Answer:
Local elected or appointed officials may need to help shape or modify laws, policies, and budgets to aid preparedness efforts and to improve emergency management and response capabilities.
Option: (A)
Explanation:
The local officials that are working in the administration, irrespective of appointed or elected, need to fulfill varied responsibilities as and how the situation demands. Based on the expertise, experience, specialization, capabilities, and skills of these individuals, the superiors intelligently devise what responsibilities should be given on their shoulders.Final answer:
Local elected or appointed officials are responsible for shaping laws, policies, and budgets to enhance emergency preparedness and response, but typically delegate emergency management to professional services and are not directly involved in tactical operations at the Incident Command Post or in conducting damage assessments for FEMA.
Explanation:
The question involves understanding the roles and responsibilities of local elected or appointed officials in the context of emergency management and disaster response. The answer is that such officials may need to help shape or modify laws, policies, and budgets to aid preparedness efforts and to improve emergency management and response capabilities (Option A). They are not expected to be present at the Incident Command Post to direct first responders (Option B), nor are they normally responsible for conducting a preliminary damage assessment and submitting documentation to FEMA requesting a Federal disaster declaration (Option C). While they do have a high-level responsibility, they typically delegate the day-to-day management of emergencies to professionals within the emergency services (Option D). For example, after an earthquake, it is crucial that the command structure of local government, including the police and fire departments as well as city hall, continue to operate to direct rescue efforts and make critical decisions.
Which of the following is not one of the four overarching strategies to create and deliver value and to develop sustainable competitive advantages?
The question is incomplete. The complete question should be:
Which of the following is NOT one of the four overarching strategies to create and deliver value and to develop sustainable competitive advantages?
A. locational excellence
B. customer excellence
C. operational excellence
D. product excellence
E. planning excellence
Answer:
(E). planning excellence
Explanation:
For an organization to create and deliver value to its customers, and to develop sustainable competitive advantages, it must employ four strategies which are;
Locational excellence: The organization should choose a good physical location or have a strong online presence that gives it advantages over its competitors.Customer excellence: The organization should focus on customer acquisition, satisfaction and retention, through great customer service.Product excellence: The organization should provide high quality products that meet the needs of its customers.Operational excellence: The organization should strive to develop efficiency in all its supply chain processes, from manufacturing, sales, delivery, to customer service processes.The 'stuck in the middle' strategy is not one of the four overarching strategies to create and deliver value and develop sustainable competitive advantages. Those four are: cost leadership, differentiation, focused cost leadership, and focused differentiation.
Explanation:The four overarching strategies to create and deliver value and to develop sustainable competitive advantages are: cost leadership, differentiation, focused cost leadership, and focused differentiation. When a company ignores these four strategies, it usually falls into the trap of being 'stuck in the middle', which is not an effective business strategy. Stuck in the middle is characterized by firms that do not successfully follow any of the four strategies to create and deliver value and to develop sustainable competitive advantages. Instead, they try to do everything and end up being uncompetitive because they don't excel in any particular area.
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An engineering team has members from Egypt, Malaysia, Australia, Argentina, and the U.S. They communicate by email and videoconferencing. The work of this globalized team is made easier because of
Answer:
technological innovation
Explanation:
I hope this helps!!
Taylor works as a legal assistant. His insurance doesn’t cover treatment for depression, and he spends 15% of his income each month to receive care. This is an example of
a. An individual mandate
b. Universal healthcare
c. Underinsurance
d. Public insurance
Answer:
c. Underinsurance
If a teacher does not conduct activities in the class that give students the opportunity to think critically about cultural and ethnic issues, then what part identified as one of the areas for effective teaching is the teacher lacking in __________
Answer: The teacher is lacking in creative expression.
Explanation: due to not letting her or his students think more creatively aabout a situation quickly, in other words; outside the box.
The correct answer is Working effectively with students from culturally diverse backgrounds
Explanation: If a teacher does not conduct activities in the class that give students the opportunity to think critically about cultural and ethnic issues, then what part identified as one of the areas for effective teaching is the teacher lacking in working effectively with students from culturally diverse backgrounds
Based on the text interview study reporting on first ejaculation, what word best characterizes boys' reaction to this landmark pubertal "event"?
Answer:
The correct word is: Secretive.
Explanation:
According to research in developmental psychology, boy's reaction to their first ejaculation, which generally occurs around 11-13 years of age, is generally associated with the word "secretive" for multiple reasons.
Boy's tend to keep quiet about their first ejaculation because that event is associated with "masturbation" and at that age that behavior is usually taboo for them, causing them to reserve the event for themselves.
In conclusion, the word that best characterizes boy's reaction to their first ejaculation is "secretive".
Person-who reasoning (for example, "But I know a person who . . .") is often used to counter conclusions drawn from statistical analyses of human behavior more generally. Although vivid personal anecdotes are easily remembered, they may reflect atypical examples, illustrating an important limitation of research using______________.
Answer:
Case study
Explanation:
Person-who reasoning (for example, "But I know a person who . . .") is often used to counter conclusions drawn from statistical analyses of human behavior more generally. Although vivid personal anecdotes are easily remembered, they may reflect atypical examples, illustrating an important limitation of research using case study.
In research works, there are exceptions to results sometimes and one major way research results are put to question is by these exceptions or case studies that are not part of the norm. Individuals are quick to say, "in this case i know of, the result was not so or that case was different from what you are reporting". These exceptional case studies question the results of a study.
Case Studies are used in researches that reflects atypical examples.
Case Study :
A case study is a detailed study or examination of any particular case with reference to the real world.It is a research approach to generate a detailed explanation and illustration in order to understand a complex thing.It is a systematic and intensive investigation of a population or a group related to the topic or subject of the research work.Thus a personal short interesting story or incident can be easily remembered that illustrates the limitation of research which uses case studies.
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Baby Arshleen accidentally made a smacking sound after feeding. Then she tried to repeat it many times. Based on this activity, Arshleen was in Substage __________ of Piaget's sensorimotor substages. A) repeat chance behaviors largely motivated by basic needs B) repeat chance behjaviours
Answer:
B) repeat chance behaviors
Final answer:
Baby Arshleen is in Substage 1 of Piaget's sensorimotor stages, characterized by reflexive actions that infants start to adapt and repeat, reflecting primary circular reactions.
Explanation:
Baby Arshleen's activity of making a smacking sound and trying to repeat it many times suggests that she was in the Substage 1 of Piaget's sensorimotor substages, which is characterized as reflexive action. This substage occurs from birth through the first month of life and starts with automatic movements or reflexes. Since babies in this stage are beginning to adapt their reflexes to new contexts, such as finding a new sound or movement pleasurable and attempting to repeat it, we can deduce that this is typical behavior for Substage 1, where the reflexive actions become more deliberate.
The primary circular reactions, which encompass the first two substages of Piaget's sensorimotor intelligence, involve the infant's responses to its own body. It's during these stages that the infant may engage in a behavior by chance, find it interesting, and then have an interest in trying to do it again, which leads to the repetition of that new behavior.
The Commissioner believes that a licensee has violated an insurance regulation and decides to conduct a hearing. How long of a notice must the Commissioner provide the licensee?
The correct answer would be, 10 days before.
The commissioner believes that a licensee has violated an insurance regulation and decides to conduct a hearing. The licensee must get a written notice from the commissioner office 10 days before.
Explanation:
A commissioner is a person who is appointed as a supreme authority in an area. He is the head of the Metropolitan Police.
So whenever there is an act of crime or any violation happens in his area, he is the one who can take an action against it according to the laws. So whenever he will take an action, he has to send a notice before the hearing.
So when a commissioner believes that an insurance licensee has violated the regulation, and he decided to conduct a hearing, he must send a notice to the licensee at least 10 days prior to the hearing date.
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Final answer:
The specific notice period required by an insurance commissioner to notify a licensee of a hearing is not provided in the reference materials, but the importance of giving proper notice is emphasized across various formal procedures. The state insurance regulations should be consulted for the precise requirements related to administrative hearings conducted by an insurance commissioner.
Explanation:
When it comes to the administration of insurance regulations, various procedures must be followed to ensure that licensees receive proper notice before a hearing can be conducted on alleged violations. While the provided reference materials do not specify the exact notice period required for an insurance commissioner to notify a licensee of a hearing, these references do show the importance of giving proper notice in other formal contexts. For example, a Senate committee must post notice at least 24 hours before a meeting. However, this is concerning legislative process and may not directly apply to administrative hearings conducted by an insurance commissioner. Given this information, for a specific notice period relating to licensees and insurance commissioners, it would be necessary to consult the applicable state insurance regulations or administrative procedures relevant to the jurisdiction in question. These state regulations would outline the minimum notice requirements for administrative hearings.
An ice cream store cashier sells two-scoop ice cream cones to customers and enters the sales as single-scoop sales, while keeping the difference for himself. Which fraud is being committed here?
Answer:
This type of fraud is called skimming.
Explanation:
Skimming involves taking cash from the payments made to a business before those payments are recorded in the business's accounts. By charging customers the price of two scoop ice cream cones, the cashier receives the full amount. When he decides to enter the sales as single scoop cones and takes the excess cash for himself, he 'skims' the excess cash thus committing fraud.
Which of the following is NOT a type of epithelial tissue?
1.Simple Squamous
2.Pseudostratified
3.columnar
4.Adipose
5.Transitional
Adipose tissue is not a type of epithelial tissue; instead, it is a type of connective tissue that stores fat, unlike epithelial tissues which cover body surfaces and lining.
Explanation:Epithelial tissues are specialized for covering or lining surfaces of the body and are characterized by their cellular shapes and arrangements: squamous, cuboidal, or columnar. These are further classified based on the number of cell layers they contain, either simple (single cell layer) or stratified (multiple cell layers). Simple epithelial tissues are characterized by single layers of cells, with subtypes including simple squamous, simple cuboidal, and simple columnar epithelia. Pseudostratified epithelial tissues appear as if they have multiple layers due to uneven nuclei, even though they are actually a single layer. Transitional epithelial tissues are stratified and particularly found in the urinary system, with the ability to stretch and change shape based on the organ's distension level. In contrast, adipose tissue is not an epithelial tissue but a type of connective tissue that stores fat.
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Moral subjectivists claim that value judgments merely express
A. subjective opinion.
B. objective fact.
C. academic subjects.
D. moral subjects.
Moral subjectivists claim that value judgments merely express subjective opinion.
Explanation:
Subjectivism is the belief that moral evaluations hardly declare or expose the passions or favorites of the orator. Subjectivist is not in the place to provide inferences for one's opinion regarding ethical demands. Subjective things depend on your thoughts and views, there isn't any general fact.
If subjectivism is correct, suddenly "force gain true". Facts are objective, but ideas are subjective. Our sentiments solely reveal internal or subjective acknowledgments to things and that they do not correlate us to an objective or stable root of a value.
Moral subjectivists hold that value judgments are an expression of subjective opinion rather than objective fact, reflecting personal or cultural attitudes and choices.
Explanation:Moral subjectivists claim that value judgments merely express subjective opinion. This position is contrasted with moral realism, which suggests that moral judgments are based on objective moral facts. Moral subjectivism argues that ethical assertions do not state objective facts but instead reflect personal feelings, preferences, and attitudes, which cannot be true or false in the same way as factual statements. According to Harrison's ethical subjectivist theories, moral predicates do not exist independently but are created by human responses such as feelings and attitudes.
In the context of moral subjectivism, there are no binding moral facts that exist independently of human opinion or societal consensus. For example, ethical subjectivists would argue that whether lying is wrong is not a matter of fact but a reflection of individual or cultural beliefs. This perspective is significant in metaethics and normative ethics, which deal with the nature of ethical judgments and the foundations of moral values respectively.
A paradigm is one of the fundamental models of frames of reference we use to organize our observations and reasoning. Therefore, when a new paradigm emerges in social science, old paradigms would be completely replaced and discarded.
The given statement " A paradigm is one of the fundamental models of frames of reference we use to organize our observations and reasoning. Therefore, when a new paradigm emerges in social science, old paradigms would be completely replaced and discarded " is FALSE.
Explanation:
In scientific and philosophical, the paradigm of what comprises valid contributions to the field is a distinct collection of ideas or thought patterns, including hypotheses, research methods, postulates, and norms.
Social theory can be constructed with the benefit of four key paradigms : functionalist, interpretive, humanist radical and structuralist radicalism.
The four paradigms are based on different hypotheses about the nature of social science and society.
A social science paradigm represents a theoretical framework for understanding social phenomena. Paradigms can shift when they no longer adequately explain the data, but old paradigms are not always completely discarded. Sociological paradigms, such as structural functionalism and conflict theory, continue to provide valuable insights.
Explanation:In the context of social sciences, a paradigm refers to an overarching framework or lens through which scientists and researchers view, analyze, and interpret social phenomena and behavior. Philosopher Thomas Kuhn, in The Structure of Scientific Revolutions (1962), illustrated that paradigms are subject to change or shifts when they fail to adequately explain new or emerging data, leading to the adoption of new paradigms that better accommodate the discrepancies in the data previously interpretable under the old paradigms. For instance, anthropolgical studies have seen shifts in how power imbalances and social inequalities are understood, with new paradigms building upon the critique of earlier explanations.
While it's a common misconception that when a new paradigm emerges in social science all old paradigms are completely replaced and discarded, it's more accurate to understand that previous paradigms can continue to influence thinking and research, even as newer paradigms emerge.
Paradigms provide the philosophical and theoretical foundations for constructing theories, experiments, and generalizations within a discipline. Sociological paradigms like structural functionalism, conflict theory, and symbolic interactionism offer different perspectives that help explain social dynamics within societies.
In terms of variation in data, averages that are derived from scores with _____ variability are more reliable than averages based on scores with _____ variability.
Answer:
Low, high
Explanation:
In terms of variation in data, averages that are derived from scores with low variability are more reliable than averages based on scores with high variability. For example, if in the last 20 games, Manchester United have scored goals ranging from 3 to 5, it will be easier to predict that they will score 3 or 4 goals in their next game. On the contrary, if their goals range from 0 to 7. Deciding on the next game will be more difficult.
Which of the following is not one of the principles outlined in the Belmont report? Group of answer choices a) Respect for persons b) Justice c) Beneficence d) Financial compensation.
Answer:
The correct answer is:
d) Financial compensation.
Explanation:
The Belmont report is a formal presentation of a medical investigation or clinical trials, in which it is intended to protect the patient's integrity. According to the Belmont report it is necessary to take into consideration some basic principles which are: The respect for the individuals, Justice with the patients, and Beneficence.
The Belmont Report outlines three ethical principles for research involving human subjects: Respect for Persons, Beneficence, and Justice. Financial compensation is not a principle outlined in this report.
Explanation:The Belmont Report is a significant document in the field of medical ethics and research, which outlines three fundamental ethical principles for conducting biomedical and behavioral research involving human subjects. These principles are:
Respect for persons: This principle recognizes each individual's right to make their own decisions.Beneficence: This principle suggests that researchers must strive to minimize harms and maximize benefits for the research participants.Justice: This principle stresses on fair treatment and distribution of benefits and burdens in research.Among the options given in your question, Financial compensation is not one of the principles outlined in the Belmont Report.
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In a moment of despair, Azucena swallowed a bottle of sleeping pills to try to kill herself. Thankfully her father found her, took her to the hospital, and she was rescued. Why wouldn't this action be considered an act of aggression?
Answer:
Because what Azucena did, was a s u i c i d e attempt. She was intended to harm herself with this action.
Explanation:
This action cannot be considered an act of aggression since the lady was not trying to hurt anyone else in an aggressive way. In order to be considered an act of aggression it would be necessary to have a psychological or physical encounter violating the integrity against another individual or group of people.
However in this specific case, it is possible to notice that Azucena was trying to attempt against her own life, which would be considered a s u i c i d e attempt, not an act of aggression.
In a study of Amish behavior, a researcher moves into an Amish community and lives and works there for a year, participating in the residents' daily lives. This is an example of __________.
Answer:
Ethnographjy
Explanation:
In a study of Amish behavior, a researcher moves into an Amish community and lives and works there for a year, participating in the residents' daily lives. This is an example of ethnography.
In the context of studying Amish behavior, when a researcher lives and works in an Amish community for a year to participate in their daily lives, it exemplifies participant observation, a method where deep immersion into a culture provides unique insights into its practices.
Explanation:In a study of Amish behavior, a researcher moves into an Amish community and lives and works there for a year, participating in the residents' daily lives. This is an example of participant observation. Participant observation is a research method in which the researcher enters a cultural community and collects information through observation of and participation in the culture. It's common in cultural anthropology and allows the researcher to live with, observe, and participate in the same activities as the people one studies, hence getting a deep and nuanced understanding of their social behaviors and cultural norms.
Unlike surveys or clinical studies, participant observations require the researcher to immerse themselves fully in the social or familial experience under study. This method yields a lot of information about a very specific research question by observing natural behaviors in their exact contexts. For example, researchers might work as a waitress, live as a homeless person, or ride along with police officers to get firsthand insights into particular societal roles or trends. This methodology is crucial for anthropological studies and provides invaluable insights into human behaviors and cultural practices.
What is one of the biggest challenges facing groups and organizations that try to prevent intimate partner violence (IPV)?
a. The victims of IPV do not report the abuse.
b. IPV almost never happens, so it is difficult to locate and predict
c. Most people do not know what IPV is.
d. IPV is not taken seriously by the court system.
Answer:
The correct answer is: "a. The victims of IPV do not report the abuse".
Explanation:
Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) is also known as domestic violence and has to do with any kind of violence concerning intimate relationships, whether it is physical, sexual, psychological, economic, or verbal abuse violence and harm. In terms of the groups and organizations which want to help people who suffer IPV, there are a lot of factors that contribute to not solve the problem, such as economic background, schooling, people not concerned or conscious about this kind of violence, among others. Therefore, letter "a" is the best answer because it has been a fact that most people do not report abuse for they fear subsequent violence and more abuse, although to report the abuse is the best action to take. All the other options are lacking in some way because they are not completly true.
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As of January 2015, the NIH expects investigators to obtain the informed (valid) consent of research participants in NIH -funded genetic research for broad research use of data and data sharing, even if the cell lines or specimens are:__________.
Answer:
De-identified.
Explanation:
In the research that involves human subjects, cell lines or specimens are considered de-identified if all the identifiers that can link the specimen to the actual individual are completely removed. It means, that it would not be possible to link a given specimen to a particular person.
Even in this case, According to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) investigators have to obtain informed consent, by clearly explaining all the details of the research that subjects have to know to understand its nature and consequences. It is necessary, because some people may refuse participation due to religious or ethical reasons.
Sarah and Jim are driving to a friend's house. She is about to suggest a different route when she stops herself because she knows Jim hates it when she "takes over" while he's driving. This is an example of which communication concept?a. self-monitoringb. cognitive complexityc. communication is unrepeatabled. messagese. none of the above
Answer:
a. self-monitoring
Explanation:
Self-monitoring -
The concept of self - monitoring was given by Mark Snyder in 1970s.
According to this concept ,
This showcase the behavior of people , that how the person track their expressive behavior and self-presentations .
This personality trait , seizes the difference to which the people control the image in any social condition.
Hence , from the given scenario of the question,
The correct option is a. self-monitoring .
Bill and JoAnn have recently married and have made a commitment to each other that they will keep each other as the most important people in their lives, and stay together as long as they live. Bill and JoAnn’s joint commitment reflects the expectations of _________.
a. self-disclosure.
b. permanence.
c. devotion.
d. convenience.
Answer:
Permanence
Explanation:
Permanence is found in the sensory-motor stage. In this stage, a child understands that the object still exists if it removes from the sight of a child. This event occurs interdependently. Permanence means that permanent when an object is hidden from a child's insight, he still believes that the object still exists. This is the quality where mental representation is required in acquiring knowledge.
So that here in the above context Bill and Joan who recently married committed their future that they never leave each other. They will keep each other in their life most important people.
John Marshall's rulings upheld a defense of property rights against public pressure in A) McCulloch v. Maryland. B) Marbury v. Madison. C) Cohens v. Virginia. D) Fletcher v. Peck. E) Gibbons v. Ogden.
Answer:
John Marshall's rulings upheld a defense of property rights against public pressure in the Fletcher v. Peck case.
Option: (D)
Explanation:
The Fletcher versus Peck case of 1810 is deemed to be an important case because the judgment passed in this case ruled the act of the Georgia legislature to be unconstitutional of passing a privately owned land to some entity other than the owner of the land when the contract was still effective. This was a milestone decision given by the Supreme Court which reestablished the sanctity of legal contracts.According to the PRECEDE-PROCEED Model, the process of having community members work alongside researchers (partnership with the community) should preferably occur during what phase?
Phase 1: Social Assessment
Michele and Fredrik are concerned that their newborn son Jason is sleeping too much. When they ask their doctor if this is normal, the pediatrician tells the couple that a significant amount of sleep is normal during infancy to allow for:_________
a. continued brain development.
b. neither of these choices
c. both of these choices
d.learning and memory consolidation
Answer:
Continue brain development
memory consolidation
Explanation:
Infant gets recall their memory when they get a nap. Sleep considered a solid reason to consolidate memory during sleeping. It is investigated that when an infant takes a nap, they make faces similar to some cartoon faces. When an infant sees a new face make a similar face during sleep just after seeing new faces.
It is also said that if an infant needs to consolidate the memory, they need to sleep for a while, otherwise they will get to lose that information learned by an infant. It is seen that a baby who takes more nap or sleeps spindles shows that baby recognizes more faces who take more sleep than who don't take more sleep.
The statement, "By keeping women in traditional gender roles, men maintain control over institutions and resources," most closely reflects ______.
Answer:
Conflict theory
Explanation:
Conflict theories are viewpoints in sociology and social psychology that emphasize a materialistic interpretation of history, a dialectical method of study, a critical attitude against existing social structures, and a radical or, at least, reformist political program.
The National Preparedness Goal (NPG)
describes success in national preparedness as "a secure and resilient nation with the capabilities required across the whole community to prevent, protect against, mitigate, respond to, and recover from the threats and hazards that pose the greatest risk." The NPG presents an integrated, layered, and whole-nation approach to preparedness that will result in a secure and resilient nation.
Answer:
Hi
The NPG defines what it means for the entire community to be prepared for all types of disasters and emergencies. Risks include events such as natural disasters, disease pandemics, chemical spills and other man-made hazards, terrorist attacks and cyber attacks.
Also describe 32 activities, called core capabilities. Organize core capabilities in five areas:
1. Prevention
2. Protection
3. Mitigation.
4. Answer.
5. Recovery.
Explanation:
The National Preparedness Goal encompasses strategies for a secure and resilient nation, embracing a whole-community approach to emergency preparedness. It aligns with global cooperation efforts, such as those in planetary defense, to enhance readiness and resilience against a variety of threats and risks.
The National Preparedness Goal (NPG) is a comprehensive framework designed to build and enhance national capability to prepare for, prevent, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate the impacts of various threats and hazards. This whole-community approach prioritizes emergency preparedness and the resilience of critical infrastructures and communities. The NPG aims to foster a secure and resilient nation equipped to deal with a wide range of potential security threats, including those of a natural or man-made nature. It aligns with other initiatives that highlight the importance of readiness, such as the planetary defense community's efforts and the National Patient Safety Goals focusing on health care safety.
Emergency Preparedness and Planetary Defense
Part of the planetary defense strategy includes global cooperation to mitigate and prevent risks. This community's work involves developing strategies, such as the National Near-Earth Object Preparedness Strategy and Action Plan, which exemplify the dedication to enhancing coordinated responses to astronomical threats.
Through international cooperation and interdisciplinary approaches, the field of planetary defense illustrates the effectiveness of proactive and collaborative strategies, indicating a broader application to other areas of national security and resilience. These strategies emphasize the necessity of preparing for future natural catastrophic events and adopting comprehensive disaster management plans at various government levels.
A process that entails measuring actual performance, comparing this performance with the established marketing objectives, and then making adjustments to the strategies or objectives on the basis of this analysis is a(n) __________.
Answer: Control
Explanation: Control is a target-oriented process required to evaluate the performance of an organization against a laid down standard. It involves setting certain specific targets or standards, Then evaluating or measuring the actual perdormance of the corporation, which is pitted or compared with the target or standard objectives. This is to ensure that company's activities are being performed in accordance with organizational plans and also enable corrective measures to be taken in cases of deviation.
Ideas about basic anxiety and womb envy were proposed by psychoanalyst _____, who also emphasized the role of social relationships and culture in personality.
Answer:
The correct answer is that the psyhoanalyst who alks about anxety and womb envy is Karen Horney, who also emphasized the role of social relationships and culture in personality.
Explanation:
Honrey was a German psychoanalyst who moved to the United States in the last few decades of her life were she her work became more popular because she would questioned some theories or views of other well known psychologist like Signum Freud.
Measurement is accurate when observed values (the data produced by measuring an event) match the true state (or true values) of the event.
It is a True statement.
Explanation:
The measurement is an action of measuring the quantity of a substance or a thing. The measurement is said to be reliable, when it gives the same values after repeating the measure of the same event several times.
Human Error causes differences in the accuracy and reliability of data. The precise measurement provides the most trustworthy and useful data for science. Volume and mass are the two measuring units.
The measurement of the thing is said to accurate when the measured value matches the actual value.
The limitation of preoperational thought of focusing attention on one characteristic while excluding all other characteristics is called______________ . (Watch your spelling!)
Answer:
Intuitive.
Explanation:
As the exercise states, the limitation of preoperational thought of focusing attention on one characteristic while excluding all other characteristics is called intuitive. In Piaget's theory of cognitive development second stage has two substages: symbolic function and Intuitive thought. A child between the ages of 4 and 7, begins to understand everything that is going on in their world. Therefore, they start to focus at one thing at a time, making one question after the other. Why, how, when, etc. For example: a child of 5 years might ask what is that thing in the sky that flies. Then how does it fly, then what's it called, then etc.
Answer:
this is wrong the correct answer is centration
Explanation: i got it correct on my psychology assignment
Based on Freud's theory of psychosexual development, Mason is experiencing what could be called a holding pattern in which there is no particular conflict to be resolved.How old is Mason?
Mason, experiencing a 'holding pattern' without specific conflicts according to Freud's theory of psychosexual development, is at the Latency stage. This stage happens from age six till puberty, where psychosexual energy turns more towards social and intellectual activities.
Based on Freud's theory of psychosexual development, if Mason is experiencing what could be called a 'holding pattern' where there isn't a particular conflict to resolve, he is likely in the Latency stage. This is the fourth stage in Freud's theory, typically occurring from age six until puberty. In this stage, sexual interests are relatively quiescent and energies are channeled into a range of social and intellectual activities. Thus, unlike the other stages, the Latency stage is not marked by specific psychosexual conflicts to resolve.
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