In humans, at the end of meiosis i and at the end of meiosis ii:
a. how many chromosomes are in each cell?

Answers

Answer 1
the answer is 23 pairs of chromosomes per cell.
Answer 2
your answer would be 23

Related Questions

What product produced by yeast cells during fermentation causes bread to rise

Answers

Carbon dioxide









really hope this helps :) 


Answer:

Your answer is Carbon Dioxide

Explanation:

What is sustainability?

Answers

sustainability is the ability to be maintained at a certain rate or level.

Sustainability is a word that is very difficult to define as it is in constant discussion and used with multi-dimensional purposes. In the most colloquial language it is used to refer to the decisions, actions and dispositions to cover the present needs without leaving out the future generations. In other words it deals with a responsible use of resources in order to maitain them over the years. As the industrial era has passed, humans have realized that most of the resources, although renewable, are desapearing because they do not have time to finish their renovation process. Sustainability deals with the decisions that need to taken in order to assure the supply and standar of life over the next decades.

For a particular species of wolf, 55% are female, 20% hunt in medium-sized packs, and 15% are both female and hunt in medium-sized packs. the proportion of wolves that are female but do not hunt in medium-sized packs is

Answers

*Given
Percent of the wolves which are female - 55%
Percent of the wolves which hunt 
     in medium-sized packs                      - 20%
Percent of the wolves which are both
     female and hunt in medium-sized
     packs                                                  - 15%


*Solution

Assuming that there is a total of one hundred wolves in the species, 

1. Since percent (%) means "per 100" or "for every 100" then, 

a. The number of female wolves is

    (55 female wolves / 100 wolves) * 100 wolves total = 55 female wolves

b. The number of wolves that hunt in medium-sized packs is

    (20 wolves / 100 wolves) * 100 wolves total = 20 wolves

    Note that the 20 wolves is a mixture of male and female wolves. 

c. The number of female wolves that hunt in medium-sized packs is

    (15 female wolves / 100 wolves) * 100 wolves total = 15 female wolves

2. Because there is a total of 55 female wolves in the species, and 15 of these wolves hunt in medium-sized packs, then the number of female wolves that do not hunt in medium-sized packs is, 
 
    55 female wolves total - 15 female wolves hunting  = 40 female wolves not
                                                in medium-sized packs         hunting in medium
                                                                                              sized packs

3. To find the proportion, we can express the answer in terms of percent (%) or in fraction, which is usually how proportions are expressed. 

For every 100 wolves, there are 40 female wolves that do not hunt in medium-sized packs. This can be expressed as a proportion of 
 
                                         40  
                                        100

and simplified by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 10, we get,

                                      40/10  
                                     100/10

                                         4   
                                        10

When this is expressed in percent, we multiply the fraction or proportion by 100% to get, 

                                         4      x    100%     = 40%
                                        10

Thus, the proportion of female wolves that do not hunt in medium sized packs is 4/10 or 0.4. When expressed as percent, this is 40%. 
  

1. Probability of neither female nor hunting in medium-sized packs: 0.40.

2. Probability of female given hunting in medium-sized pack: 0.75.

1. To find the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs, we can use the principle of complementary probability. We start by finding the probability of wolves that are either female or hunt in medium-sized packs or both, then subtract this probability from 1 to get the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs.

Probability of wolves that are either female or hunt in medium-sized packs or both:

= Probability of females + Probability of hunting in medium-sized packs - Probability of both

= 55% + 20% - 15%

= 60%

Now, the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs:

= 1 - Probability of wolves that are either female or hunt in medium-sized packs

= 1 - 0.60

= 0.40

Therefore, the probability of selecting a wolf that is neither female nor hunts in medium-sized packs is 0.40.

2. To find the probability of selecting a wolf that is female, given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack, we use conditional probability. We divide the probability of wolves that are both female and hunt in medium-sized packs by the probability of hunting in medium-sized packs.

Probability of selecting a female wolf given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack:

= Probability of both / Probability of hunting in medium-sized packs

= 15% / 20%

= 0.75

Therefore, the probability of selecting a female wolf given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack is 0.75.

Complete Question :

For a particular species of wolf, 55% are female, 20% hunt in medium-sized packs, and 15% are both female and hunt in medium-sized packs. Answer to 2 decimal places, not as a percent.

1. What is the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs?

2. What is the probability of selecting a wolf that is female, given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack?

The second stage of prenatal development begins at about two weeks after conception. at this point, the growing bundle of cells is called a(n) __________

Answers

the second stage of prenatal development begins at about two weeks after conception. at this point, the growing bundle of cells is called an embryo.

After conception, the second stage of prenatal development starts about two weeks later. The developing cell bundle is now referred to as an embryo.

What is the second stage of prenatal development?

Prenatal development takes place in three primary stages. The germinal stage is thought to last for the first two weeks after conception.

Followed by the embryonic period from the third to the eighth week, and the fetal period, which lasts from the ninth week until delivery.

Your prenatal development took place in an ordered and delicate sequence, starting as a one-cell structure and ending with delivery.

Therefore, About two weeks after conception, the second stage of fetal development begins. Currently, the growing cell bundle is referred to as an embryo.

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As someone moves up the managerial hierarchy, which skills become relatively more important?

Answers

As someone moves up the managerial hierarchy, the supervisory skills become relatively more important. 
The higher in the managerial hierarchy the bigger the responsibilty  to establish goals and lead a team of people to achieve them.
Good supervisory skills include effective communication skills.,planning, problem solving,authority..and are essential for a manager.

Identify how a hormone molecule performs its function.

Answers

It's gets the function by creating a hormone
a hormone is any member of a class of signaling molecules produced by glands in multicellular organisms that are transported by the circulatory system to target distant organs to regulate physiology and behavior. hormones have diverse chemical structures, mainly of 3 classes: eicosanoids, steroids, and amino acid derivatives.

I hope this helps




Many of the egyptian gods are associated with animals. what are some of these animals? why do you think these particular animals were included in the egyptian myths?

Answers

Cats were thought to be royal

Baby h.'s mother asks you about cord care and circumcision care for her infant. what should you tell her?

Answers

For cord care, the stump should be open to air and can be covered by thin mild clothing. If it is soiled or wet with urine and stool, it should be cleaned with water and a clean gauze cloth. The mother should notice that the stump should dry and turn black in 2-3 days. The average time for the cord separation is 10-14 days and some dried blood may be seen at the umbilicus at the time of separation.
Circumcision is a surgical procedure that involves removal of the foreskin of the glans penis. It is usually done to promote hygiene and easier cleaning. It is usually performed using surgical device like the Gomco clamp or the Mogen clamo. The nurse has to put petrolatum gauze dressing to the penis for 1-2 days to prevent the diaper hurting the surgical site. The nursing care involves reducing the pain and prevention of the infection. The circumcision should be assessed every 30 minutes for at least 2 hours. the nurse should observe for first voiding after the circumcision to check for urinary obstruction, if any, or penile injury or edema in the penile area. The dressing should be changed at least 3 times in the first 24 hours. fresh dressing should be done with the jelly and ointment application. Tylenol can be given to keep the infant free of pain, swelling, and infection. 

Answer:

To make the care 50% easier just don't cut the babies 20,000 nerve endings off please:)

Explanation:

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Which statement describes the amount of rainfall in grasslands?


less than deserts, more than tundras


more than deserts, more than forests


more than deserts, less than forests


less than deserts, less than forests

Answers

More than deserts, less than forests. I am pretty sure. If not this then it is more than deserts and more than forests.
Your answer would be: More than deserts, less than forests. 

I hope this helps! 

The two main human sources of primary air pollutants are:

Answers

The factory waste ( biohazardous waste)
Carbon dioxide and monoxide

What is the largest natural population of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring? A) Class B) Family C) Genus D) Species

Answers

D speicies is the correct answer

Answer: D) Species

Explanation: Species are the largest group of organisms in which two organisms of the appropriate sexes are capable of interbreeding typically by sexual reproduction to produce fertile offspring.

The element argon has _____ valence electrons. (Input only a whole number, such as 7.)

Answers

18 valence electrons

Answer:

18

Explanation:

is the spinal cord part of the peripheral nervous system

Answers

No; the spinal cord is NOT part of the "peripheral nervous system (PNS)" .

The brain and the spinal cord are part of the "central nervous system (CNS)" .
______________________________________________________

Water enters the soil through a process called

Answers

water enters the soil in a process through infiltration

Some plants (grasses) tend to contain a greater concentration of chlorophyll than others (pines). can you develop a hypothesis to explain this? would it be testable?

Answers

I would hypothesize that plants (such as grasses) that are lower to the ground, and thus more likely to be somewhat shielded from sunlight, contain higher concentrations of chlorophyll to assist in the growth and energizing process than do other vegetal organisms (such as pines) which are not blocked from the light of the sun.

The idea that species evolve at a slow constant rate is called

Answers

evolution theory 

It was elaborated by C Darwin

Answer: The correct answer is -

Gradualism.

Gradualism can be described as an evolutionary theory according to which evolution of organisms/species proceeds continuously at a slow and steady rate that is without any sudden formation of new biological features or sudden formation of new species from one generation to the next generation. The approach in which Charles Darwin proposed the emergence of new species (over many generations) from already existing species is attributed to gradualism.

In other words, species evolving at slow and constant rate is known as gradualism.

Which autonomic nerve innervates the urinary bladder, uterus, and external genitalia?

Answers

Autonomic splanchnic nerve innervates the urinary bladder, uterus, and external genitalia, sympathetic nerve that originates from the paravertebral thoracic ganglia, but does not innervate thoracic viscera, but abdominal. There are two splanchnic nerves: greater (of the V-IX ganglia) and minor (of the X and XI ganglia). Sometimes, a third appears, the most caudal, called imo (ganglion XII). All of them end in the celiac plexus.

Answer:

Autonomic splanchnic nerve innervates the urinary bladder, uterus, and outside genitalia, thoughtful nerve that begins from the paravertebral thoracic ganglia, however does not innervate thoracic viscera, but rather stomach.  

Explanation:

There are two splanchnic nerves: more noteworthy (of the V-IX ganglia) and minor (of the X and XI ganglia). In some cases, a third shows up, the most caudal, called imo (ganglion XII). Every one of them end in the celiac plexus.Dysautonomia or autonomic brokenness is a condition in which the autonomic sensory system (ANS) does not work legitimately. ... Various illnesses can highlight dysautonomia, for example, Parkinson's malady, HIV/AIDS, different framework decay, autonomic fa

An advantage allowing the seed plant to greatly surpass the seedless vascular plants in colonizing the land was the evolution of:

Answers

An advantage allowing the seed plant to greatly surpass the seedless vascular plants in colonizing the land was the evolution of air-dispersed sperm in pollen grains.Pollen is produced by the gymnosperms (and flowering plants as well) as a package for the dispersal of sperm. 

If an individual has the genotype xxx, did non-disjunction occur in their mother or their father (or both) and at which division(s), meiosis i or meiosis ii? check all that apply:

Answers

The mother's genotype is XX and the father's XY. An individual that has the genotype XXX, if any non-disjunction happened, it occur in her mother because only from her mother, she could receive 2 Xs, while form her father, if a non-disjunction was to happen in this chromosomes, it would result in a XXY.
This non-disjunction happened during meiosis I, which is when the two copies of the same chromosome are taken each to a different cell. During this process, the separation did not happen on this two chromosomes being both Xs from the mother taken together to the new haploid cell. The non-disjunction on meiosis II only implies that the two chromatids from a chromosome did not separate and does not result in copies of the same chromosome.

What are the primary components of panera bread's value chain?

Answers


The value chain, Panera Bread's value chain has several component to its value chain, customer service, operating performance, and most important being inbound logistics. The most important for Panera Bread is the Priority on inbound logistics, as it is what differentiates their product from their competitors, which is their most important competitive advantage.
Final answer:

The primary components of Panera Bread's value chain include inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, marketing and sales, and service.

Explanation:

The primary components of Panera Bread's value chain are as follows:

Inbound logistics: This involves receiving and storing raw materials, such as ingredients for their menu items. Panera Bread has a centralized supply chain management system that ensures efficient inbound logistics.Operations: This includes activities such as food preparation, cooking, and baking. Panera Bread follows standardized recipes and uses high-quality ingredients to ensure consistency and quality.Outbound logistics: Once the food is prepared, it is packaged and delivered to the different Panera Bread locations. The company also offers takeout and delivery services.Marketing and sales: Panera Bread invests in advertising, promotions, and digital marketing to attract customers. They also have a loyalty program to retain existing customers.Service: Panera Bread focuses on providing excellent customer service. They have well-trained staff and follow strict hygiene and cleanliness standards.

Why are eukaryotic proteins larger than prokaryotic?

Answers

Different cell structure between the two.Prokaryotic is just a cell while eukaryote has room to have the nucleus and other organelles.

Which of the following is not a product or use of tropical rainforest?

a. Food
b. Medicine
c. Tourism
d. None of the above

Answers

Answer: D

All of the choices are products or uses of the rainforest, therefore, the answer is D

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Rainforest is the most diverse forest. It has a variety of plants and animal species.

This forest provides us with many resources that helps us commercially, domestically and therapeutically.

Rain forest provides food and shelter to various types of animals living there. It also provides human being with many herbs and medicines and can be a source of recreational activities.

hence, the correct answer is option D

plants utilize chlorophyll containing chloroplasts and mitochondria. what is the purpose of motochodria when a cell already has chloroplasts?

Answers

B. to turn sugar into energy !!!

Answer:

its b to turn sugars into energy

Explanation:

i got it right

Compression fractures associated with osteoporosis of vertebral bodies can distort the normal thoracic curvature of the vertebral column in a posterior direction. such a distortion is called

Answers

Curvature of the spine can be caused by fractures in people with osteoporosis. Kyphosis is the condition in which the spine curves toward the back. It is also known as 'Dowager's Hump."

If it is not watered, a tulip plant wilts because it

Answers

It loses Turgor Pressure, hope this helped :)
Final answer:

A tulip plant wilts when it is not watered because it loses turgor pressure and cannot properly perform photosynthesis. Watering restores turgor pressure and enables photosynthesis.

Explanation:

Turgor pressure is the force within the cell that pushes the plasma membrane against the cell wall, and it is chiefly maintained by water. So, when a plant doesn't get enough water, it loses this pressure and starts to wilt.

Moreover, water is crucial for the plant's ability to perform photosynthesis. This process, which involves converting sunlight into chemical energy, requires water. When a tulip plant doesn't have enough water, it will stop photosynthesizing for extended periods until it has adequate water to resume doing so. Thus, watering the wilted plant restores both turgor pressure and its ability to photosynthesize.

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Large herbivores migrate to find____.


more suitable temperatures


safe breeding grounds


food and water

Answers

Answer: Food and water

Explanation: Every life form on earth survives because of food and water. It is the basic need and cannot be ignored by an organism.

The larger herbivores will migrate to another places in search of food and water. Huge body have huge requirement of energy and hence, this requirement will be fulfilled only food and water.

process and package proteins and lipids in the cell?

Answers

Answer: Endoplasmic recticulum process and package proteins and lipids in the cell.

Explanation:

Endoplasmic recticulum is an organelles that form flattened dacs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. It function in synthesis and transport of protein and lipids. It is divide into two sub unit, the Rough and smooth endoplasmic recticulum.

The Rough endoplasmic recticulum contain some tiny particle and it is attached to ribosomes, which help in protein synthesis.

The smooth endoplasmic recticulum help to produce fat molecules and lipids which is use for body functioning.

Patellar responses often strengthen with diversion how do you explain this observation

Answers

Final answer:

Patellar responses strengthen with diversion due to the balance of forces in the quadriceps femoris muscle. However, an imbalance can cause the patella to track inappropriately causing pain and potential damage. This can be treated by temporarily ceasing the pain-causing activity and correctly strengthening the muscle to avoid a recurrence.

Explanation:

The observation that Patellar responses often strengthen with diversion can be explained based on the concept of muscle balance in the body. The isolated reflex provoked by tapping the tendon below the kneecap (the patellar response) contracts the quadriceps, creating a diversion which strengthens the response.

However, when the pull created by the medial and lateral sides of the quadriceps femoris muscle is irregular, there might be unusual tracking of the patella towards the lateral side. This could potentially cause pain, damage to the articulating surfaces of the patella and femur, and possibly lead to arthritis in the future.

Treatment usually entails pausing the action causing knee discomfort for some time, followed by a gradual return to the activity. To prevent reoccurrence, it is also essential to strengthen the quadriceps femoris muscle correctly to rectify imbalances.

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Final answer:

The patellar response, a spinal reflex, strengthens with diversion because it bypasses brain processes, enabling faster protection and tissue integrity. The knee reflex is an involuntary reaction to stimulation of the patellar tendon. Muscle imbalances can lead to patellofemoral syndrome, highlighting the role of muscle balance in knee health.

Explanation:

The patellar response often strengthens with diversion because it is a spinal reflex that is designed to be quick and protect tissue integrity by bypassing slower brain processes. When the patellar tendon is gently hit, it triggers the quadriceps to contract much faster than voluntary movements since the reflex does not require brain involvement. This reflex action results in the familiar knee , which is an involuntary kick of the lower leg. Moreover, an imbalance in the muscle pull of the quadriceps femoris muscle can lead to patellofemoral syndrome, which underscores the importance of muscle balance for normal patellar tracking and knee health.

what lipids make up the cell membrane? how many layers does it hare? what are the functions of the cell membrane?

Answers

phospholipids, 2 layers. The cell membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It consists of the lipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

The Cell membrane is a continuous double layer of lipid molecules in which membrane proteins are embedded. The cell membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.

The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, is found in all cells and serves to separate the cell's interior from the outside environment. A semipermeable lipid bilayer forms the cell membrane. The cell membrane controls the flow of materials into and out of the cell.

The cell membrane is mostly made up of lipids, specifically phospholipids. Phospholipids are made up of two hydrophobic (water-repelling) tails and a hydrophilic (water-loving) head. The hydrophilic head has a phosphate group that attracts water, whereas the hydrophobic tails have fatty acid chains that repel water.

The cell membrane primary roles are  Selective permeability, Maintaining cell integrity,  Cell signaling, Cell adhesion, Cell recognition.

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In a publishable table format, present your plating results. include expected results and observed results columns in your table. clearly explain why you observe the different colony phenotypes on plates 3 and 4 (transformation b). clearly explain what are the expected colony phenotypes for plate 6 and whether the expected phenotype was observed.

Answers

C. F1 generation is all Yy (let Y be yellow and y be green). Y is dominant to y. The F2 could be YY, Yy, Yy, or yy. 3:1
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