In some experiments, several identical groups are set up, keeping conditions similar among them. In the _____ group, a change is deliberately introduced. In the _____ group, this change is not introduced. In this way, the researcher can determine if the change has an effect.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

In some experiments, several identical groups are set up, keeping conditions similar among them. In the experimental group, a change is deliberately introduced. In the control group, this change is not introduced. In this way, the researcher can determine if the change has an effect.

Explanation:

In every experiment that has to do with having a replicate, there must be a control group which is used to checkmate the effect of what is being tested, hence; nothing is introduced in the control group unlike the experimental group


Related Questions

How do lizard species on mainland california compare in diversity to those found on islands?

Answers

Answer:

Due to more open ecological opportunities on a given island, greater differences occur between island species. A single lineage diversifies rapidly, and descendant populations occupy many habitats and ecological roles.

Explanation:

The field of conservation biology ________.tries to increase speciation events in order to increase biodiversitydeveloped in response to government interventiontries to conserve every species, everywherewas initially viewed as too measurement oriented, looking at details and not at the big pictureattempts to integrate an understanding of evolution and extinction with ecology and environmental systems

Answers

Answer:

attempts to integrate an understanding of evolution and extinction with ecology and environmental systems

Explanation:

The field of Conservation biology is based on the management of nature and of Earth's biodiversity to reduce the level of extinction and the erosion of biotic interactions

So as to protect species, it a habitats and ecosystems

Final answer:

Conservation biology is a field that integrates knowledge from biology, ecology, and environmental systems to understand and address threats to biodiversity, often operating at various levels from individual organisms to entire ecosystems. Strategies include data collection, establishment of preserves, and focus on biodiversity hotspots.

Explanation:

The field of conservation biology is intrinsically linked with the efforts of biodiversity preservation. It is a discipline that integrates concepts from biology, ecology, and environmental systems to understand and counteract threats to biodiversity at the genetic, species, and ecosystem levels. A significant aspect of conservation biology involves generating precise data regarding population size, reproduction factors, habitat requirements, and potential external influences. In the process, conservation biologists often contribute to setting up and maintaining conservation preserves, a critical tool in biodiversity protection, despite the limitations imposed by political and economic forces.

Conservation biology also involves work at four levels: organism, population, community, and ecosystem. A big part of the work in conservation biology is keeping a balance between preservation efforts in protected areas and sustainable efforts outside those areas to ensure a symbiotic co-existence. This includes focusing on areas rich in species, also known as biodiversity hotspots, and targeting them for protection, as they often contain high amounts of endemic species. Lastly, non-profit and non-governmental organizations also play a vital role in conservation efforts across the world.

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Collagens are NOT __________.

A. found as bundles of double-helical polypeptides
B. load-bearing proteins in the extracellular matrix
C. the most abundant component of the extracellular matrix in animals
D. high in glycine, hydroxylysine, and hydroxyproline

Answers

Answer: b

Explanation:

collagen is a tough fibrous protein of bones, tendons,  skin. it is responsible for the strength and structure of these parts of the body.

Collectively, it joins the whole body together.

The information in the passage suggests that in mice CRY1 most likely affects XPA by:

Answers

Answer:

The information in the passage suggests that in mice CRY1 likely affects XPA by repressing the XPA-encoding gene transcription as shown in the graph which indicates a lowering of XPA levels when CRY1 levels is raised.

Final answer:

The proteins produced by the CRY1 gene in mice may interact with or influence the proteins produced by the XPA gene, potentially affecting the timing or efficiency of DNA repair.

Explanation:

Based on the given question, it seems to indicate a relationship between CRY1 and XPA in mice which falls under the scope of genetic biology. The details of mice, CRY1, and XPA were not provided, hence a direct answer cannot be formulated without speculation. However, generally, CRY1 is a gene that encodes a protein in mice that's involved in controlling sleep cycles or circadian rhythms. XPA gene, on the other hand, is related to DNA repair processes. If a passage suggests that CRY1 affects XPA, it could mean that the proteins produced by the CRY1 gene somehow interact with or influence the proteins produced by the XPA gene, potentially to do with the timing or efficiency of DNA repair.

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The nucleus of a cell coordinates processes and activities that take place in the cell. Which two systems perform a similar function in the human body?

Answers

Answer:

The two systems which perform similar function in the human body are;

- The Endocrine system

and

- The Nervous system

The similarity between these two is that they bring about co-ordination. They work very closely to bring about co-ordination of activities. The hypothalamus is the important link between these two systems.

PeAcE.

The nucleus is the cell organelle vital for cell functioning. The endocrine and the nervous system perform a similar function as that of the nucleus.

What are the endocrine and nervous systems?

The nervous system is the body system that comprises the nerve cells, brain, and spinal cord. They perform the activities of the control and the coordination and are important for the action-reaction.

The endocrine system is the system of the glands and organs that produce and release hormones to coordinate, control, and regulate metabolism, growth, reproduction, and other functions.

Therefore, the endocrine and the nervous system is similar to the nucleus of the cell.

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Suppose you had an enzyme that recognized a sequence of six nucleotides. What are the odds that this sequence would appear in a random chain of DNA?

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Answer:

The odds that this sequence would appear in a random chain of DNA is one out of two thousand and forty-eight.

Explanation:

If an enzyme recognizes a six-nucleotide pattern, the chances of that sequence being in a random sequence of DNA are one in two thousand and forty-eight.

Define nucleotides.

A nucleoside as well as a phosphate make up nucleotides, which are organic compounds. They are monomeric units of a nucleic acid polymers deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid, which are both fundamental macromolecules in all living things on Earth.

If an enzyme recognizes a six-nucleotide pattern, the chances of that sequence being in a random sequence of DNA are one in two thousand and forty-eight.

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Memory and thinking are most closely associated with which part of the central nervous system?

Answers

Answer:

Cerebrum

Explanation:

Memory is a complex process and the stored memory is the past experience of the human being. They are formed by thinking and different events done by the human.  

The cerebrum of the brain involves thinking and memory. This is the largest part of the brain having different sub-parts. They are especially the hippocampus, temporal lobe, limbic system which involves different types of memory.

Cerebrum involves in hearing, speech, movement control, learning.

The limbic system is part of the cerebral cortex. It is concerned with emotion, behavior,  memory.

The long term memory is dealt with by the hippocampus. This type of memory gets active when a person wants to recall something or memorize a thing for a long time.

The temporal lobe involves listening to a sound and store some short term memory. Other lobes of cerebrum involve sensory memory like vision, taste, smell, etc.

Darwin’s influence on modern scientific inquiry is largely (i)_______ ; yet while Darwin’s ideas inform fields as disparate as genetics and social psychology, one cannot help but think that each group, in (ii)_______ Darwin’s ideas, has imparted a slant that might have surprised Darwin.A) anecdotal, sub-verting B) common place, questioning C) un-contested, appropriating

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C) un-contested, appropriating

Explanation:

Although Darwinian ideas are purely biological and scientific, they have aided theoretical research in other sciences as well, psychology, in particular. The theory of evolution does not only explain the evolution of the human body, but also that of the brain. The brain's psychological mechanisms and the behaviors they produce can largely be understood through Darwin's theories; the theories of natural and sexual selection have directed much of psychological research.

In general, scientists accept Darwin's theories but in specific fields, such as social psychology and neuroscience, scientists have formulated surprising explanations using Darwinian ideas.

Which statement correctly describes a way that bacteria are used in biotechnology? A.Bacteria make human cells that make insulin. B.Human insulin coding bacterial genes are spliced into human cells. C.Human insulin made by bacteria is injected into humans. D.Bacteria that make insulin are implanted in humans.

Answers

Human insulin made by bacteria is injected into humans correctly describes a way that bacteria are used in biotechnology.

Option C

Explanation:

Human body do make insulin from the beta cells of islet of Langerhans. But in diseases like diabetes mellitus, there’s decrease in the cell count of beta cells. Thus there’s very less amount or no insulin. Thus excess insulin is required to be delivered from outside.

So bacteria are genetically engineered to produce human insulin. Insulin Aspert and Lisper are produced in this way. Thus the bacteria insulin are required for those individuals to survive and led a happy healthy life.  

16. Immunity that can be acquired naturally, such as when we are exposed to a bacterial or viral infection (such as measles), or that can be acquired artificially, such as when we receive a vaccine, is known as

Answers

Answer: Adaptive immunity

Explanation:

The adaptive immunity is also known as acquired immunity. It is a sub system of the overall immunity.

It can defined as the immunity which is not present in the body when we are born. It develops in the body when it is exposed to the pathogens no matter it is natural or artificial.

The acquired immunity can develop in the body and makes the body susceptible to infections and develops prevention for the next time when the body will be exposed for the next time.

The modern Himalayas continue to grow as a plate carrying oceanic crust subducts beneath a plate carrying continental crust.

Answers

Answer: True. The growth is as a result of and is the convergence between these crusts

Explanation:

Convergent: Continental to Continental then to Oceanic crust

A convergent boundary is created when an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate. The oceanic plates typically goes under the continental plate when this the case. The going under is because the oceanic plate is thinner and more dense than the continental plate. This type of convergent boundary is what probably create volcanic mountain ranges like Mount Rainier, the Ring of Fire. It can also cause earthquakes and some seismic activities.

Savannas differ from grasslands by having Select one:____________.a. less annual precipitation. b. lower average annual temperature. c. no grazers. d. flat-topped trees scattered throughout.

Answers

Answer:

D. flat-topped trees scattered throughout.

Explanation:

Grasslands are vast area of land covered in grass. In  such environment, grasses are favor to grow but trees shrubs and other tall plants are not favored to grow.

Savannas are also vast lands that supports the growth of grasses and trees scattered across the land.

So, in savanna there are trees scattered throughout the land and grasses, but grasslands only have grasses growing in the vast area.  

Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?
Select one:
a. Transverse
b. Anterior-posterior
c. Sagittal Incorrect
d. Frontal

Answers

Answer:

Transverse.

Explanation:

Pronator teres is the muscle situated in the forearm with the pronator quadratus that help in the forearm pronation. This pronation result in the posterior location of the forearms.

This has two attachments the ulnar tuberosity and supracondylar ridge. This pronation result in the movement of the forearm in the transverse planes. The median nerve is innervated in the pronator teres.

Thus, the correct answer is transverse.

Transcription and translation is also known as protein synthesis, and is the expression of genes. The genetic code determines the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide, and the properties of the amino acids give the final structure and function of the protein. Other than membrane proteins, state four functions of proteins in the cell.

Answers

~ Building Tissues and Muscles.

Protein is necessary in building and repairing body tissues.

~ Hormone Production.

Protein hormones bind to receptors on the cell membrane instead of entering the cell directly.

~ Enzymes

Enzymes are proteins that bind to molecules to speed up chemical reactions.

~ Immune Function

Antibodies are specialized protein configurations that provide a specific immune defense against invaders.

A recent study revealed that the peak thickness of the cerebral cortex occurred ________ years later in children with ADHD than in children without ADHD.

Answers

Answer:

Option C

Explanation:

Please see the attachment

Answer:true

Explanation:

Two tubes that connect to the trachea and to bronchioles are called

Answers

Two tubes that connect to the trachea and to bronchioles are called bronchi or bronchus.

What is Bronchi?

The bronchi (plural) or bronchus (singular) are the large tubes that connects to the trachea or windpipe and these are responsible for directing the air we breathe to the right and left lungs. The bronchi are present in the chest. The left bronchus carries air to the left lung. Whereas, the right bronchus carries the air to right lung.

The trachea and upper bronchi contain a C-shaped cartilage, the smaller bronchi have plates of cartilage present in the particular shape. As the bronchi undergoes subdivision into smaller or sub-segmental bronchi, the amount of cartilage in the bronchi  goes on decreasing, and the amount of the smooth muscle in the bronchi keeps on increasing.

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Peter and Rosemary Grant have studied the gene-culture transmission of birdsong in Charles Darwin's finches, Geospiza fortis and Geospiza scandens. What evidence from their studies illustrates the "culture" part of the transmission and what evidence illustrates the "gene" part of this coevolutionary relationship?

Answers

The cultural part of the transmission happens when the child learns the song from the father.

The gene part of co-evolutionary relationship happens when the females mate only with the males who sing the song produced by males of their own species.

Explanation:

The gene is known to a heredity unit that is transferred from a parent to the child and the gene plays a major role in determining the characteristic of the child.

The gene-culture transmission of birdsong illustrates that the songbirds usually learn the songs from other birds of their gene.

The concentration of potassium is higher in red blood cells than in the surrounding blood plasma. This higher concentration is maintained by the process of:________(1) circulation
(2) diffusion
(3) excretion
(4) active transport

Answers

Answer:

Option 4, active transport

Explanation:

In active transportation, external force is used to move any substance against the concentration gradient. .This active transportation leads to movement of potassium in into the cell where the concentration of potassium ion is already high. While the sodium starts moving out of the cell. The energy for active transport is provided by the ATP. When the level of ATP reduce, the red blood cells attain spherical shape as the water and sodium move into RBCs.

Hence, option 4 is correct

A pathogenic microorganism that is highly resistant to antibiotics, often causing deep-tissue nosocomial infections, and frequently found living in many areas of the hospital is:

Answers

Answer:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Explanation:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a rod like shaped bacterium, a gram negative infection invading the host cells of its host(e.g human). It leave it host restless by weakening the host defense mechanisms. This pathological condition is caused by an infection called nosocomial infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa possess an advanced resistance mechanism hence making its treatment with antibiotics difficult.

An ameba is a single-celled organism. It uses its cell membrane to obtain food from its environment, digests the food with the help of organelles called lysosomes, and uses other organelles to process the digested food. From this, we can best infer that

(1) all single-celled organisms have lysosomes to digest food
(2) amebas are capable of digesting any type of food molecule
(3) single-celled organisms are as complex as multicellular organisms
(4) structures in amebas have functions similar to organs in multicellular organisms

Answers

Answer:

According to me answer no 4  is correct.

Explanation:

single cell amoebas can perform all life functions capture the food, digestion, respiration, excretion, and reproduction also. These all are similar to multicellular animals.

Final answer:

The structures within an amoeba perform roles similar to organs in multicellular organisms, reflecting a level of complexity in which specific organelles carry out vital functions for the amoeba's survival. The correct answer is  (option C) single-celled organisms are as complex as multicellular organisms.

Explanation:

The question is asking us to make an inference based on information about how an amoeba, a single-celled organism, feeds and processes food. Specifically, an amoeba uses its cell membrane to engulf food by endocytosis, after which a lysosome fuses with the food vesicle to digest the food. Waste is then excreted from the amoeba by exocytosis. Organelles within the amoeba, similar to a multicellular organism's organs, perform specific functions vital to the amoeba's survival and function.

Given this information, the best inference we can make is that structures in amoebas perform functions similar to organs in multicellular organisms. This is because, like organs, these structures (organelles such as lysosomes) have specific roles in the life processes of the amoeba, indicating a level of complexity within this single-celled organism that reflects that of the organ systems in multicellular organisms.

What may happen when clomiphene is co-administered with methyldopa to promote ovulation?

Answers

Answer:

It may result to infertility or impaired fertility.

Explanation:

Infertility can be described to occur when after a year of consistent unprotected sexual intercourse of a couple, they are still unable achieve pregnancy. This is what likely to occur when the two drugs mentioned are administered at the same time during ovulation.

Note that, there is another thing referred to as impaired fecundity, which is when a woman is having difficulty in carrying a pregnancy up until the time of delivery, and can be a woman having difficulty in getting pregnant.

What specific spinal nerve branch controls the movement of rectus abdominis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be-ventral ramus

Explanation:

Rectus abdominis is a skeletal muscle found in the front part of the body which begins from the sternum and ends at the pubic zone.

Rectus abdominis is also known as "Abs" which viewed externally appears to be six, eight or ten in number.

These muscles are innervated by the thoracoabdominal nerves which carry and transmit signals to CNS and to the muscles back. The main spinal nerve which controls the movement of Abs is known as the "ventral ramus".

Thus, ventral ramus is the correct answer.

Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive if the feet evert during the Overhead Squat assessment?a) Lower Trapizius b) Gracils c) Hip flexor complex d) Gluteus maximus

Answers

Answer:

Gracils

Explanation

Gracils is the least muscle used during squatting.. It is as good as not used

"The correct option is c. Hip flexor complex.

During the Overhead Squat assessment, if the feet evert, it is often indicative of an underactive hip flexor complex. This is because the hip flexors, which include the iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and sartorius, among others, play a crucial role in stabilizing the pelvis and maintaining proper alignment of the lower extremities during movements such as squats.

When the hip flexors are underactive, they may not effectively counteract the external rotation and abduction forces exerted by the gluteus medius and minimus during the squat. This can lead to the feet excessively turning outward or everting as a compensation strategy to maintain balance and stability.

Here's a breakdown of the other options and why they are less likely to be the cause of foot eversion during an Overhead Squat:

a) Lower Trapezius: The lower trapezius muscle is primarily responsible for scapular depression and upward rotation. While it does play a role in posture and scapular stability, it is not directly related to foot eversion.

b) Gracilis: The gracilis is a muscle of the medial thigh that assists in thigh adduction and medial rotation. It is not typically associated with foot eversion during a squat.

d) Gluteus Maximus: The gluteus maximus is the primary hip extensor. While weakness in the gluteus maximus can affect squat mechanics, it is more commonly associated with issues such as knee valgus (knees caving in) rather than foot eversion.

Therefore, the hip flexor complex is the most likely group of muscles to be underactive when observing foot eversion during the Overhead Squat assessment."

A student working on his dissertation plans on interviewing 15 principals in neighboring high schools. The student plans to collect data about the personal experiences the principals have had with disruptive students, what types of disciplinary actions were taken (including decisions they may have personally made), and their feelings or thoughts as to whether those actions were appropriate. Identifiers will be collected. This study would be categorized as which type of review?

A. Exempt Review
B. Full Board Review
C. Expedited Review
D. Not Human Subjects

Answers

Answer:

B. Full Board review

Explanation:

studies which involve children and challenged individuals are always expected to undergo full board review.

Answer:

B. Full Board Review

Explanation:

The question above refers to research that fits the type of research that presents more than a minimal risk, in addition to involving a group of people who belong to a protected population, in this case children. This is because, the research seeks to evaluate the personal experiences that the directors had with disturbing students. In this case, this survey fits the Full Board Review, which is the type of review provided for that type of survey.

Relative time dating is one way that scientists can understand the relative ages of rocks and fossils. Refer to the figure above. What can you conclude about the relative ages of the labeled rock layers?

Answers

Answer:d

Explanation:

On a weather map, isobars that _____ indicate strong winds.

A. are far apart

B. are part of a loop

C. are close together

D. cross one another

Answers

Answer:

The isobars that are close to each other indicate strong winds

Explanation:

The isobars that are close to each other indicate strong winds. The gap or spacing between two adjacent isobars represent the pressure difference between them.  lower the gap between then higher is the chances of pressure difference. Therefore when two isobars are very close to each other then strong wind prevail due to movement of air to fill vaccum space

On a weather map, isobars that C. are close together indicate strong winds. Therefore , C. are close together is correct .

When isobars are close together on a weather map, it indicates a steep pressure gradient.

The pressure gradient force is directly related to the spacing of isobars; the closer the isobars, the stronger the pressure gradient force.

This force influences the speed and direction of the wind.

Here's how it works:

Pressure Gradient Force:

The pressure gradient force drives air from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.

The greater the pressure difference (indicated by closely spaced isobars), the stronger the pressure gradient force.

Wind Speed:

When isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is strong, resulting in higher wind speeds.

Air moves more rapidly from high pressure to low pressure, creating strong winds.

Wind Direction:

Wind tends to flow perpendicular to the isobars, from high pressure toward low pressure. The closer the isobars, the more directly the wind is forced across them.

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If you were going to study the effects of certain fertilizer on plant growth, which list of variables would you most likely want to standardize (keep constant)?

Answers

Answer:

a) Soil type  

b) Water quantity and quality

c) Intensity of light

d) Quantity and quality of fertilizer applied.  

e) Environmental condition

Explanation:

Fertilizer plays an essential role is providing the essential nutrients to plants thereby boosting their growth.  

Hence, in order to conduct a controlled experiment which shall monitor the impact of fertilizer on the growth of plants, all other factors which affect the growth of plants must be standardized or kept constant. These factors include -  

a) Soil type  

b) Water quantity and quality

c) Intensity of light

d) Quantity and quality of fertilizer applied.  

e) Environmental condition

Final answer:

When studying the effects of fertilizer on plant growth, it is important to standardize variables such as light intensity and duration, temperature, and watering schedule to ensure accurate results.

Explanation:

When studying the effects of certain fertilizer on plant growth, it is important to standardize or keep constant certain variables to ensure accurate results. These variables include:

Light intensity and duration: Plants require a certain amount of light to undergo photosynthesis. By keeping the light constant, you eliminate its impact on plant growth.Temperature: Plants have specific temperature requirements for growth. Keeping the temperature constant ensures that any observed differences in growth are due to the fertilizer and not temperature variations.Watering schedule: Consistency in watering the plants is important as water is essential for plant growth. Varying the watering schedule could introduce a confounding factor.Other factors include Quantity and quality of fertilizer applied, Environmental condition

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Which statement best expresses the relationship between the three structures represented below?(1) DNA is produced from protein absorbed by the cell.(2) Protein is composed of DNA that is produced in the cell.(3) DNA controls the production of protein in the cell.(4) Cells make DNA by digesting protein.

Answers

Answer:

Option number 3 that is DNA controls the production of proteins in the cell is the best relationship between the three structures which are DNA, Protein and cell.

Explanation:

DNA is an important part of every prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is a long molecule made up of multiple single units called a Nucleotide. Each nucleotide contains a phosphate group (PO4), a sugar group and a nitrogenous base. DNA is composed of two long chains that wind around each other to form a double helical structure that contains genetic instructions and information regarding the development, functioning, growth and reproduction of all organisms known. This is all achieved via formation of proteins through a process known as Transcription and Translation.

Information about a particular protein formation is transcribed from a DNA into mRNA known as Transcription which is then translated into a molecule known as Protein in a process called Translation. This is how DNA controls the production of Proteins in the cells.

As far as other options in the asked question are concerned, DNA is not formed from protein but rather derived from linking up of nucleotides.

Proteins are not composed of DNA but are made up of building blocks which are known as Amino Acids. Amino Acids are organic molecules which have both a carboxyl (-COOH)  and an amino (-NH2) group.

Cells do not make DNA by digesting proteins, rather proteins are degraded back into Amino acids when digested.

Final answer:

The correct statement is '(3) DNA controls the production of protein in the cell.' This reflects the core understanding of molecular biology, where DNA contains the genetic information that directs protein synthesis within the cell.

Explanation:

The correct statement that best expresses the relationship between the three structures represented in the question is: DNA controls the production of protein in the cell. This concept is a fundamental tenet of molecular biology, known as the Central Dogma. It expresses how genetic information is transcribed from DNA into mRNA (a process called transcription), and mRNA is then translated by ribosomes in the cytoplasm into proteins (a process called translation).

DNA is the hereditary material present in all cells and holds the instructions for producing proteins. Proteins, which are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytoplasm, are composed of amino acid sequences determined by the genetic code found on the DNA. The synthesis of proteins is an intricate process that starts with the DNA in the nucleus of the cell and is of vital importance because proteins perform a wide array of functions within living organisms, including acting as enzymes, signaling molecules, and structural components.

What would be most important to have readily available for a client who is receiving an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist and develops a severe reaction?

Answers

Answer:

Atropine

Explanation:

Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that inhibits the parasympathetic function that is characterized by no electrical charge.

Atropine is a drug capable of blocking the action of the parasympathetic system thanks to two pharmacodynamic characteristics that are important:

1. Its affinity for muscarinic receptors is greater than that of Ach. Therefore, Atropine will compete with Ach. endogenous for occupying these receptors and it is the Atropine who will occupy them. Atropine has a specific affinity for muscarinic receptors, it has no affinity for nicotinic or neuronal receptors, or muscle receptors.

2. Atropine only binds to muscarinic receptors, but it cannot stimulate them since it lacks intrinsic activity (intrinsic activity = 0) therefore the Atropine molecule itself has no effect on the organs innervated by the parasympathetic , the effects that we observe are a consequence of the fact that Atropine, when joining muscarinic receptors, prevents the action of Ach. in those receivers.

From this it follows that the action of anticholinergics depends primarily on the parasympathetic tone existing at the time these drugs begin to act.

This mechanism of action of Atropine is called reversible competitive antagonism. It is reversible because the antagonism disappears if we manage to increase the concentration of Ach. in the zone.

How many cells are created from cytokinesis following mitosis

Answers

Answer:The Answer Is Two cells

Explanation:

Final answer:

Cytokinesis following mitosis results in two genetically identical daughter cells, each with the same number and type of chromosomes as the original cell.

Explanation:

Cytokinesis following mitosis results in the creation of two genetically identical daughter cells. After the cell has gone through the four stages of mitosis - prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase - cytokinesis occurs, cleaving the cell into two separate entities. Each resulting cell has its own nucleus with the exact same number and type of chromosomes as the original cell. In the process of cell division, first, the nucleus divides through mitosis, and then the cytoplasm divides through cytokinesis. This ensures that the cellular content, including the genetic material, is evenly distributed between the two new cells and cell growth can continue in each.

When considering the total number of cells produced from one cycle of cell division, including mitosis and cytokinesis, it is two. One parent cell divides to form two daughter cells, each being a clone of the parent in terms of genetic content, assuming no errors in the replication or segregation of chromosomes. It's important to realize that mitosis and cytokinesis are essential for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction in organisms.

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Which phase of the bacterial growth curve, involves more cells dying than reproducing? Who was the wife of the king of England the mother of a queen of England and end of the empire of the holy Roman empire If the president says, "Everything in the war is going as planned. Trust me, I am the president," he is using what form of the elaboration likelihood model? Madison spent 3 times as long on her social project as she did on her other project. If she spent a total of 8 hours on he projects how long did she spend on her social project Alone in the woods, Chris hears a noise. He thinks he sees a bear coming toward him. Chris' heart starts pounding and then, a moment later, he realizes how frightened he is. This sequence of events is BEST explained by which theory of emotion? The relative rates of reaction of ethane, toluene, and ethylbenzene with bromine atoms have been measured. The most reactive hydrocarbon undergoes hydrogen atom abstraction a million times faster than does the least reactive one. Arrange these hydrocarbons in order of decreasing reactivity. 8.number of trees people cut down.Compared to developing nations, developed nations havelower health standards.greater personal wealth.faster-growing populations.higher health standards.Hardin's "Tragedy of the Commons" essay addresses the conflicts associated with what environmental chal In the book Of Mice and Men by John Steinback, what does the fight between Lennie and Curley show about their characters? ASAP!What are the vertical asymptotes of the function f(x) = the quantity of 3x plus 9, all over x squared plus 4x minus 12?A) x = 6 and x = 2B) x = 6 and x = 2C) x = 1 and x = 2D) x = 1 and x = 2 With approximately ____________ of U.S. dollars abroad (outside the country), the American banking system is truly global in nature.. 15 b d cfor b = 1, c = 6, and d = 18. Electrolytes are considered ________ when placed in a solution and allow for adequate conduction of ________ charges. . In 1914, most Americans saw no reason to join the struggle that was 3,000 miles ways. The war did not threaten American lives or property. As a result, how did the government respond to the conflict in among European nations? After much resistance, Chad finally agrees to go to the opera with his wife. As they are finding their seats he says sarcastically, "Yeah, this is going to be a lot of fun". What term best describes Chad's statement? Compromise Avoidance Direct agression Passive aggression There are twelve shirts in your closet: five blue, four green, and three red. You randomly select one to wear. What is the probability it is blue or green?A)536B)1112C)25D)34 Sam comes home from work one day and finds two letters in his mailbox. One is an eviction notice from his landlord,Quinn, telling him he has to be out of the apartmentin 30 days because his barking device has been bothering the other tenants. It also states that Sam was not allowed to conduct a business from his apartment. Sam is angry because he specifically told Quinn that he was working on a new invention, and Quinn had wished him luck. The second letter is from the chain store, demanding that Sam deliver the promised 1,000 units immediately. Specifically,the following critical elements must be addressed: A. Analyze the elements of this case to determine whether a valid contract exists between Sam and the chain store. Support your response by identifying the elements of a valid contract in your analysis. B. Assume there is not a valid contract between Sam and the chain store. Analyze the elements of a quasi-contract and a promissory estoppel to determine whetherthe chain store would prevail on a claim of either. Why or why not? Include support for your analysis. C. Identify the rights and obligations of both the landlord and tenant under a standard residential lease agreement. D. Based upon those rights and obligations, does Sams landlord have groundsto evict? Why or why not? E. Further, what defenses might Sam raise to an eviction action? Support your response. In 1898 the United States annexed Hawaii. Which scenario BEST describes what the word 'annexed' means? A) Hawaii officially became the 50th state in the United States. B) Hawaii became fully controlled by the United States and lost all self-autonomy. C) Hawaii became a "favorite nations" ally of the United States and would be protected if attacked. D) Hawaii became a protectorate of the United States, and could control their own local economy, while the United States controlled Hawaii's international economy. Ruth Chao argues that Asian-American parents are more likely to use the parenting style of ______, rather than authoritarian parenting.A) guidanceB) affiliationC) trainingD) obedience True or false:1.Air is considered to be stable if it descends to its original level after an initial vertical displacement. Rising air parcels are considered to be unstable, and can sometimes result in cumulonimbus clouds. AB = x + 4 DC = 12 AD = x + 2 BC = ? Quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram if both pairs of opposite sides are congruent. Show that quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram by finding the lengths of the opposite side pairs. What is the length of BC? Steam Workshop Downloader