Answer:
debit Bad debt Expense = $9,600
so correct option is $9,600
Explanation:
given data
bad debt losses = 5%
Accounts Receivable = $121,000
unadjusted credit balance = $1,550
Net credit sales = $192,000
to find out
estimated Bad Debt Expense for the year
solution
first we get here Bad debt expense by percentage of credit sales method that is
Bad debt expense = credit Sales × percentage of bad debt losses
Bad debt expense = $192,000 × 5%
Bad debt expense = $9,600
so here we can say $9,600 will be recorded as
debit Bad debt Expense = $9,600
and credit Allowance for doubtful debts = $9,600
so here revised balance in Allowance for doubtful debts is $9,600 + $1,550 = $11150
so correct option is $9,600
Starbucks is opening a location in China every 15 hours, and just opened its largest location in the world in Shanghai. Which method of international expansion is Starbucks utilizing?
Multiple Choice
A. exporting
B. global outsourcing
C. wholly-owned subsidiaries
D. importing
E. joint ventures
Final answer:
Starbucks is utilizing the expansion strategy of establishing wholly-owned subsidiaries in China, demonstrating its commitment to controlling its operations and maintaining its brand within the Chinese market.
Explanation:
Starbucks' method of international expansion in China, where the company is opening a new location every 15 hours and has opened its largest store in Shanghai, is an example of establishing wholly-owned subsidiaries. This approach involves the company owning 100% of the subsidiary's shares and having full control over the business operations in the foreign country. This choice is indicative of Starbucks' long-term commitment to the Chinese market, allowing them to maintain control over their brand and business practices in the rapidly growing Chinese economy.
Misty Company reported the following before-tax items during the current year:Sales revenue $ 600Selling and administrative expenses 250Restructuring charges 20Loss on discontinued operations 50Misty's effective tax rate is 40%.What is Misty's income from continuing operations?
(A) $198
(B) $330.(C) $210.(D) $360.
Answer:
$
Sales revenue 600
Selling and administrative expenses (250)
Restructuring charges (20)
Profit before tax 330
Tax @ 40% 132
Income from continuing operations 198
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
Income from continuing operation is the excess of sales revenue over selling and administrative expenses, restructuring charges and tax.
Tax is 40% of profit before tax.
Jennifer earns $17.35 per hour at her job. She works 6 hours per day, 5 days per week.
What is Jennifer's gross income for a 2 week pay period?a.$520.50
b.$694.00
c.$867.50
d.$1,041.00
Answer:
Jennifer's gross income for a 2 week pay period is d.$1,041.00
Explanation:
Jennifer works 6 hours per day, 5 days per week
The number of hours Jennifer works per week = 6 x 5 = 30 hours
The number of hours Jennifer works for 2 weeks = 30 x 2 = 60 hours
She earns $17.35 per hour and works 60 hours for 2 weeks, Jennifer's gross income for a 2 week pay period:
60 x $17.35 = $1,041
Answer:
D
Explanation:
In the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process, one result of the programming activities is the __________ [8a. Identify the basic flow of the financial management process, to include cost analysis, the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process, Congressional enactment, and program execution.] a. Program Objectives Memorandum (POM) b. Future Years Development Program (FYDP) c. Defense Planning Guidance (DPG) d. Budget estimate submission(BES)
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": Program Objectives Memorandum.
Explanation:
The Program Objectives Memorandum or POM is one of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) outcomes that is in charge of providing suggestions from the Services and Defense Agencies to the Department of the Secretary of Defense (DoD) regarding program funds distribution that will help them to reach the Service Program Guidance objectives.
Final answer:
In the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process, programming activities result in the creation of the Program Objectives Memorandum (POM),option A.
Explanation:
In the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process, the result of the programming activities is the Program Objectives Memorandum (POM). This document outlines an organization's proposed programs, including the desired capabilities and resources required over a multi-year period.
The POM serves as a key component within the PPBE process, which in turn lays the groundwork for performance based budgeting -- a system where expenditures are aligned with measurable objectives, allowing for better tracking and accountability.
The PPBE process operates within a larger framework of financial management, frequently engaging with cost analysis and is subject to Congressional enactment. The process includes a range of activities that encompass strategic planning and department-level planning, culminating in program execution.
The budget serves as a critical policy statement that connects an organization's mission with its financial resources, and adjustments may occur mid-year to align with changing circumstances or priorities.
Before 1993, the U.S. Forest Service sold timber-cutting rights:
Select one:
a. only to foreign investors.
b. at below cost.
c. at a high profit.
d. only in old-growth forests.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Use the following information to determine the ending cash balance to be reported on the month ended June 30 cash budget.a. Beginning cash balance on June 1, $96,000. b. Cash receipts from sales, $423,000. c. Budgeted cash disbursements for purchases, $278,000. d. Budgeted cash disbursements for salaries, $97,000. e. Other budgeted cash expenses, $59,000. f. Cash repayment of bank loan, $34,000. g. Budgeted depreciation expense, $36,000. A) $110,000 B) $85,000 C) $51,000 D) $15,000
Answer:
$15000
Explanation:
$96,000 + $423,000 − $278,000 − $97,000
− $59,000 − $34,000 − $36,000 = $15000
You notice that Coca-Cola has a stock price of $ 40.47 and EPS of $ 1.87. Its competitor PepsiCo has EPS of $ 4.17. But, Jones Soda, a small batch Seattle-based soda producer has a P/E ratio of 34.3. Based on this information, what is one estimate of the value of a share of PepsiCo stock? One share of PepsiCo stock is valued at $ nothing.
Answer:
Value of share of Pepsi Co stock will be $90.2388
Explanation:
We have given stock price of coca-cola = $40.47
And EPS = $1.87
So [tex]\frac{P}{E}[/tex] ratio [tex]=\frac{40.47}{1.87}=$21.64[/tex]
Pepsi Co stock EPS = $4.17
We have to find the share of Pepsi Co stock
Pepsi Co stock will be given by
Value of share of Pepsi Co stock = [tex]EPS\times \frac{P}{E}ratio[/tex]
[tex]=21.64\times 4.17=$90.2388[/tex]
In January 2007, XM enjoyed about 58 percent of satellite radio subscribers, and Sirius had the remaining 42 percent. Both firms were suffering losses, despite their dominance in the satellite radio market. In 2008, the DOJ decided not to challenge a merger, and these two firms united to become Sirius XM. If you were an economic consultant for Sirius, which of the following would NOT be a viable economic arguments designed to persuade the DOJ not to challenge the merger?
1)Sirius and XM compete against other products such as broadcast radio and MP3s.
2)At least one of these firms is financially unstable.
3)Rapidly changing technology in the portable music industry would prevent anticompetitive behavior.
4)The merger will help to increase the companies' market power.
5)There would be significant cost savings if the merger took place.
Answer:
The correct answer is 3
good luck ❤
Explanation:
The correct option that would NOT be a viable economic argument to persuade the Department of Justice (DOJ) not to challenge the merger is Option 4: The merger will help to increase the companies' market power. This because promoting increased market power is usually a major concern for antitrust authorities, as it could lead to less competition and potential harm to consumers.
When considering the merger of two dominant players in a market, the role of the DOJ is to assess the impact on competition. Arguments that are typically made to support such mergers include the ability to compete with other forms of media (Option 1), financial instability requiring consolidation (Option 2), and the fast-changing nature of technology that prevents monopolistic behavior (Option 3). These factors suggest a competitive market would remain post-merger. However, suggesting a merger would increase market power (Option 4) is counterproductive, as the DOJ's mandate is to prevent decreased competition and increased monopoly power. Cost savings argument (Option 5) is also valid as it suggests benefits to both the company and potentially the consumers. A valid argument, like the one mentioned in Option 4, from an antitrust perspective, is that increasing market power might lead to negative outcomes such as reduced competition, higher prices, and less innovation, which is precisely what antitrust laws are designed to prevent.
The focus group report lists most of the themes that became apparent during the research, notes any diversity of opinions or thoughts expressed by the participants, and contains abbreviated excerpts provided as evidence.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": False.
Explanation:
A focus group is a technique used to obtain qualitative data for research. This data is obtained after gathering a small group between six and twelve people to expose their opinions, likes, and preferences in regards to a product, idea, service, advertisement or content. The participants have similar features and the chat focuses on a specific matter. There is no need for abbreviations since the participants' point of view is typically recorded for analysis and feedback.
A U.S. firm sells merchandise today to a British company for £150,000. The current exchange rate is $1.55/£ , the account is payable in three months, and the firm chooses to avoid any hedging techniques designed to reduce or eliminate the risk of changes in the exchange rate. The U.S. firm is at risk today of a loss if:A) the exchange rate changes to $1.52/£.B) the exchange rate changes to $1.58/£.C) the exchange rate doesn't change.D) all of the above
Answer:
b
Explanation:
You establish a straddle on Walmart using September call and put options with a strike price of $99. The call premium is $7.95 and the put premium is $8.70. A) What is the most you can lose on this position?
B) What will be your profit or loss if Walmart is selling for $58 in September?
C) At what stock prices will you break even on the straddle?
Answer:
(a) Maximum loss will be $16.65
(b) There will be loss of $24.35
(c) Upper break even level = $115.65
Lower break even level = $82.35
Explanation:
We have given strike price = $99
Call premium = $7.95
And put premium = $8.70
(a) Maximum loss is given by
Maximum loss = put premium + call premium = $7.95 + $8.70 = $16.65
(b) Selling price = $58
So profit/loss = $58 - $99 + $16.65 = -$24.35 ( negative sign indicates loss )
So there will be a loss of $24.35
(c) Upper break even level = $99+$16.65 = $115.65
Lower break even level = $99 - $16.65 = $82.35
A straddle on Walmart with September call and put options with a strike price of $99 has a maximum loss of $16.65. If Walmart is selling for $58 in September, you will lose the entire premium of $16.65. The break-even points for the straddle are $115.65 and $82.35.
Explanation:A straddle is an options strategy where an investor holds positions in both a call option and a put option with the same strike price and expiration date. In this case, you establish a straddle on Walmart using the September call and put options with a strike price of $99. The call premium is $7.95 and the put premium is $8.70.
A) The most you can lose on this position is the combined premiums you paid for the call and put options, which is $7.95 + $8.70 = $16.65.
B) To calculate the profit or loss if Walmart is selling for $58 in September, you need to determine if the options are in-the-money or out-of-the-money. In this case, both the call and put options are out-of-the-money because the stock price is below the strike price. Therefore, both options will expire worthless and you will lose the entire premium you paid for them, which is $16.65.
C) The break-even points for the straddle can be calculated by adding or subtracting the premiums from the strike price. In this case, the break-even points are $99 + $16.65 = $115.65 and $99 - $16.65 = $82.35.
https://brainly.com/question/34950472
#SPJ11
Alpha Co. is paying a $.64 per share dividend today. There are 158,000 shares outstanding with a par value of $1 per share. As a result of this dividend, the: A) common stock account will decrease by $138,000 B) capital in excess of par value account will decrease by $101,120 C) retained earnings will decrease by $101,120. D) retained earnings will decrease by $99,360. E) common stock account will decrease by $101,120.
Answer:
Dividend paid = $0.64 x 158,000 = $101,120. The dividend paid reduces retained earnings by $101,120.
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Dividend is paid out of profit after tax. This reduces the retained earnings of the company since dividend involves outflow of cash.
Final answer:
An investor would pay about $256,500 for a share of Babble, Inc., based on the present-day value of expected dividends amounting to $51.3 million over the next two years, assuming there are 200 shares available.
Explanation:
The question is about a company named Babble, Inc., which is offering its stock to investors and planning to disband in two years. To determine what an investor would pay for a share of stock in this company, one must calculate the present-day value (PDV) of the expected dividends, which are $15 million immediately, $20 million in one year, and $25 million in two years. Assuming there is an interest rate that could be earned elsewhere (e.g., 15%), this interest rate would be used to discount the future payments back to their present value.
Once the PDV of all dividends has been calculated, the sum is divided by the number of shares available to find the price per share. For Babble, Inc., assuming a PDV calculation has already been performed and the total PDV of the dividends is $51.3 million, one would divide this amount by the 200 shares to find the price per share. In this case, it's calculated as $51.3 million/200 = $256,500 per share.
This price represents the value of each share based on the expected dividends discounted to their present value. Hence, an investor would consider paying about $256,500 per share of Babble, Inc., given the current and expected future profits.
The model of the kinked demand curve in price competition implies that:
a. free entry in the market will eventually reduce economic profits to zero.
b. firms will coordinate prices so as to maximize group profit.
c. strong brand loyalty by consumers gives firms little incentive to reduce prices.
d. a firm's competitors will match any price cuts by the firm but not price hikes.
e. firms in the market match the market price set by a single dominant firm.
Answer:
b.
Explanation:
firms will coordinate prices so as to maximize group profit.
Due to the discontinuous gap , the kinked demand theory predicts that price and quantity will be insensitive to small changes in the cost of production. As a result, prices can be fairly rigid and stable in an oligopoly even when firms are acting independently without any collusive activities
A company is considering two projects. Project I Project II Initial investment $120,000 $120,000 Cash inflow Year 1 $40,000 $20,000 Cash inflow Year 2 $40,000 $20,000 Cash inflow Year 3 $40,000 $32,000 Cash inflow Year 4 $40,000 $48,000 Cash inflow Year 5 $40,000 $50,000 What is the payback period for Project I?
a. 5 years
b. 2.5 years
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
e. 3.5 years
On December 1, Miser Corporation exchanged 6,000 shares of its $25 par value common stock held in treasury for a parcel of land to be held for a future plant site. The treasury shares were acquired by Miser at a cost of $40 per share, and on the exchange date the common share of Miser had a fair value of $50 per share. Miser received $18,000 for selling scrap when an existing building on the property was removed from the site. Based on these facts, the land should be capitalized at what amount?
Answer:
Capitalized value $582.000.
Explanation:
Step 1. Given information.
The common share of Miser had a fair value of $50 per share.
Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.
Fair value of shares = Price per share * (Amount by selling scrap - exchanged shares)Capitalized value = fair value of shares - value of scrap.
Step 3. Calculation.
Fair value of shares = $50 * (18.000 - 6.000) = $600.000
Land should be capitalized by fair market value of share exchanged less any recovery of scrap as land will be developed for future plant.
Step 4. Solution.
Fair value of shares = $50*12.000 = $600.000
Less: value of scrap = $18.000 .
Capitalized value = $600.000 - $18.000 = $582.000.
Relative Valuation (45 min) X KNOWLEDGE CHECK On the chart below, if the earnings per share grew from 7.61 on December 31, 2018, to 7.82 on June 30, 2019, what would the implied earnings yield be? 2.2% 4.1% 24.4% 1.8% Click to open/close chart. II Search> MCD US Equity 4 Load Actions 3) Save As Graph Fundamentals YTD 10Y Max Quarterly Table R Fields/Securities 6M 1Y 3Y SY 7Y Options 8.00 Track Annotate Zoom O Reset 7.61 750 190.71 7.61 Earnings per Share (L1) Dividends per Share (L1) 4.19 180 Price per Share (R2) 190.71 7.00 6.50 160 6.00 5.50 140 5.00 120 4.50 4.19 4.00 100 3.50 02 2016 02 2017 02 Q3 2015 04 04 Q3 04 Q1 Q2 2018 03 04 2019
Answer:
The answer is the option 2=4.1%.
Explanation:
In the first instance, the question is misspelled. It seems to be a product of the transcription of an image. By googling the text, you can find the images that are attached where the problem arises.
Taking into account the above, let's work on the problem found.
First of all, the implied earnings yield is given by:
[tex]E_{year} = \frac{(earnings-per-share)}{price-per-share}[/tex]
Replacing in equation:
[tex]E_{year}=\frac{7.82}{190.71}\\[/tex]
[tex]E_{year}=0.041\\[/tex]
which we can express in percentage terms as:
[tex]E_{year}=4.1 %\\[/tex]
So, the answer is the option 2=4.1%.
The earning yield made using the data given is the ratio of the change in the earning per share to the price per share which is 4.1%
The new earning per share = $7.82 Price per share = 190.71Earning yield = Earning per share / Price per share
Earning yield = $7.82 / $190.71
Earning yield = 0.0410046
This could be expressed as a percentage = 0.041 × 100% = 4.1%
Therefore, the earning yield made is 4.1%
Learn more :https://brainly.com/question/14470452
For the quarter ended March 31, 2014, Maris Company accumulates the following sales data for its product, Garden-Tools: $334,300 budget; $305,700 actual. In the second quarter, budgeted sales were $382,300, and actual sales were $387,600. Prepare a static budget report for the second quarter and for the year to date.
Answer:
Explanation:
The preparation of ta static budget report for the second quarter is shown below:
Maris Company
Sales Budget Report
For the Quarter Ended June 30, 2017
Second Quarter Year to date
Product Line Budget Actual Difference Budget Actual Difference
Garden Tools $334,300 $382,300 $48,000 $716,600 $693,300 $23,300
Favorable Unfavorable
The year to date balances are computed below:
For Budget:
= $334,300 + $382,300
= $716,600
For Actual:
= $305,700 + $387,600
= $693,300
The Maris Company had higher actual sales than budgeted for the second quarter but is still behind the budget year to date. A static budget report shows they are $5,300 over budget for Q2 but $23,300 under budget when combining Q1 and Q2 figures.
Static Budget Report for Maris Company
For the quarter ended March 31, 2014, Maris Company had a budgeted sales amount for Garden-Tools of $334,300 and actual sales came in at $305,700. In the second quarter, the budgeted sales were set at $382,300, while the actual sales achieved were $387,600. Therefore, for the second quarter, Maris Company exceeded its sales budget by $5,300. When preparing a static budget report, we compare the budgeted amounts against the actual results without adjusting them throughout the period.
To generate a static budget report for the second quarter, we'd tabulate the budgeted and actual sales, and then calculate the variance between them. For a yearly report, we'd combine the first and second quarter figures, providing a comparison between the total budgeted sales for the half-year and the actual sales.
Second Quarter Static Budget Report
Budgeted Sales: $382,300
Actual Sales: $387,600
Variance: Actual sales are higher by $5,300
Year to Date Static Budget Report
Budgeted Sales Year to Date: $716,600 ($334,300 from Q1 + $382,300 from Q2)
Actual Sales Year to Date: $693,300 ($305,700 from Q1 + $387,600 from Q2)
Variance Year to Date: Actual sales are lower by $23,300
Even though the sales exceeded the budget in the second quarter, year to date actual sales are still below the budgeted amount. This provides useful insight into the company's sales performance and can help to inform future budgeting decisions.
It is common for supermarkets to carry both generic (store-label) and brand-name (producer-label) varieties of sugar and other products. Many consumers view these products as perfect substitutes, meaning that consumers are always willing to substitute a constant proportion of the store brand for the producer brand. Consider a consumer who is always willing to substitute four pounds of a generic store-brand sugar for two pounds of a brand-name sugar. Do these preferences exhibit a diminishing marginal rate of substitution between store-brand and producer-brand sugar?
Answer and explanation:
Yes, the fact that a consumer is willing to replace four pounds of generic store-brand sugar for two pounds of a brand-name sugar reflects a diminishing marginal rate of substitution. This type of marginal rate of substitution (MRS) explains how a consumer is willing to acquire less quantity of one good to get one more additional unit of another good that is equally satisfying. In a graph, the diminishing MRS is calculated using an indifference curve.
Underline all of the following costs that are included in the cost of land.
a) Removal of unwanted buildings
b) Lighting
c) Fencing and paving
d) Brokerage commission
e) Survey fees and legal fees
f) Purchase price
g) Security system
Answer:
a) Removal of unwanted buildings
d) Brokerage commission
e) Survey fees and legal fees
f) Purchase price
One behavioral factor that must be considered when responsibilities are assigned to managers is
A. Managers should be held responsible for only actual revenues and actual costs and not for standard revenues or standard costs.B. Managers with responsibility for direct labor costs should compute efficiency variances based on labor used rather than labor purchased.C. Managers should not be allowed to influence the plans and standards for those activities over which they have substantial control.D. Managers should be held responsible for only those cost,revenues, or assets over which they have substantial control.E. Managers in decentralized organizations should be held responsible for the costs, revenues, and assets in all departments in the organization, whether they directly control those departments or not.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": Managers should be held responsible for only actual revenues and actual costs and not for standard revenues or standard costs.
Explanation:
Standard revenues and costs in a company are those calculated after several years of operations. It measures an approximate of how much profits the organization could earn and how much is needed to keep the operations going. Managers should only be evaluated on the actual profits and costs incurred in the firm since only with them they have control.
You are given the following information for Lightning Power Co. Assume the company’s tax rate is 22 percent. Debt: 12,000 6.1 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 27 years to maturity, selling for 109 percent of par; the bonds make semiannual payments. Common stock: 450,000 shares outstanding, selling for $63 per share; beta is 1.14. Preferred stock: 19,500 shares of 3.9 percent preferred stock outstanding, currently selling for $84 per share. The par value is $100 per share. Market: 5 percent market risk premium and 4.9 percent risk-free rate. What is the company's WACC?
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) measures the average rate of return a company must earn to cover its financing costs. To calculate WACC, we need to determine the percentage of each source of financing (debt, common stock, preferred stock) to the total capital structure of the company. We then multiply the cost of each source by its weight and sum the results.
Explanation:The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) measures the average rate of return a company must earn to cover its financing costs. To calculate WACC, we need to determine the percentage of each source of financing (debt, common stock, preferred stock) to the total capital structure of the company. We then multiply the cost of each source by its weight and sum the results. In this case, we have 3 sources of financing: debt, common stock, and preferred stock.
Debt: We have 12,000 bonds outstanding with a 6.1% coupon rate. The current market price is 109% of the par value. We can calculate the cost of debt using the formula (Coupon Rate x Bond Price) / Bond Price. In this case, the cost of debt is (6.1% x 109%) / 100% = 6.661%.Common Stock: We have 450,000 shares outstanding with a market price of $63 per share. To calculate the cost of common stock, we need the company's beta, market risk premium, and risk-free rate. With a beta of 1.14, a market risk premium of 5%, and a risk-free rate of 4.9%, we can use the formula Cost of Common Stock = Risk-Free Rate + (Beta x Market Risk Premium). In this case, the cost of common stock is 4.9% + (1.14 x 5%) = 10.9%.Preferred Stock: We have 19,500 shares of preferred stock outstanding with a market price of $84 per share and a par value of $100 per share. To calculate the cost of preferred stock, we use the formula (Preferred Dividend / Preferred Stock Price). In this case, the cost of preferred stock is (3.9% x $100) / $84 = 4.64%.
Next, we need to determine the weights of each source of financing. The weight of debt is Debt Value / Total Capital Value, the weight of common stock is Common Stock Value / Total Capital Value, and the weight of preferred stock is Preferred Stock Value / Total Capital Value. Finally, we multiply the cost of each source by its weight and sum the results to get the WACC.
Learn more about WACC here:https://brainly.com/question/29649849
#SPJ11
Floridyne, Inc. manufactures mouthwash. They had no finished goods inventory at the beginning of 2019. They have only one processing department for this product. A review of the company’s inventory records shows the following: At the beginning of January 2019, Floridyne has 4,500 gallons of mouthwash in process. (costs $8,410 for materials, 1,663 for labor and 4,990 for overhead) During 2019, Floridyne finishes/transfers 162,000 gallons of mouthwash. On December 31, 2019, Floridyne has 6,200 gallons of mouthwash that is 70% complete. Direct materials are added half at the beginning of the process and half after the process is 60% complete. During 2019 $349,000 of direct materials and $92,500 of direct labor were added. Using the weighted average approach to process costing, Floridyne would use what number of equivalent units in 2019 to calculate the cost per equivalent unit for direct labor?
Answer:
equivalent untis Labor: 166,340
Explanation:
Under weighted average we don't make distinction between started and finished and just finished. Thus we work with finished and ending WIP only:
finished 162,000
ending WIP 6,200 ending at 70% complete
Equivalent units for labor:
finished + percentage of completion ending units
162,000 + 6,200 x 70% = 166,340
Information concerning the stock of a corporation must be outlined in the articles of incorporation.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
The company's incorporation article is a series of official documents submitted to a government agency to legitimize the establishment of a company. The articles of incorporation must contain the relevant information, such as company name, street address, representative of the operation service and the number and type of shares, stocks to be issued. The article of incorporation is sometimes called "charter of the company", "charter of the association" or "constituent document". The charter of the association is the documentation required for a company to be registered with the government and acts as an arrangement to recognize the establishment of a company. The document summarizes the basic information required to set up a company, the institutional rules of the state in which the management of a company and the charter of the association are submitted.
Suppose that on January 1 you have a balance of $4100 on a credit card whose APR is 16%, which you want to pay off in 1 year. Assume that you make no additional charges to the card after January 1. a. Calculate your monthly payments. b. When the card is paid off, how much will you have paid since January 1? c. What percentage of your total payment from part (b) is interest?
To pay off a credit card balance of $4100 with an APR of 16% in one year, the monthly payments would be $367.86, totalling $4414.32 over the year. The total interest paid would be $314.32, which is 7.12% of the total payments.
Explanation:To calculate your monthly payments on a credit card balance of $4100 with an APR of 16% that you want to pay off in 1 year, you first have to understand how APR works. APR, or Annual Percentage Rate, represents the annualized interest that you're required to pay on your credit card balance. In this case, an APR of 16% means that you will pay $4100 * 0.16 = $656 in interest over the year if you made no payments.
However, since you will be making equal monthly payments to pay off the balance, your actual interest will be slightly less, and the remaining part of your monthly payment will go towards reducing your outstanding balance. You can find your monthly payment using the loan amortization formula, which in this case would be: Payment = [$4100 * 0.16 / 12] / [1 - (1 + 0.16 / 12)^-12] = $367.86.
a. Thus, your monthly payments will be $367.86.
b. Over the course of a year, that adds up to $367.86 * 12 = $4414.32. So, you would have paid $4414.32 by the end of the year to completely pay off your credit card balance.
c. The total interest paid would be $4414.32 - $4100 = $314.32. Therefore, the percentage of your total payments that is interest would be $314.32 / $4414.32 * 100 = 7.12%.
Learn more about credit card debt repayment here:https://brainly.com/question/33770387
#SPJ12
The management of Bonga Corporation is considering dropping product D74F. Data from the company's accounting system for this product for last year appear below: Sales $830,000 Variable expenses $390,000 Fixed manufacturing expenses $266,000 Fixed selling and administrative expenses $232,000 All fixed expenses of the company are fully allocated to products in the company's accounting system. Further investigation has revealed that $111,000 of the fixed manufacturing expenses and $103,000 of the fixed selling and administrative expenses are avoidable if product D74F is discontinued. According to the company's accounting system, what is the net operating income earned by product D74F? Include all costs in this calculation—whether relevant or not. a. $58,000 b. $440,000 c. $58,000 d. $440,000
Answer:
$-58,000
Explanation:
As we are computing for operating income earned as per the company's accounting system, we will use all absorbed and allocated costs.
Sales $830,000
Less:
Variable expenses $390,000
Manufacturing expenses $266,000
Fixed Selling and Admin $232,000
Profit as per Accounting system $-58,000
According to the accounting system, there is a loss of $58,000 for D74F
Hope that helps.
Answer:
From the data given
the total sales=$830,000
variable expenses=$390000
Then the net operating income=Net sales-variable expenses
Net operating income=$440000
option D
SME Company has a debt-equity ratio of .57. Return on assets is 7.9 percent, and total equity is $620,000. a. What is the equity multiplier.b. What is the return on equity?c. What is the net income?
The equity multiplier for SME Company is 1.56. Its Return on Equity (ROE) is 12.3%. The Net Income of the company is $76,260.
Explanation:Let's answer each part of the question step by step.
a. Equity Multiplier: The equity multiplier is an indicator of the financial leverage of a company. It can be calculated as (Total Assets / Total Equity). Since the Debt/Equity ratio is given as 0.57, this implies Debt/Total Assets = 0.57/(1+0.57) = 0.36. Therefore, Equity/Total Assets = 1 - 0.36 = 0.64. Thus, the equity multiplier is 1/0.64 = 1.56.
b. Return on Equity: Return on Equity (ROE) is calculated by Net Income/ Total Equity. However, it can also be calculated as Return on Assets (ROA) multiplied by the equity multiplier. Given that the ROA is 7.9 percent and the equity multiplier is 1.56, the ROE would be 7.9% * 1.56 = 12.3%.
c. Net Income: The Net income can be calculated by multiplying the ROE by the Total Equity. So, Net Income = ROE*Total Equity = 0.123 * $620,000 = $76,260.
Learn more about Financial Ratios here:https://brainly.com/question/31531442
The management of Petro Garcia Inc. was discussing whether certain equipment should be written off as a charge to current operations because of obsolescence. This equipment has a cost of $ 2,058,300 with depreciation to date of $ 914,800 as of December 31, 2014. On December 31, 2014, management projected its future net cash flows from this equipment to be $ 686,100 and its fair value to be $ 526,010 .The company intends to use this equipment in the future.Prepare the journal entry (if any) to record the impairment at December 31, 2014.At December 31, 2015, the equipment
Answer:
Debit Fixed Asset account $ 457,400
Credit Impairment account (p/l) $ 457,400
Being entries to recognize impairment of asset.
Explanation:
According to IAS 36 impairment of assets, an asset is impaired when the carry amount is lower that the recoverable amount. The recoverable amount is the higher of the value in use or the fair value less cost to sell. The value in use is the present value of the future cash inflows expected from the use of the asset.
Cost of asset = $2,058,300
Depreciation to date = $ 914,800
Carrying amount = $2,058,300 - $ 914,800
= $ 1,143,500
Fair value = $526,010
Expected future net cash flows from the equipment = $686,100
The recoverable amount equals expected future net cash flows from the equipment since this is higher than fair value. This is $686,100.
Since this is lower than the carrying amount, the asset is impaired said to be impaired and will be written down to it's recoverable amount.
Hence
Amount to be written down = $ 1,143,500 - $ 686,100
= $ 457,400
To make the adjustment,
Debit Fixed Asset account $ 457,400
Credit Impairment account (p/l) $ 457,400
Being entries to recognize impairment of asset.
A company is considering the purchase of a new machine for $66,000. Management predicts that the machine can produce sales of $22,000 each year for the next 10 years. Expenses are expected to include direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead totaling $10,400 per year including depreciation of $5,800 per year. The company's tax rate is 40%. What is the payback period for the new machine?a. 3.00 years.b. 6.73 years.c. 5.17 years.d. 11.38 years.e. 17.19 years.
Answer:
After Tax Cashflow: $
Annual sales 22,000
Less: Annual expenses 10,400
Profit before tax 11,600
Less: Tax @ 40% 4,640
Profit after tax 6,960
Add: Depreciation 5,800
After-tax net cashflow 12,760
Payback period = Initial outlay
After-tax net cashflow
= $66,000
$12,760
= 5.17 years
Explanation:
In this question, there is need to calculate after-tax net cashflow, which is sales minus expenses - tax plus depreciation. Tax is calculated at 40% of profit before tax. Payback period is the ratio of initial outlay to after-tax net cashflow.
Elliot and Conrad (a two-member LLC) operated a consulting firm (a "specified services" business). The business is equally owned and the two are not related. The business generates net income of $280,000, pays W–2 wages of $170,000, and has qualified business property of $140,000. Elliot's wife, Julie, is an attorney who works for a local law firm and receives wages of $90,000. They will file a joint tax return and use the standard deduction of $24,000. Conrad's wife, Jessica, earned wages during the year of $350,000, and Conrad and Jessica have itemized deductions of $62,000 and will file a joint return.
a. What is Elliot's qualified business income deduction?
Answer:
Elliot's qualified business income deduction is $28,000.
Explanation:
total income
= share in specified service business income + wages of wife
= 280000*50% + $90000
= $230,000
taxable income before QBI = total income - standard deduction
= $230,000 - $24,000
= $206,000
QBI deduction is lesser of:
- 20% of qualified business income
= $140,000*20%
= $28,000
Therefore, Elliot's qualified business income deduction is $28,000.
A company had total revenues of $200 million, operating profit margin of 20%, and depreciation and amortization expense of $10 million over the trailing twelve months. The company currently has $300 million in total debt and $100 million in cash and cash equivalents. If the company's market capitalization (market value of its equity) is $1 billion, what is its EV/EBITDA ratio? Solution: EBITDA = EBIT + Depreciation & Amortization = Revenues x Operating profit margin + Depreciation & Amortization = $200 million x 0.2 + $10 million = $50 million EV = Equity + Debt-Cash = $1 billion + $300 million - $100 million = $1.2 billion EV / EBITDA = $1.2 billion/$50 million = 24.0 Reading assessment 5.12 Homework. Unanswered You are in the middle of valuing a stock using the DCF method. According to your projections, the company is expected to generate free cash flows of $40 million in 4 years, after which FCFF is expected to grow at a stable rate in perpetuity. Instead of using the perpetuity growth method, you decide to estimate the company's terminal value using the exit multiple approach. Your analysis of comparable companies reveal an average EV/FCFF ratio of 15.0. What is your estimate of the company's Terminal Value? Answer in millions, rounded to one decimal place.
Answer:
$600 million
Explanation:
Valuation of companies using the terminal multiple approach is far less complex than the perpetual or perpetuity growth approach.
With the terminal multiple approach we apply the 'Exit Multiple DCF Terminal Value Formula'.
TV = Financial metric (i.e. EBITDA) x trading multiple (i.e. 15x)
Hence the terminal value of the company is $40*15 = $600