Answer:
Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.
Explanation:
The body of the teenagers undergoes through the different physical and physiological change. Both girls and boys becomes reproductively mature and has changed in the voice and development of special physical characters.
The girls starts shows menstruation. The start of the menstruation is known as menarche. The girls should give prior knowledge and support during this stage. In case of Liza, she was unprepared for the menarche and has no prior knowledge. The Liza's mother did not give her any knowledge.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The poles receive the highest amount of insolation.
b. The highest levels of insolation occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes.
c. Insolation is equal at all surfaces across the globe.
d. There is always a very predictable latitudinal gradient of insolation.
Answer:
b. The highest levels of insolation occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes.
Explanation:
As we know insolation is zero at the poles and maximum at the equator. It decreases from the equator to poles. B is the right option.The sun is closest to the earth in January (winter in the northern hemisphere), so that the maximum solar insolation received in the southern hemisphere is greater than that received in the northern hemisphere. At the equinoxes, solar insolation is at a maximum at the equator and is zero at the poles.
The highest levels of insolation generally occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes. Insolation refers to the Sun's energy received on a surface, which varies depending on latitude and is influenced by factors such as the Earth's axial tilt and seasons.
The correct answer from the given options is 'b. The highest levels of insolation occur in the equatorial and tropical latitudes'. Insolation refers to the amount of the Sun's energy that is received on a surface. This energy varies depending on latitude, with the highest levels found around the equator where sunlight is direct. As we move towards the poles, the angle of sunlight becomes more oblique resulting in lower levels of insolation.
Options 'a', 'c', and 'd' are not generally true. The poles do not receive the highest amount of insolation and insolation is not equal at all surfaces. Also, the latitudinal gradient of insolation is influenced by the season and Earth's axial tilt, thereby making it less predictable.
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The Swiss Forum for Sport Nutrition has developed a Food Pyramid for Athletes that has been scientifically validated for athletes 20–35 years old, weighing 50–85 kg, who train 5–28 hours per week. Group of answer choices False True
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The food pyramid was constructed based on age and exercise hours because nutritional need and absorption rate of digestive system differ according to age, weight and training hours.
A particular antibiotic kills 99% of a bacterial population. What will be the result of the continued application of this antibiotic?
Answer:
over time the antibiotic will become less effective against bacteria.
Explanation:
A new antibiotic can kill a greater percentage of bacteria because very less bacteria is resistant towards that antibiotic but when that antibiotic is used continuously for a long time then some bacteria develop resistance against that antibiotic and due to natural selection these bacteria are selected.
So if a particular antibiotic kills 99% of a bacterial population so the continuous use of this antibiotic will allow some bacteria to evolve resistance against it. Then these resistant bacteria will be selected by natural selection and over time the antibiotic will become less effective against bacteria.
Continued application of antibiotics leads to survival and proliferation of resistant forms of bacteria due to the principle of natural selection. Misuse of antibiotics, especially in livestock feed, accelerates this process. It contributes to a medical crisis, making it challenging for scientists to generate an effective and approved drug.
Explanation:The continued application of an antibiotic that kills 99% of a bacterial population would lead to the survival of resistant forms of bacteria. The antibiotic massacres most harmful bacteria, however, resistant forms persist and multiply, causing an increase in their proportion. This phenomenon is known as natural selection.
Overuse and misuse of antibiotics, particularly in livestock, accelerates this process. In the United States, for example, antibiotics constitute 70% of the total amount given to animals, often in low doses which intensify the chances of resistance development. These resistant bacteria can subsequently be transferred to humans.
In conclusion, the upshot is a medical crisis where a simple bacterial infection could pose grave threats to human health. Development of new antibiotics is in progress, but it takes years of research and substantial financial investment. Consequently, judicious use of antibiotics is crucial to prevent rapid development of antibiotic resistance.
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From the hazards listed below, determine which could require foot protection. (Select all that apply). A)Falling objects B)Loose cords C)Sharps D)Slippery areas E)Hazardous f)liquids G) Low-hanging beams
Falling objects, sharps, and hazardous liquids are hazards that may require foot protection to prevent possible injuries. It's important to wear suitable foot protection while dealing with these hazards.
Explanation:The hazards that could require foot protection include
A) Falling objects,
C) Sharps, and
E) Hazardous liquids.
Falling objects can cause foot injuries if they land on one's feet. Similarly, sharps such as needles, glass shards, or metal pieces can cause foot harm if stepped on. Hazardous liquids might lead to chemical burns, infections or other injuries if they come into contact with skin. Therefore, wearing appropriate foot protection such as steel-toed boots or safety shoes when dealing with these hazards is essential to avoid injuries.
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Foot protection is required for a) falling objects, c) sharps, and e) hazardous liquids. These hazards pose risks such as physical injury from impact, punctures, and chemical burns or other skin damage, thus necessitating the use of protective footwear.
From the list of hazards provided, the ones that could require foot protection include:
a) Falling objects: These pose a risk of injury as they could fall on a person's feet.c) Sharps: Sharps such as needles or metal scraps on the floor could puncture footwear and injure the feet.e) Hazardous liquids: Corrosive or toxic liquids can damage skin on contact, so protective footwear is necessary to prevent foot injuries.To use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), workers must be aware of hazards such as falling objects, sharps, and hazardous liquids to maintain a safe working environment.
A possible explanation for the effectiveness of ________ is that it may reduce depression by triggering the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
Answer: Antidepressants
Explanation:
The effectiveness of ANTIDEPRESSANTS is best explained by how they stimulate the synapse junctions of several neurons in the body to a top frequency, thus inducing a continuous "feel-good" feeling in the patients administered such drugs.
This ability of antidepressants to sustain this "feel - good" feeling supresses depression and is known as the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
"A pregnant client comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of urinary frequency and lower back pain on the right, stating that this has never happened before. An exam validates the diagnosis of pyelonephritis. What factors would contribute to this condition?
Answer: Pyelonepheritis is basically the inflammtion of kidney.
There alot of causes of pyelonephritis apart from pegnancy as the most common being the bacterial infection.
Explanation:
Pyelonephritis is the severe infection of the kidneys, which may cause fever and flank tenderness along with nausea,vomiting,burning and frequent mictuaration.
Its main cause is bacterial infection mainly 80% infected by E.coli, other bacteria includes Protues, Staphylococcus,Klebsiella species.
Risk factors include sexual intercourse, previous urinary tract infections, diabetes and structural problems of urinary tract.
Pyelonephritis a kidney infection, is more common in pregnant women due to physiological changes such as urinary tract dilation, reduced bladder tone, slowed peristalsis, and hormonal influences, which create favorable conditions for bacterial growth and the ascent of infection from the bladder to the kidneys.
Explanation:The condition mentioned in your question is pyelonephritis, an infection affecting one or both kidneys. It's more commonly seen in women, especially during pregnancy, which is often due to a few contributing factors. During pregnancy, physiological changes such as increased urinary tract dilation and reduced bladder tone increase the likelihood of urinary stasis and vesicoureteral reflux, which are two conditions that facilitate the propagation of bacteria from the bladder to the upper urinary tract. More so, progestogens and estrogens supplying the gravid uterus cause relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary tract, providing a conducive environment for bacterial growth. This, coupled with a physiologic decrease in urine concentration and urinary tract peristalsis, may give rise to a urinary tract infection, leading to pyelonephritis if the infection ascends to the kidneys.
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There is more than one way people can become parents. What do a biological parent, adoptive parent, and foster parent have in common?
Answer:
Parenting responsibility
Explanation:
The above people all have the legal right to the parenting of their ward.
Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
a. diphtheria
b. measles
c. tuberculosis
d. botulism
e. the common cold
Answer: d) botulism
Explanation:
Droplet transmission occurs when bacteria or viruses travel on relatively large respiratory droplets that people sneeze, cough, drip, or exhale.
Many common infections can spread by droplet transmission in at least some cases, including: Common cold, Diphtheria, Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum), Influenza, Meningitis, Mycoplasma, Mumps, Pertussis (whooping cough), Plague, Rubella, Strep (strep throat, scarlet fever, pneumonia), Tuberculosis, measles.
Frequent hand cleansing, especially with instant hand sanitizers, can help prevent droplet transmission.
In the following tetrahybrid cross AaBbCcDd x AaBbCcDd what proportion of the F2 offspring would be expected to be genotypically AABBCCdd?
A. 3/4
B. 1/2
C. 1/256
D. 81/256
E. 9/256
Answer:
C. 1/256
Explanation:
In the tetrahybrid cross, we have different four groups. Let name them Part (A, B, C & D).
Let Part A be Aa and Aa... If both traits crosses; we have
A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
Let Part B be Bb and Bb... If both traits crosses; we have
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
Let C be Cc and Cc ... If both traits crossses; we have
C c
C CC Cc
c Cc cc
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
Let D be Dd and Dd... If both traits crosses; we have
D d
D DD Dd
d Dd dd
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
A genotype has the 4 groups together. Therefore the possible number of ways of forming the genotype = 4 x 4 x 4 x 4= 256
Now, Probability that the F2 offspring would be expected to be genotypically AABBCCdd = [tex]\frac{number of genotype AABBCCdd}{Total number of genotype in the offsprings}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{1}{256}[/tex]
The idea that a specific function, like color vision, occurs in a specific region of the brain is called _____.
Answer:
Cortical localization
Explanation:
The theory of localization explains that certain functions are associated with specific areas of brain. According to theory of cortical localization of function different cerebral cortical territories perform different functions, such as vision and language. Such as any damage to Broca's area will render a person to speak although he is able to understand the language. In the same way any damage to ventral occipital lobe/cortical region will cause a problem in color vision.
Hoping this might be helpful.
Which of the following best describes an opportunity for pharmacists to use diagnosis-based screening to identify people at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases?
Answer:
Vaccination may be defined as the process of the administration of the particular antigen or the chemicals in the form of vaccine against a particular disease. Vaccination helps in the prevention of disease.
The pharmacist almost have proper knowledge about the vaccination and its effects. The screening to identify whether the individual is at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases by performing the medication on the the client that are suffering from diabetes.
The tiny blue-eyed Mary flower is often one of the first flowers seen in the spring in some regions of the United States. The flower is normally blue, but sometimes a white or pink flower variation is found.
The following data were obtained after several crosses.
Parents F1 F2
Blue × white Blue 196 blue, 63 white
Blue × pink Blue 149 blue, 52 pink
Pink × white Blue 226 blue, 98 white, 77 pink
(A) The appearance of blue in the F1 generation of the pink and white cross demonstrates that flower color is not an inherited trait but is determined by the environment.
(B) Flower color depends on stages of flower development, and young flowers are white, advancing to pink and then blue.
(C) Since the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the pink and white cross do not fit the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios, blue-eyed. Mary must reproduce by vegetative propagation.
(D) Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the
phenotypic expression.
Answer:
Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression.
Explanation:
The crossing between the two generations of phenotypes creates a cross between the two colors of traits indefinitely.
Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression.
What are phenotypes?The phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism. The term covers the organism's morphology or physical form and structure, its developmental processes.
Phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits, such as height, eye color and blood type. A person's phenotype is determined by both their genomic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors.
Phenotypic variation in humans is a direct consequence of genetic variation, which acts in conjunction with environmental and behavioral factors to produce phenotypic diversity.
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Round seeds and yellow seed color are dominant to wrinkled seeds and green seed color. Which Punnett square represents the correct way to set up the cross RRYy ´ RrYY?
Answer:
A punnet square can be described as a diagram which depicts the outcomes of the genotype and phenotype of offsprings from a cross between parents. A cross in which a single trait is being considered is a monohybrid cross. A cross in which two traits are being studied is considered as a dihybrid cross.
The punnet square for such a cross can be made as follows:
RY RY rY rY
RY RRYY RRYY RrYY RrYy
RY RRYY RRYY RrYY RrYY
Ry RRYy RRYy RrYy RrYy
Ry RRYy RRYy RrYy RrYy
Answer:
is C
Explanation:
i wouldnt give an answer unless i knew it was the right one
A novice nurse provides aftercare instructions to a client who has just had sutures removed. Which statement by the novice nurse requires the nurse preceptor to clarify?
Answer:
Statement like this 'If the wound edges are red or raised, you should call your doctor." need to be clarified by a nurse preceptor.
Explanation:
Suture is a thread-like material or a stitch which is used to hold together or sew tissue or surgical incision together.
A nurse preceptor is a nurse that is highly experienced and known to be competent, playing a role as a role- model or point of call either to a newly employed staff nurse or a nurse that has just been posted to a new unit or section, where he/she has no experience about.
In this case , the novice nurse must clarify the statements from the the nurse preceptor before disseminating it to the client. This is very important , in order to avoid a negative aftermath effects.
Fill in the blanks. A limitation of using oral medications is that they are absorbed slowly and are affected by __________ and ____________.
Answer:
stomach acid , enzymes
Explanation:
Oral dosage medications, such as tablets and capsules are the most convenient way of administering a drug to patients. They are economical and the patient can use them without supervision. However, oral medications also have several disadvantages.
In emergency cases especially when the patient is unconscious, oral medications are not preferred because of slow absorption as compared to intravenous medication.Stomach acid and digestive enzymes can degrade the drug in the stomach or small intestine, lowering or completely diminishing its activity.Stomach acids (low pH) can easily dissociate the components of the drug. Therefore, drugs such as salicylic acid, aspirin, thiopental, secobarbital and antipyrine are administered through oral route because they can survive highly acidic pH.Depending upon the type of functional groups present in the drug, oral drugs are susceptible to degradation by enzymes. Resistance to enzymes and fluctuating pH levels are crucial predictors of drug stability.Dietary glucose is transported into a cell against its concentration gradient with the aid of membrane proteins called Na /glucose _____.
Answer:
Na+/glucose symporters.
Explanation:
Na+/glucose symporters helps in transporting the glucose across the membrane. It is a transmembrane protein and glucose transport is an example of secondary active transport Na ions is required to drive the transport of glucose.
As it is a symporter so this protein transport sodium and glucose in the same direction. ATP energy is used to transport the glucose against the concentration gradient. Na+/glucose symporters are present on epithelial cell with binds to both Na and glucose and transport them simultaneously in the epithelial cell. So the right answer is Na+/glucose symporters.
The missing phrase is 'co-transporters'. Na/glucose co-transporters assist in the transport of glucose into a cell against its concentration gradient through secondary active transport mechanism.
Explanation:The missing word in the statement is co-transporters. Dietary glucose is transported into a cell against its concentration gradient with the aid of membrane proteins called Na/glucose co-transporters. This is a mechanism in which the glucose molecules are able to move into cells from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration, which ordinarily would require energy. However, this process is coupled with the transport of sodium ions down their concentration gradient, providing the necessary energy for the glucose transport. This process is an example of secondary active transport.
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The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy is called replication. Which statement is the BEST description of this process?
A) DNA opens up and RNA copies it.B) DNA opens up and completely unwinds to make two new molecules.C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand.D) RNA opens up the DNA and uses each strand as a template for a new strand.
Answer:
C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand.
Explanation:
DNA molecule is present in the form of a double helix. The hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands are broken down by the enzyme helicase. This enzyme uses the energy of the hydrolysis of ATP to perform the denaturation of DNA. Breaking of hydrogen bonds separates the two DNA strands from each other. Now, each of the DNA strands serves as a template which means that its nucleotide sequence would specify the nucleotide sequence of the newly formed strand. The process is catalyzed by the enzyme DNA polymerase in a primer dependent manner.
DNA replication is a process where the DNA molecule splits open and each strand serves as a template for a new strand, producing two new molecules. This mechanism ensures that each new cell gets an exact copy of the DNA.
Explanation:The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy, known as DNA replication, is best described by option C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand. In this process, the DNA strand splits open, forming a replication fork. Then, enzymes like DNA polymerase add nucleotides to the exposed strands following their base pairing rules, thereby creating two new identical molecules - one for each half of the fork. This ensures that each new cell has an exact copy of the DNA.
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Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Organisms are open systems as they can exchange both energy and materials with their environments. b) In an open system energy can be converted from one form to another. c) Energy can be transferred between a system and the surroundings. d) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments.
Answer:
d) Organisms are open systems as they can create energy from their environments. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can not be created or destroyed, it can be only changed or transferred from one form to another, like radiant energy to heat, motion energy to electrical, chemical to mechaqnical energy, among other examples. This law is also called: the law of conservation of energy.
Explanation:
A group of students are reviewing the common conditions associated with the upper respiratory tract. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify what as a response to a specific antigen?
Answer:
Seasonal rhinitis
Explanation:
The seasonal allergic rhinitis refers to an inflammatory condition of the upper respiratory tract or upper airways especially nose caused by the exposure to the airborne allergens or harmless antigens like the pollens.
The seasonal rhinitis is usually observed during the fall season and spring when the pollens acts as an allergen and causes the itchy eyes, sneezing and runny nose.
The allergy is caused when the body produces a chemokine called histamine against the allergen and causes an inflammatory response.
Thus, Seasonal rhinitis is the correct answer.
A client reports a general deterioration in his health over the past several weeks. Which assessment and laboratory findings would be most closely associated with acute leukemia?
Answer: On clinical examintaion of the client, general signs of anemia, pallor and cardiac flow mrumur can be seen. Lab daignosis of acute leukemia can be done by bone marrow aspiration and biopsy.
Explanation:
Acute leukemia is a malignant neoplastic condition arising from the myeloid line or the lymphoid line of cell.
All are typically childhood malingancy but acute leukemia is primarily found more in adults.
A client with acute leukemia me present with fevers, chills, fatigue weakness, pain, bleeding from the gums, pallor nd frequent infections.
Laboratory diagnosis of acute leukemia can be done by bone marrow aspiration, biopsy, flow cytometry and blood tests.
A scientist claimed that hemophilia is caused by a functional deficiency in Factor VIII. The evidence in the passage that would best support this claim is that Factor VIII is:
A.a soluble blood protein.B.produced by a gene on the X chromosome.C.able to relieve hemophilia symptoms.D.encoded by a gene that contains introns.
The best evidence that hemophilia is caused by a deficiency in Factor VIII is that c) Factor VIII is able to relieve hemophilia symptoms. This directly suggests that the absence of functional Factor VIII is the root cause of the disorder.
The best evidence in the passage supporting the claim that hemophilia is caused by a functional deficiency in Factor VIII is that c) Factor VIII is able to relieve hemophilia symptoms. This means that patients treated with Factor VIII can see an improvement in their condition, which directly suggests that a lack of functional Factor VIII causes hemophilia.
A. Factor VIII is a soluble blood protein - While this is true, it does not directly support the claim that a deficiency in Factor VIII causes hemophilia.B. Factor VIII is produced by a gene on the X chromosome - This statement explains the genetic inheritance of the disorder but does not directly link the deficiency to hemophilia symptoms.C. Factor VIII is able to relieve hemophilia symptoms - This is the correct answer. If administering Factor VIII improves symptoms, it demonstrates that its deficiency is the underlying cause of hemophilia.D. Factor VIII is encoded by a gene that contains introns - This is a factual statement about the gene’s structure but does not provide evidence linking the deficiency to the disease's symptoms.A vegetative cell is _______.
a. a metabolically active cell
b. a non-diving bacterial cell
c. a bacterial cell with
d. an impervious coating
e. a frozen cell
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A vegetative cell is similar to the somatic cells in our body. They are cells of a bacterium or other organisms that actively divide instead of forming reproductive structures like spores. Vegetative cell is any other cell asides the reproductive cells in an organism. Unlike reproductive cells (spores) in some organisms which helps such organism withstand adverse condition in order to ensure germination, vegetative cells are metabolically active and hence keeps undergoing division.
When conditions are unfavorable e.g nutrient deficiency, water inavailability etc. a bacterium cell forms an endospore used to endure that period, once things go back to normal, the endospore germinates into a viable vegetative cell that can continue growth and cell division.
A vegetative cell is a metabolically active cell (option A). It is often used to describe the active growth phase in bacteria and plants.
Explanation:A vegetative cell is a metabolically active cell that is engaged in maintaining life processes. It is an actively growing cell in a bacterial population. It is in contrast to spore forms or resting stages, which are not actively metabolizing or dividing. This usually involves activities such as growth, nutrition intake, and reproduction. A vegetative cell is a non-dividing cell and doesn't have an impervious coating.
The term is often used in the context of bacteria and plants, reflecting the active growth phase of these organisms.
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This type of research is descriptive and investigates the why and how of decision making, not just what, where, when. These methods produce information only on the particular cases studied, and any more general conclusions are only propositions (informed assertions).
a. quantitative
b. ethnographic
c. microgenic
d. qualitative
Answer:
The correct answer is - option D.
Explanation:
Qualitative research is research or scientific method which is involved in various subject matters and fields, of collecting observation and nonnumeric data. This is the research normally is descriptive, exploratory and other qualitative methods to answer the question.
It is an investigation that is not just addressed what and where but also to the questions like how, and why. This is the reason these are used in small samples rather than large samples and also used on species cases to get information.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
In the chart below, identify the structures that will develop in each whorl in the mutant flowers. (the structures in wild-type flowers and one mutant have already been filled in for you.) drag the labels to their appropriate locations in the chart. labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Question does not have chart in it. So i have added the full chart with answers. See attachment.
Answer:
a. sepal
b. sepal
c. sepal
d. petal
e. carpel
f. petal
g. carpel
h. sepal
Match these items.
1 . a dinoflagellate responsible for red tide off the Florida coast
2 . a fungi known for the production of an antibiotic
3 . a protozoan known to cause malaria
4 . the water mold that causes late blight in potatoes
5 . the bacteria responsible for Lyme Disease 6 . Penicillium chrysogenum common mushrooms found in grocery stores
a. Karenia brevis
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Phytophthera infestans
d. Plasmodium vivax
e. Agaricus bisporis
Answer:
1 . a dinoflagellate responsible for red tide off the Florida coast -Karenia brevis
2 . a fungi known for the production of an antibiotic - Penicillium chrysogenum
3 . a protozoan known to cause malaria -Plasmodium vivax
4 . the water mold that causes late blight in potatoes -Phytophthera infestans
5 . the bacteria responsible for Lyme Disease Borrelia burgdorferi
6 . common mushrooms found in grocery stores Agaricus bisporus
Describe the Phenotypes and Genotypes of the Rabbits
Answer:
The answer to your question is
a) BB and bb
b) 100% black
Explanation:
From the information given, we know that black rabbits are dominants and white rabbits are recessives.
a) We know that all the offspring is heterozygous so, the parents must be homozygous.
BB x bb
Punnett Square
b b
B Bb Bb ⇒ Offspring
B Bb Bb
Genotype of the parents= BB and bb
b) Phenotypes percents for the offspring = 100 % black
The mosses and ferns both require water to enable the sperm to travel to the egg and fertilize it. Does this indicate that the ferns and mosses have a close relation to water plants? Explain your reasoning.
Answer:
Yes, the ferns and the mosses might have close relation to water plants.
Explanation:
The adaptations of mosses and ferns show that they are primitive species which are imperfectly adapted to live in a terrestrial environment. For example, the mosses do not possess roots so that they can get water from the soil. Also, the mosses lack vascular tissues which allow transportation of water in a plant. Both, mosses and ferns, require for reproduction. These characteristics show that they once had ancestors that lived in the water. Hence, the mosses and ferns have close relation with water plants.
The need for water in fertilization processes of ferns and mosses doesn't mean they are closely related to water plants. This requirement reflects their primitive characteristics rather than an affinity with aquatic plants.
Explanation:The requirement of water for the process of fertilization in both ferns and mosses does not necessarily mean they are closely related to water plants. Many land plants, including ferns and mosses, have not fully adapted to the terrestrial environment and still require water for certain processes, like fertilization. It's their primitive characteristic rather than a sign of close relation with aquatic plants. Aquatic plants, on the other hand, have specifically adapted to survive and reproduce entirely in a water environment.
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Which function is NOT a property of life?
1. Populations of organisms rarely change over time.
2. Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.
3. Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.
4. Organisms reproduce their own kind.
Answer: The function which is not a property of life is that the populations of organisms rarely change over time because evolution occurs.
Explanation:
Evolution is defined as the changes in the charachteristics of organisms of species over generations which relies on the process of natural selection.
Over hundred of years each specie and each organism of that specie has evolved because it has adapted new chnages according to the environmnetal chnages that had occured and their need of survival.
Evolution is basically the changes in the heritable genetic material.
Hence, this is not in accordance with the definition of life that populations dont change over time.
The statement 'populations of organisms rarely change over time' does not represent a property of life. Populations often change over time, driven by evolution.
Explanation:The function that does not represent a property of life from the provided list would be "Populations of organisms rarely change over time." In truth, populations of organisms often change over time due to evolution, which is driven by natural selection and genetic drift. This is a fundamental concept in biology, contrary to the permanence stated in the function. On the other hand, functions like exhibiting complex but ordered organization, using energy for life's activities, and reproducing one's own kind are all accurately described properties of life.
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Cloning is the creation of an organism that is an exact genetic copy of another. There are a couple of ways to make an exact genetic copy of an organism: artificial embryo twinning and somatic cell nuclear transfer. Artificial embryo twinning is the relatively low-tech version of cloning and it mimics the natural process of creating identical twins. Somatic cell nuclear transfer, (SCNT) uses a different approach than artificial embryo twinning, but it produces the same result: an exact clone, or genetic copy, of an individual. What are the steps in SCNT? Order these steps so you can complete your own cloning project. A. Stimulate cell division B. Deliver baby C. Remove and discard the nucleus from the egg cell D. Isolate donor cells from egg donor and germ cell donor E. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into the egg cell F. Implant embryo into a surrogate mother
Answer: The correct order is
D. Isolate donor cells from egg donor and germ cell donor
C. Remove and discard the nucleus from the egg cell
E. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into the egg cell
A. Stimulate cell division
F. Implant embryo into a surrogate mother
B. Deliver baby
Explanation: SCNT (somatic cell nuclear transfer) is a technique used to transfer the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell to the cytoplasm of an enucleated egg (an egg whose nucleus has been removed).
The steps involved in SCNT are:
1) Preparation and extraction of the somatic cell: This step involves preparation and extraction of somatic (body) cell from any part of the body but preferably the skin.
2). Enucleation: This step involves the removal of the egg's nucleus.
3). Nuclear transfer: This involves the transfer of the somatic cell nucleus into the enucleated egg.
4). Egg incubation: It involves the incubation of the egg in a medium that stimulates cell division and conducive for embryonic development. Once the somatic cell nucleus is transfer into the egg, the cytoplasmic factors of the egg reprogramme somatic cell nucleus to become a nucleus of a zygote (fertilized egg). The zygote then develops to the blastocyst stage.
5). Embryogenesis: This involves the implantation of the blastocyst into the surrogate mother who carries the developing embryo.
6). The surrogate mother carries the developing embryo like a normal pregnancy and delivers the baby when it is due.
when scientists use their 5 senses to lean new information it is called what
Answer:
The act of observing or making an observation.
Explanation: