning?
Answer:
Associative learning may be defined as a type of learning in which the new response gets easily associated with the stimulus. Except habituation learning all simple learning procedure are included in this learning.
In the associative learning, reactions of an individual are based on there spank. George learns to cry on being spanked this is because this stimulus of sister cries gives response. Crying do not show any effect on ken because he does not know about his sister crying.
True/False
Island biology is excellent for studying the origin of species, because of their isolation, island species tend to resemble each other more than the parent populations.
true because Island biology is excellent for studying the origin of species, because of their isolation, island species tend to resemble each other more than the parent populations.