Answer:
62
Explanation:
In Texas's permanent party organization, the state executive committee consists of 62 members, equally divided between men and women.
GreyWing Products Inc., a large conglomerate, took over a small startup company that had made some breakthrough innovations in the field of telecommunications. This purchase would help GreyWing Products to gain access to the startup company's superior technology and human capital. This transaction is an example of a(n):
A. cartel.
B. joint venture.
C.acquisition.
D. affiliate leadership.
The correct answer is letter C
Explanation: Acquisition of a company is the operation by which one company is absorbed by another, which succeeds in all rights and obligations.
Many people overestimate how long they actually remain awake during restless nights because their moments of wakefulness are easier to recall than their moments of sleep. This best illustrates the impact of Select one:
A. the availability heuristic.
B. framing.
C. confirmation bias.
D. a critical period.
Answer: A. The availability heuristic
Explanation: For heuristic availability, examples that come to mind are crucial. Heuristic availability, by definition, is, in fact, a mental shortcut by which particular examples come to mind first when a particular event or reflection on a topic. So those examples that come to mind first are crucial in evaluating a particular topic or event because they first came up as an option and came to mind with a mental shortcut. This does not mean that other options do not exist, they just do not come to mind. So the people who first think of the moments when they are awake during the sleepless nights and overestimate that fact and will ignore the fact that they still slept during those nights.
In addition to examinations that are specifically authorized by the Insurance Code, the Superintendent may examine each domestic life insurer as often as it is deemed necessary for the protection of the consumers. The Code requires examination of domestic life insurers every __________.
Answer:
5 years.
Explanation:
The Superintendent is entitled to examine the transactions, accounts, records, and any other type of information of any authorized domestic life insurer as frequently as it is deemed necessary. In addition, domestic life insurers must be carefully examined at least once every 5 years. This applies to authorized domestic life insurers which conduct business in the State of New York.
Voir dire is the process of selecting a jury through individual questioning of potential jurors. a. True b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Voir dire is a legal process in which potential jurors are questioned about their likely biases and backgrounds before they are selected to be part of a jury. The selections are usually being made by the Attorneys as the last stage of the three stages in jury selection.
“Have any of you read or heard anything about this case from any source whatsoever?” is a sample question being put forward to the potential jurors and the scope of these questions often vary.
In response to the "Heinz dilemma," Marlee says, "No one will think you're bad if you steal the drug, but your family will think you're an inhumane husband if you don't. If you let your wife die, you'll never be able to look anyone in the face again." Marlee is at which of Kohlberg's stages of moral development?
Answer:
Stage 3, the "good-boy-good-girl" orientation
Explanation:
Kohlberg has given the theory of moral development in which he has given three-stage, each consisting of two sub-stage.
The "good-boy-good-girl" orientation: It comes under the conventional stage of moral development and is the third sub-stage in the theory, and is also referred to as "Interpersonal Relationships". The stage is focused on an individual relying on or living up to social roles and expectations. It emphasizes on being nice, conformity, and the consideration related to the choices of a person to influence relationships.
In the question above, Marlee is at Stage 3, the "good-boy-good-girl" orientation.
According to the New-Classical perspective, what will happen in the long-run if the government adopts a policy to increase aggregate demand?
Answer:
Increase in inflation
Explanation:
According to the New-Classical perspective, an increase in aggregate demand will in the long-run result in an increase in inflation.
Aggregate demand has to do with the the total spending on goods and services over a period of time at a particular level of prices. Any policy that will bring about an increase in aggregate will result in increase in prices of goods and services in the long-run.
Caleb attended a private high school, which gave each student access to a personal laptop and iPhone. Ted attended a poorly funded public school, which had few computers and outdated technology. When Caleb gets to college, he's more prepared than Ted for coursework which includes computer and online material.
This occurrence is an example of:
a. Computer lag
b. Digital divide
c. Technological pause
d. New media
Answer:b. Digital divide
Explanation:
A digital divide refers to how unevenly distributed information and communication technology is between people who come from diffrent groups or backgrounds.
This may occur due to differences in social, geographic or socioeconomic backgrounds.Digital divide refers to a gap in how people access the current technological Information due to the fact that some have no full access to information and technology communication. Examples are access to technology such as computers , telephones ,internet and television.
Which of these states was NOT among the half dozen that joined South Carolina in seceding within just six weeks?a. Alabamab. Mississippic. Floridad. Missourie. Texas
Answer:
d. Missouri
Explanation:
In the history of the United States, the most famous secession movement was the one that took place in the Southern states of the United States starting in december of 1860.
This secession was accepted in eleven states which joined together and formed the Confederate States of America.
The list of States from this Confederate Union is:
South CarolinaMississippiFloridaAlabamaGeorgiaLouisianaTexasVirginiaArkansasNorth CarolinaTennesseeThe first 7 States (South Carolina to Texas) seceded in just 6 weeks.
We can see that the state from the question that is not on the first seven places on the list (or on the list at all) is Missouri.
Describe how the Uniform Crime Report is compiled and the validity concerns associated with this method of measuring crime.
Answer:
Uniform Crime Report( UCR) is a collection of the information of criminal activities in the United States published by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).
Explanation:
The uniform crime is compiled from the provided resources and data of there relatively smaller security agencies.
So basically, other security agencies like the police, homeland security, national security agency, united state intelligence community, etc compile data and reports based on arrest and other criminal activities.
This reports are then forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation who are obliged with the core responsibility of publishing the uniform crime report.
The validity concern with this method of measuring crime is basically based on the fact it omits crime not reported to the police and if there is a change in the local law, it can cause information spikes which consequentially cause the data to be slow in coming out.
What are the two requirements that must be met prior to initiating system disinfection?
The two requirements that must be met prior to initiating system disinfection are: Developing Disinfection profiles and Benchmarks
Disinfection profile contains description of the proposed change in disinfection procedure and it also has analysis on to what extent that the process can affect the current standard and status of disinfection of the place. Monitoring for 12 months (consecutively) is required.
Benchmarks are the results or initial changes happened.
Two requirements must be met for system disinfection: verifying the disinfectant's efficacy through proper testing, such as use-dilution tests, and optimizing conditions to enhance disinfectant effectiveness by removing limiting factors such as bodily fluids or biofilms.
Explanation:Before initiating system disinfection, two primary requirements must be ensured. First, the efficacy of the disinfectant being used should be validated using appropriate tests, such as swabbing surfaces before and after use and conducting use-dilution tests as suggested by the Association of Official Agricultural Chemists International (AOAC). These tests ensure that no microbial growth occurs after disinfection and that results are consistent across different batches and on different days. Second, the conditions must be optimized to facilitate the effectiveness of the disinfecting agent; factors such as the presence of bodily fluids or biofilms can compromise its effectiveness and should therefore be minimized to maintain a sterile environment.
It is also essential to consider the biological safety level (BSL) and the type of item being disinfected, which could range from critical to noncritical, based on the level of contact it will have with tissues.
In a deep water out-of-air emergency, if your buddy is not close enough, the best response to this emergency is to perform a Controlled Swimming Ascent:
In a deep water out-of-air emergency, if your buddy is not close enough, best response is to this emergency is not to perform a controlled swimming Ascent.
Answer: False.
Explanation:
Controlled Swimming Emergency Ascent is a technique which is used by the scuba divers, which is used in an emergency, in case the diver has gone out of breathing gas in the shallow water and he should be returned back to the surface.
This should be the last resort that the divers should make if he runs out of the breathing gas and to avoid this kind of situation, the divers should check the amount of the gas that he has in his cylinder before going in the water surface.
Final answer:
In a deep water emergency, a controlled swimming ascent at a rate of 10 to 20 meters per minute is important to avoid decompression sickness. CPR should not be attempted in the water due to a muscular spasm that seals the airway; instead, the person must first be brought to stable ground.
Explanation:
In deep water, a controlled swimming ascent is the recommended response when a diver is out-of-air and their buddy is not nearby. The emergency protocol calls for the diver to ascend slowly and calmly to the surface to prevent decompression sickness (DCS), which can occur if the ascent is too rapid. The dissolved gases in the diver's blood can form dangerous bubbles as ambient pressure decreases, leading to potentially life-threatening symptoms. To mitigate this risk, divers should ascend at a rate of 10 to 20 meters per minute, and if necessary, make decompression stops. If DCS does occur, hyperbaric oxygen therapy in a decompression chamber is often the course of treatment.
It is important to note that CPR should not be administered while in the water. Removing the individual from the water is the first step due to the muscular spasm that seals the airway, making CPR ineffective in the water. Once the person is on stable ground, CPR can then commence.
One difference between the neo-Freudians and Freud is that nearly all neo-Freudians ________.
The neo-Freudians differed from Freud by focusing on the social environment and the effects of culture on personality.
Explanation:Neo-Freudians, such as Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, and Karen Horney, departed from Freudian psychoanalytic theory by emphasizing social and cultural factors, minimizing the role of the unconscious, and expanding beyond Freud's emphasis on sexuality. They explored broader aspects of personality development, interpersonal relationships, and the influence of societal forces.
Moreover. the neo-Freudians differed from Freud in their focus on the social environment and the effects of culture on personality, as opposed to Freud's emphasis on sex. While Freud believed that childhood experiences and biological drives were the primary factors in personality development, the neo-Freudians recognized the importance of sociocultural factors.
"The correct answer to the question is that nearly all neo-Freudians placed more emphasis on the role of interpersonal relationships and social environment in shaping personality than Freud did.
Sigmund Freud, the founder of psychoanalysis, emphasized the role of unconscious processes, sexual and aggressive drives, and the importance of early childhood experiences in shaping personality. His theories were centered around the id, ego, and superego, and he believed that personality is largely determined by intrapsychic forces.
Neo-Freudians, a group of theorists who were influenced by Freud but diverged from some of his ideas, generally agreed with Freud's structural model of the psyche but placed more emphasis on the impact of social factors and interpersonal relationships. They believed that the environment and cultural factors play a significant role in personality development, in addition to the intrapsychic forces highlighted by Freud.
Key neo-Freudians such as Erik Erikson, Karen Horney, and Harry Stack Sullivan focused on how social and cultural factors influence psychological development. For example, Erikson expanded on Freud's psychosexual stages with his own theory of psychosocial development, emphasizing the lifespan and the influence of society and culture. Karen Horney critiqued Freud's views on women and proposed that cultural and social factors contribute to the development of neurosis. Harry Stack Sullivan developed interpersonal psychoanalysis, which posits that personality is formed primarily through interactions with others.
In summary, the primary difference between Freud and the neo-Freudians lies in the latter's greater emphasis on the role of interpersonal relationships and the social environment in the development of personality, as opposed to Freud's more biologically and intrapsychically oriented approach."
The type of power most likely to result in negative feelings toward those who wield it is
a. expert
b. reward
c. referent.
d. personal
e. coercive.
The correct answer would be option E, Coercive Power.
The type of power most likely to result in negative feelings those who wield it is Coercive power.
Explanation:
Coercive Power is a type of power which is usually exercised by managers, in companies or anywhere having people working under them.
This is a power in which the employees or workers are being threatened by the manager to do the task or follow the manager, and if any employee or worker will not comply with the order of the manager, he will be given punishment.
Manager can threat the employee to demote him, or to not forward his good appraisal, or to not favor him in front of the upper management, or might be of job continuity.
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Which of the following conducted campaigns against the "corrupting influence of taverns and theaters and opposed the use of jails to house children"?
a. Society for the Reformation of Juvenile Delinquency
b. Society for Juvenile Protection
c. Society against Juvenile Delinquency
d. none of the above
Society for the Reformation of Juvenile Delinquency conducted campaigns against the "corrupting influence of taverns and theaters and opposed the use of jails to house children"
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Juvenile delinquency is the habitual committing of the crimes or offences by the persons who are young and are not adults. The society which was formed for the reformation of juvenile delinquency conducted campaigns against use of jails for children.
They were not in favor of using the imprisonment for the criminals who were not of legal age. They wanted other ways and methods to reform the criminals of such young people and for reformation of juvenile.
"The correct answer is a. Society for the Reformation of Juvenile Delinquency.
The Society for the Reformation of Juvenile Delinquency was an organization established in the early 19th century with the purpose of addressing the issues of youth crime and the conditions that were believed to contribute to it. This society was particularly concerned with the moral and social environment in which children were living. They saw taverns and theaters as places that could lead youths astray and therefore campaigned against them. Additionally, they were against the practice of housing children in jails alongside adult offenders, as this was seen as detrimental to their rehabilitation and likely to expose them to further criminal behavior.
The society's efforts were part of a broader movement to reform the juvenile justice system and to create separate institutions and approaches for dealing with young offenders. Their advocacy led to the establishment of the first juvenile reformatories, which were intended to provide a more structured and morally upright environment for the rehabilitation of juvenile delinquents.
Options b and c, the Society for Juvenile Protection and the Society against Juvenile Delinquency, are not historically recognized as the organization that specifically campaigned against the ""corrupting influence of taverns and theaters"" and opposed the use of jails to house children. Therefore, the correct choice is option a, which aligns with the historical record of the Society for the Reformation of Juvenile Delinquency's activities and objectives."
In the movie Trading Places, a millionaire bets his brother that he can turn a beggar and thief into an upstanding citizen and turn a wealthy, moral man into a common criminal, just by altering the circumstances and environment of the two men. This view reflects the ideas of:
Answer:
The answer is John Watson
Explanation:
John Watson was a famous American Psychologist, he is know as the father of behaviorism (Behavioral psychology). He conducted research on animal behavior, child development and advertising. He is known for his controversial "Little Albert" experiment and kerplunk experiment. He made popular the use of scientific theory with behaviorism. Behaviorism is a theory of learning which is based on the idea that all behaviors are acquired through conditioning, conditioning occurs through interaction with the environment.
Watson strongly believed that environment is a factor that shapes a person's behavior over their genetic make up or natural temperament. A person's responses to environmental stimuli shape their actions and to change certain actions or behaviors one has to arrange circumstances to re-enforce the required actions and avoid circumstances that oppose them.
According to psychologist Terrie Moffitt, ____________________ exhibit early onset of delinquency that persists into adulthood.
Answer:the life-course-persistent offenders
Explanation:
Terrie Moffitt, is an American psychologist who studies the development process of offenders
and how it differs with age.
According to Terrie Moffitt offenders can be categorised into two types based on their antisocial behaviour.
The adolescent limited offenders these are offenders who only exhibit deviant behavior only at their adolescent stage and it never passes to adulthood
and
The life-course-persistent offenders display deviant behavior early in their childhood and it persist until they are adult
Hightrail Park, a state park popular amongst weekend hikers, is suffering erosion along its trails. The primary cause are the many hikers, who looking for a quicker route between the switchbacks, cut between trails, thereby trampling undergrowth. Without grass and weeds, the land abutting the trails is more prone to erosion. To combat this problem, state park officials have placed yellow tape on those parts of the trail where erosion is most significant. State park officials expect that the park will not witness any erosion more extreme than what the park is currently witnessing.The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?A. Hikers who hike between trails tend to hike along a similar route, thereby making erosion more likely in certain areas along the trail.B. Hikers who hike during the week are not as likely to walk on the land between the switchbacks.C. Erosion in the state park can be caused by other factors such as significant rainfall.D. The yellow tape at higher altitudes along the trail, where weather is more severe, will fall apart at the same rate as the yellow tape located at lower altitudes.E. Those parts along the trail that do not qualify as being highly eroded will not in the next five years become more eroded than those parts along the trail that are currently the most eroded.
Answer:
The correct option is E
Explanation:
From the statement, we already know the action taken by the state park official (Placing yellow tapes on parts of the trail with most significant erosion) and the purpose of the action (Abating the erosion). From the options provided;
Option A simply stated the obvious that we already know from the question (hikers being the cause of the erosion because they hike along the trail), but we already know this from the statement.
Option B has no correlation with the aim of reducing the extremely of the erosion and hence its not an option
Option C is assumptive in nature and the scenario here is not based on assumption hence C is not the right answer.
Option D just tells us that the yellow tape would fall off at a faster rate and hence it does not support the argument. What if the yellow tape at higher altitudes falls off or break downs faster than the other? What effect does this have?
Option E is correct. Because the aim of the action is to ensure erosion is not extreme, and not to prevent it, the action taken concentrates on the areas that are eroded by bikers and does not say anything about the areas that are not yet eroded. Hence, this assumption clearly supports the argument.
The argument assumes that yellow tape will prevent further erosion by deterring hikers from creating shortcuts, and it presupposes hikers adhere to marked trails, that significant factors causing erosion are limited to trampling, and that current rates of erosion will not worsen or move to other areas.
The argument that Hightrail Park officials have made depends on the assumption that the measures taken, specifically placing yellow tape along eroded areas, will prevent further erosion. This assumption is based on the idea that hikers will respect the barriers and that these barriers will be effective in preventing erosion in the most affected areas. However, the argument is challenged by a number of other factors that the officials might be assuming, or potentially overlooking.
One such assumption could be that hikers who create shortcuts between trails tend to do so along similar paths, concentrating the erosion in certain areas, which the yellow tape might help protect (Assumption A). Another underlying assumption might be that the erosion factors are limited to just the trampling of undergrowth by hikers, ignoring other causes such as natural events like significant rainfall (Assumption C). There is also the implicit hope that the current erosion does not spread to currently unaffected areas (Assumption E).
A buyer bought a vacation home at Lake Geneva, WI. He purchased the home with a mortgage which included the boat, the dock, the boat house and the home. What type of mortgage did the owner receive?
Answer:
The mortgage received by the owner was a package mortgage.
Explanation:
A mortgage that consists of multiple assets makes up a package of the inclusive assets. When there are two more items kept for mortgage, all the items in the mortgage are treated as a single package.Once the mortgage package is received, the owner is authorised to use the assets included in the package as long as the amount of mortgage is paid.Paul Ekman devised a system to measure people’s facial muscle activity, called the Facial Action Coding System (FACS). Using this measurement, Ekman found across cultures that participants "recognized" the emotional facial expressions by matching them with the "correct" emotion words at levels greater than chance. What did Ekman conclude from these findings?
Answer:
Ekman concluded that emotions were universal and cut across the various types of peoples and cultures.
Explanation:
Paul Ekman studied the presumed universality of emotions by assessing people’s facial muscle activity and proving that the expressions of their respective emotions communicated the same feelings in different cultures around the world: the photographs that were produced showed emotional expressions that were similar, and led Ekman to conclude that emotions were universal and cut across the various gypes of peoples and cultures.
Graduated driver licensing (GDL) laws are designed for novice drivers to gain _____ incrementally, or in stages.
Answer: Graduate driver licensing laws are designed for novice drivers to gain EXPERIENCE incrementally or in stages
Graduate driver licensing was established to give opportunity to drivers to gain driving experience reducing all risk such as avoiding driving at night, in the expressway.
They involve different stages; acquiring a learner's permit; a probationary license; a full license.
Roger, a father of 6 children, expressed shock to his fellow jurors that the psychiatrist declared the defendant, who had repeatedly plunged her three-year-old's hand in scalding water, mentally competent. Roger is operating under the common belief that
Answer:
This question is incomplete. Here are the missing options:
(a) family violence is rare. (b) psychiatrists do not understand family violence. (c) only mentally ill or "sick" people abuse family members. (d) only fathers abuse their children.The answer is c.
Explanation:
While there have been claims that link violence (especially gun violence) with mental illnesses, in reality there are many factors that contribute to violent behavior. Some significant examples are past violence and substance abuse. The reason some tend to relate violence with mental disorders is because these risk factors may actually result in mental illnessses.
A statement that focuses on your feelings rather than on someone else’s behavior is a:
Answer:An “I” message or “I” statement.
Explanation:
An “I” message or “I” statement is type of communication in which a speaker expresses their feeling or emotions or beliefs without accusing the listener or shifting the blame to a another person.
An example would be when a speaker says to her husband " I feel lonely and anxious when you don't call me and when you come home later" this is an I statement , rather than saying "why are you always late?" Which seems to criticize the listener.
Role of “I” Statements in Communication
I statement ensures that one doesn't shift the blame to another person but they express their emotions or concerns without accusations. This gives an opportunity for the listener to actual feel and understand the speaker without feeling like they need to defend their position. This can help the speaker to actual deal with their own emotions without feeling like someone else is responsible.
It creates positivity in relationships when it is done appropriately and build an enhanced level of emotional communication and connection.
Mandy's "save the whales" speech was very effective because she started off with some stories about whales, then she moved into facts, statistics, and sources. Which principle of support material organization did Mandy effectively use in her speech?A)"soft" to "hard" evidenceB)primacyC)complexityD)specificity
Answer:
A) "soft" to "hard" evidence
Explanation:
Soft evidence refers to simple experiences, observations and factual details about a situation or an object. Hard evidence refers to empirical and scientific evidence. These are normally facts that have been proven through research work and are in the form of statistical data and research sources. In this case, Mandy presented some stories about whales which means that she first presented soft evidence. Then, Mandy presented facts, statistics, and sources which is hard evidence. Hence, Mandy used the principle of soft to hard evidence to support the material organization effectively.
All the leadership styles defined by Paul Hersey and Ken Blanchard can be used effectively used
Answer:Directing, coaching, supporting and delegating.
Explanation: All the leadership styles can be effectively used and lead up to directing, coaching and delegating.
Answer:
The ability to get the job done, and the participation of subordinate in decision making coupled with the delegation of authority to subordinate make managers effective.
Explanation:
Leadership can be defined as the quality that enables a manager to exert a positive influence over the behaviour of his subordinates. Leadership is important to the success of any group activities whether this is a small group of workers in a department or the the whole of an organization. The qualities that make a good leader will be determined to a large extent by the circumstances under which the leadership has to be exercised. Leadership is the human aspect of management and so it can be said that the style of leadership is also the management style.
In 1954, Dr Paul Hersey and Kenneth Balanchard came up with situational leadership theory.in their views, they were of the opinions that leadership should be centered on maturity and task. The task according to Paul Hersey and Kenneth Balanchard is the job that must be done in the organization. While maturity on the other hand is the ability, experience, motivation required to get the job done in the organization. They however, identified four leadership style which are S1 which means telling the subordinates what to be done, S2 which means selling the ideas to the subordinates to get the job done. S1 and S2 is centered on the task .in other words, the job that must be done in the organization. While participating and delegating is centered on maturity.
They were of the views that, when subordinates participate in the process of making decisions they have a sense of belonging in the organization which will facilitate the process of getting the job done effectively in the organization. In addition, when authority is delegated to subordinates to pursue certain activities in the organization this relieves a manager from involvement in the day to day details of running his particular function, but at the same time does not absolve him from the responsibility for ensuring that the duties delegated are correctly and efficiently performed.
In Gilded Age America, dissatisfaction with the new social order extended beyond the working class and into the middle class. Some of the most popular works of literature in the era concerned the crumbling social order or the means of fixing it. Match the authors to their literary contributions.
Answer:
During the Gilded Age in America popular works such as Looking Backward by Edward Bellamy, The Cooperative Commonwealth by Laurence Gronlund and Progress and Poverty by Henry George were outstanding
Explanation:
These three authors like many of their age wrote concerning the social order of the time and the means of correcting it.
Laurence Gronlund for example indicted the evils of capitalism in a rapidly developing American industrial society and attempted to demonstrate why a socialist society will inevitably succeed the prospective crisis ridden capitalist society
Elmer, the owner of an auto service station, suddenly began smashing the front fenders and hoods of two customers' cars. When asked why, he excitedly explained that he was transforming the cars into "real racing machines." When an employee tried to restrain him, he shouted that everybody was fired and quickly began breaking the car windows. Elmer is exhibiting symptoms of:________________.
a) somatic symptom disorder.
b) catatonia.
c) a panic attack.
d) mania
Answer:d) mania
Explanation: this is a symptom that affect someone with a bipolar disorder in which a person seems to have a lot of energy that they can do multiple tasks all at once, non stop.
Even if they don't sleep much they will still have a lot of energy. They get extremely excited but their mood also changes so quick that they get irritated so fast. They can't contain their emotions.
You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has a high need for achievement, Mary has a high need for power, and Tim has a high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scored low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?
Answer:
The most suitable person would be Joe.
Explanation:
Those who seek power are more likely to abuse it and may not be too open to receive feedback.
On the contrary, Joe and his search for success and achievement, not only benefit him but also those around him. He is more likely to take his new position with great seriousness and concentration than the other employees.
Olga is driving to work one day when a speeding driver runs a red light, broad siding her and injuring her in the crash. Her family possesses good crisis-meeting resources, like strong family relationships, health insurance, and access to medical care. In Hill's (1958) ABC-X model, which posited why some families do better than others in hard times, the crisis management resources are the:
A. AB. BC. CD. X
Answer:
B). B
Explanation:
The use of ABC‐X model to analyse the stress and their coping within the families. The model includes (A) which is the the stressor event, (B) is the resources which is available to family, (C) is the family's view of the stressor, while (X) is the likelihood of crisis.
The ABC-X model is given by Hill in the year 1958. It starts with stressor and ends with crises.
In the context, Olga met with an accident. Olga's family have a well crisis meeting resources. As 'B' in the model stands for the resources of the family, in this question B is the crisis management resources.
Thus the answer is option (B)
As defined by the textbook, the term _________________ refers to youths who have been arrested four or more times during their minority and perpetuate a striking majority of serious criminal acts.
This small group is the "chronic 6%," a term used to refer to Chronic Juvenile/Delinquent Offenders.
What characterizes these juveniles is that they do not typically "grow out" of criminal behavior. Rather, they continue as adults. Out of all delinquent conduct, a large number of offences is attributed to these youths.
The term "chronic" in this context means that they repeatedly break the law over a long period of time.
Child X's mental age is 15, and his actual age is 12.
What is his IQ (as defined by Stern) on a standard Binet-Simon exam?
Answer:
125
Explanation:
Stern define IQ with the formula 100 ( mental age / chronological age)
100 (15 / 12 ) = 125 with the range of 120 - 129 defined as Superior by Stanford Binet-Simon fifth edition