Answer:
B. The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical
Explanation:
When two different species have the similar structure, (trait, behavior) these traits can arise through either of two processes:
The structure is from the common ancestor that gave rise to the two species and that structures are then known as homologous structures. The species with homologous structures are more closely related to each other.The structures could have developed independently as a result of convergent evolution (trait was not present in the ancestor), and those structures are then called analogous structures.To determine if structures are homologous or a result of convergent evolution, examining the developmental process and genetic backgrounds is vital. Homologous structures are similar in morphology and genetics and evolve from a common ancestor, while analogous structures have different developmental origins and evolve independently due to similar environmental adaptations.
Explanation:In determining whether similar-looking structures in two different species are a result of convergent evolution or homologous, the most significant insight would be possessed by structure's developmental process and genetic backgrounds. Colonizing structures are referred to as homologous if they are similar both in terms of shape and function (morphologically) and their genetic backgrounds. This means that the similar structures evolved from a common ancestor. For instance, the wings of birds and bats are considered homologous (Figure 20.7).
However, when structures look alike but have different developmental origins and evolved due to similar environmental adaptations, they are often a result of convergent evolution. In such cases, the similar structures are referred to as analogous, not homologous. An illustration of this is the wings of insects and bats, despite their superficial similarity and function, these wings have completely different embryonic origins.
Hence, option B 'The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical' can provide the most insight into whether the structures are homologous or a consequence of convergent evolution.
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An 80-year-old hospitalized individual is recovering from surgery but now has gotten an infection. over the course of a few days, the person shows increasing confusion and consistently misinterprets what others are trying to communicate. the most probable diagnosis for this condition would be:
Final answer:
The most probable diagnosis for an 80-year-old hospitalized individual showing increasing confusion after surgery and infection is delirium. Delirium is common in the elderly, especially when hospitalized, and is usually reversible with proper treatment including addressing the underlying infection.
Explanation:
An 80-year-old hospitalized individual recovering from surgery has developed increasing confusion and is misinterpreting communication, suggesting they may be experiencing a delirium. This condition is common in elderly patients who are recovering from surgery or battling an infection. Delirium is characterized by sudden changes in mental status, such as confusion and difficulty focusing, often worsened in the hospital setting due to unfamiliar environments, medications, or the stress of illness.
Given the patient's age and recent surgery, combined with the onset of an infection, it is likely that the increasing confusion is due to hospital-acquired delirium, which is not uncommon in elderly patients under these stressors. Delirium is often reversible with proper medical intervention, including treating the underlying infection, ensuring proper hydration and nutrition, and providing a supportive environment to minimize confusion.
How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?A. sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parentB. asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parentC. mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproductionD. asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms
Answer:
it's most likely A.
Explanation:
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Just took the test.
Study the characteristics of the channel in this picture. What might the river look like following this type of channel?
A) a youthful river
B) a rejuvenated river
C) a mature river
D) an old river
Answer:
C) a mature river
Explanation:
The channel on the image shows a meandering river. This basically means that the river managed to erode the banks and it has taken a snake-like shape, better known as meander. A river that exhibits such a thing is a mature river. This can be supported by the fact that the river needs long time to be able to erode the surrounding area, especially when it comes to flatter land. A young river will be mostly straight and will have its flow determined by the landscape around it, but a mature river has had the time to make its own path, to erode parts o the landscape, and take a certain shape, in this case a meander.
The river following this type of channel would likely look like a mature river (option C).
The characteristics of the channel in the picture indicate that the river is in the mature stage. In this stage, the headward development of stream channels has mostly eliminated non-dissected interflu_ves. The stream valleys have widened, valley slopes have become gentler, and the overall relief of the region is declining. Therefore, the river following this type of channel would likely look like a mature river.
The channel in this picture exhibits winding curves and meanders, which are typical characteristics of a mature river. Mature rivers have well-developed meandering patterns, indicating that they have been flowing for a considerable time. These meanders result from erosion and deposition processes over time. The river's winding nature suggests that it has reached a stable stage in its evolution.
The question is:
Study the characteristics of the channel in this picture. What might the river look like following this type of channel?
A) a youthful river
B) a rejuvenated river
C) a mature river
D) an old river
If the beak length of G. fortis is typically 12% longer than the beak depth, what is the predicted beak length of G. fortis individuals with the smallest beak depths observed on Santa Maria and San Cristobal Islands? a. about 8 mm b. about 10 mm c. about 11 mm d. about 18 mm
To find the predicted beak length of G. fortis individuals with the smallest observed beak depths of 9 mm, add 12% to this depth. The calculation gives an estimated beak length of about 10 mm, making option b the correct answer.
The beak length of Geospiza fortis is typically 12% longer than the beak depth. Observations on the smallest beak depths of G. fortis on Santa Maria and San Cristobal Islands show that the minimal beak depth is around 9 mm. To calculate the predicted beak length, we use the formula:
Beak Length = Beak Depth + (Beak Depth * 0.12)
Substituting the smallest observed beak depth:
Beak Length = 9 mm + (9 mm * 0.12)
= 9 mm + 1.08 mm
= 10.08 mm
Therefore, the predicted beak length is about 10 mm, making option b the correct answer.
How is the outgroup determined in a cladogram?
Answer:
It is usually the first branch of the cladogram
Explanation:
Since outgroup is group of organisms that do not share characteristic with other groups (or share it a little), this means that this group is at least related group with other in cladogram.
Cladistic classification is classification in which organisms are put in group based on their shared characteristics and the most recent common ancestor. So, organisms of the same group are are closely related. Cladistic analysis are methods for the estimation of relationships among organisms and it includes the use of data on the traits of those organisms. The result of cladistic analysis is a diagram-tree which is called cladogram. Cladogram represents relations among organisms.
20. What condition is required for ATP synthase to move hydrogen down its gradient? A. More ATP molecules ahead of the hydrogen than below it B. More hydrogen ions outside the membrane than inside it C. More hydrogen ions inside the membrane than outside it D. A day with 75 percent direct sunlight
Answer:
B
Explanation:
This H+ ion gradient is referred to as a proton motive force. It is created using energy from the Krebs cycle in the matrix of the mitochondria. As electrons are passed from one protein complex to another, reducing molecules such as NADH and FADH2, the protons are pumped to the intermembrane space of the mitochondria. ATP synthase uses this potential to generate ATP as the H+ ions move downgradient (back to the matrix) through channels in the protein enzyme.
Your undergraduate colleague accidentally mislabels tissue samples taken from different parts of a rat. In order to correct his mistake, you make slides from each sample and stain all tissue red and all nuclei blue. Upon analyzing one slide under a compound light microscope, you see many small reddish pink dots but no blue. This slide must be a sample of tissue from the rat's ___________. Select one: a. lungs b. thymus c. liver d. blood e. striated muscle
Answer:
The answer is blood
The body is organized in a particular manner and order. The cells identical in configuration and operation bind together to form a tissue. Different layers of comparable cells form tissue of the body which have a specific function in an organ.
The correct answer is:
Option D. blood.
This can be explained as:
The cells of the lungs, thymus, liver and striated muscles all have a nucleus that is why when stained will show a blue colour for the presence of nuclei.The cells of blood or the red blood cells are the sole eukaryotic cells that do not contain nuclei in their developed form.The blood cells expel the nuclei and other organelles from within so that it can transport more oxygen and haemoglobin.Therefore, the slide in the experiment is of a blood sample.
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One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers,adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?
A) G protein-coupled receptors B) ligand-gated ion channels C) steroid receptors D) receptor tyrosine kinases
Answer:
D) receptor tyrosine kinases
Explanation:
Protein kinase receptors are simply saying receptors with associated kinases (usually tyrosine kinases).
Protein kinases are enzymes that have the ability to modulate other enzymes (or some other proteins) by adding the phosphate group. This is known as phosphorilation process. As a result of structural change, protein can change its activity (phosphorilation usually increase the activity).
Such receptors are involved in a many processes within an organism that are important for the cellular growth, differentiation, metabolism
"The correct answer is D) One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins receptor tyrosine kinases.
Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are a class of cell surface receptors that are involved in the regulation of various cellular processes, including metabolism, growth, differentiation, and apoptosis.
When a ligand binds to an RTK, the receptor undergoes a conformational change that promotes dimerization, which is the formation of a dimer, or a complex of two receptor molecules.
This dimerization brings the intracellular kinase domains of the receptors into close proximity, allowing them to transphosphorylate each other on specific tyrosine residues. This phosphorylation event triggers the activation of downstream signaling pathways by recruiting and activating various relay proteins, which then propagate the signal through the cell.
To summarize the sequence of events for receptor tyrosine kinases:
1. Ligand binding to the extracellular domain of the RTK.
2. Dimerization of the RTKs.
3. Transphosphorylation of tyrosine residues on the intracellular kinase domains of the receptors.
4. Recruitment and activation of relay proteins, which then continue the signaling cascade within the cell.
In contrast, G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) activate heterotrimeric G proteins upon ligand binding, without forming dimers or adding phosphate groups to the G proteins themselves.
Ligand-gated ion channels open to allow ions to pass through the membrane when their specific ligands bind, and steroid receptors are located inside the cell and bind to steroid hormones, then translocate to the nucleus to regulate gene expression. Neither of these receptor types functions by forming dimers and adding phosphate groups in the same way as RTKs."
Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder in which red blood cells take on an abnormal crescent shape.
People who do not have sickle-cell anemia possess the following nucleotide and amino acid sequences:
CTG ACT CCT GAG GAG AAG TCT
Leu Thr Pro Glu Glu Lys Ser
People who do have sickle-cell anemia possess the following nucleotide and amino acid sequences:
CTG ACT CCT GTG GAG AAG TCT
Leu Thr Pro Val Glu Lys Ser
Sickle-cell anemia is an example of
--
A.
crossing-over.
B.
a gene mutation.
C.
nondisjunction.
D.
a chromosomal mutation.
Answer:
It is indeed B
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?
A) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
B) The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
C) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.
E) Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.
Answer:
D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.
Explanation:
The competitive exclusion describes relationship between two species that compete for the limiting sources, and cannot coexist. It is enough for one species to have slightly advantage to be dominant over the other. As a consequence, other species (the weaker one) will be extincted (shift to a different ecological niche).
____ is the study of the brain and the nervous system, especially in terms of brain-behavior relationships.
The egyptian plover is a bird best known for its symbiotic relationship with what host animal?
Answer:
Nile crocodile
Explanation:
The Egyptian plover is a small bird with a very unusual friend in the animal kingdom. This bird actually has a symbiotic relationship with the Nile crocodile. It may seem very odd relationship, but it is one that works excellently for both sides. The crocodiles have sharp set of teeth, but they have spaces between them and can not move their jaws sideways. Because of this, very often there's meat stuck between the teeth of the crocodiles, and this is when the Egyptian plover comes on the scene. This little bird actually gets into the open mouth of the crocodiles, picking up the pieces of meat that have stuck between their teeth, and then continuing with its mission. The crocodiles do not try to eat this bird, but instead they stand still while it does its job. The relationship is beneficial for both sides, as the crocodiles have their own personal ''dentist'', while the plover gets free food.
Answer:
The nile crocodile
Explanation:
The bird cleans the teeth of the crocodile and the crocodile provides protection and meals
Animals are totally dependent on plants and microorganisms for nitrogen fixation and nitrate assimilation because animals: A. do not have the reducing power (NADPH) to fix nitrogen. B. lack the enzyme aminotransferase. C. lack the enzymes to reduce N2 and NO3- to NH4+. D. lack carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase I. E. lack glutamate dehydrogenase.
Answer:
C. lack the enzymes to reduce N2 and NO3- to NH4+
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation is a process by which atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into ammonia (NH3) so that can be used in metabolic pathways (e.g. biosynthesis of macromolecules). Nitrogen fixation is performed by Archea and bacteria such as Azotobacter (usually in symbiosis with Leguminosa plants).
Nitrogen assimilation is a process in which organic compounds are made from inorganic nitrogen.
At 10 am on june 12 two joggers discover a body along a running path in a park the body is 20 feet from a tree beside the path. the body is partially buried. the weather is hot and humid. the body has a gray cheesy like appearance which information should be noted for the coroner
all of the above should be noted for the coroner. because the authorities are trying to solve a homicide.
An animal that feeds on dead or decaying plant or animal material is called
A detritivore is an organism that feeds on dead or decaying material.
Detritivores are animals that feed on dead or decaying organic materials. Saprophyte is also used to describe organisms that feed on dead organic materials, often referring to plants and fungi.
Explanation:An animal that feeds on dead or decaying plant or animal material is known as a detritivore. Detritivores, which are a subtype of heterotrophs, decompose organic matter from dead organisms or their organic wastes. They are a crucial part of a detrital food web, a type of food web that consists of organisms feeding on decaying organic matter. Another word used for an organism that feeds on dead matter is saprophyte, although it is mainly used for plants and fungi.
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why is science an important part of policy making?
a. the goal of science is to create good policies
b. Scientists have long been important politicians
c. Science provides the facts that inform good policy
d. The government sponsors a lot of scientific research
Answer:
c. Science provides the facts that inform good policy
Explanation:
Scientific evidence is always based on researched out facts, this are the facts that form explanations.
Reliable explanation of phenomenon in science, helps the government to choose good policies based on the scientific facts.
For instance, the current globalisation problem has been studied by scientists, facts about the causes and ways to reduce this effects have shaped up government environmental policies.
Science is crucial in informing good policymaking because it provides factual evidence to guide decisions. Science policy can lead to diverse employment opportunities and ensures balanced legislation. A solid understanding of science helps individuals critically assess scientific information behind policies. The correct option is c.
Science is an important part of the policymaking process because c. Science provides the facts that inform good policy. Policymakers rely on scientific data and evidence to make informed decisions on a vast range of issues, from environmental protection and public health to technological innovation and resource management. In this way, science policy plays a crucial role in shaping legislation that benefits society and addresses complex challenges.
Engaging with science policy can take various forms and create numerous employment opportunities. Individuals can work at science policy centers, think tanks, and governmental agencies like the NSF, DOE, or NIH. The involvement of scientists in policymaking ensures that multiple points of view inform governance, thus contributing to balanced legislation that avoids the extremes of over- or under-regulation.
Science is not just about understanding the natural world; it is also about applying that knowledge in practical ways that can transform human existence. From the Nuremberg Code to modern environmental regulations, governance of science has shaped research in ways that align with societal interests. Ultimately, a deep understanding of science can help individuals become better consumers of scientific information and more critically assess the science behind public policies.
TIMED SEMESTER EXAM!! 15 POINTS i will mark brainliest
(please use your own answer!)
Briefly compare and contrast the processes of RNA transcription and RNA translation.
Answer:
Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template where the code in the DNA is converted into a complementary RNA code. Translation is the synthesis of a protein from an mRNA template where the code in the mRNA is converted into an amino acid sequence in a protein
Explanation:
Small sections of a dna molecule that determine genetic traits are called
Those small sections are called Genes
Which of the following is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait?
A) dominant
B) recombinant
C) recessive
D) mutated
Answer:
A. Dominant
Explanation:
A dominant gene or allele is what determins the physical expression of a trait. A dominant allele masks recessive traits, which is why that even if it is combined with a recessive allele, the dominant trait is what is shown. For a recessive trait to appear, the organism should not have a dominant allele with it.
A gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait is known as a dominant gene. Dominant genes, when present, take precedence over all other types of genes (such as recessive, recombinant, and mutated ones) and cause the trait they control to be expressed.
Explanation:In the context of genetics, the term that defines a gene which controls the appearance of a certain trait is A) dominant. Dominant genes are those that take precedence over other genes for the same trait, which are known as recessive genes. If an organism inherits a dominant gene for a certain trait from one of its parents, that trait will be expressed, regardless of the gene inherited from the other parent. For example, if the dominant gene codes for dark hair and the recessive gene codes for blond hair, the organism will have dark hair even if it carries the recessive gene. On the other hand, recessive, recombinant, and mutated types of genes do not match your question's context. A recessive gene causes the trait it controls to appear only if no dominant genes are present, recombinant genes arise from the recombination of DNA segments during reproduction, and mutated genes are altered versions of their original form.
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Which scenario matches the homeostasis strategy of kleptothermy? A. People huddling together on New Year's Eve in Times Square B. Penguins having dark coloring to absorb more radiation from the sun C. A dog panting at the park on a hot summer day D. Alligators basking in the sun on a rock
Answer: I believe it would be A. People huddling together on New Year's Eve in Times Square.
Explanation:
This is Google's definition of Kleptothermy:
Kleptothermy is any form of thermoregulation by which an animal shares in the metabolic thermogenesis of another animal. It may or may not be reciprocal, and occurs in both endotherms and ectotherms. Its most common form is huddling.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
The correct answer is A. The homeostasis strategy of kleptothermy is best exemplified with people huddling together on New Year's Eve in Times Square.
Explanation:
Many animals huddle together, as happens with Antarctic penguins, which come together to reduce energy loss from the energy intake of the other. This phenomenon is called "kleptothermy" (stealing the temperature) and possibly generates survival in cold situations. It is probable that these species could have become extinct in the absence of this behavior.
Denaturation of dna is a necessary step in southern blotting procedure because it separates double stranded dna into single stranded dna. True or false?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Denaturation of DNA is a process in which DNA loses its structure (secondary, tertiary, quaternary). It is usually achieved via the use of high temperature, strong acid or base, concentrated salt etc. The denaturation of the double-stranded DNA is used in Southern blotting procedure so that single strands can bind to the membrane and become ready for hybridization.
The plasma membrane is made up of a phospholipid bilayer. True or False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation:
the plasma membrane of a cell is composed of phospholipids
Cells are limited in size by their surface areas and
Cells are limited in size by their surface area-to-volume ratio, and that explains the relationship between the surface area of a cell and its volume, as the volume increases much faster than the surface area when the cell grows.
What is the significance of the surface-to-volume ratio?The surface area-to-volume ratio becomes a limiting factor as cells grow in size, and it decreases because the surface area can no longer keep up with the demands of the cell as well as a decrease in the efficiency of processes such as diffusion and cellular respiration.
Hence, cells are limited in size by their surface area-to-volume ratio, and that explains the relationship between the surface area of a cell and its volume, as the volume increases much faster than the surface area when the cell grows.
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26. As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are nocturnal. You have discovered an example of A) mutualism. B) Batesian mimicry. C) commensalism. D) resource partitioning.
Answer:
D) resource partitioning.
Explanation:
Resource partitioning explains how species that are similar (in this case the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles) use their resources together (coexist). They live in the same community and use the same resources, but they don't push one another to extinction through competition. They use the same limiting resource at different time and thus, compete less with one another.
Cells have a selectively permeable
membrane. What is the primary purpose of this membrane?
A.)to keep all the cytoplasm inside the cell
B.)to control which materials enter and
leave the cell
C.)to allow photosynthesis
D.)to manufacture proteins
Answer:
B
Explanation:
a membrane's purpose is to protect by controlling what enters or leaves the cell
B.) to control what materials enter and leave the cell
NEED AN ANSWER!!!!!
what is a PROPHAGE and what does it do???
Answer: A prophage is the genetic material of a bacteriophage, incorporated into the genome of a bacterium and it is able to produce phages if it is specifically activated. I hope this helps!
Explanation:
Answer:A prophage is a bacteriophage (often shortened to "phage") genome inserted and integrated into the circular bacterial DNA chromosome or existing as an extrachromosomal plasmid.
Explanation:
Which type of fat has no known health benefits, and was invented by humans to prolong the shelf-life of pre-packaged foods? A. Saturated fat B. Curing fat C. Unsaturated fat D. Trans fat
Answer:
D. Trans Fat
Explanation:
Trans fat is made through the hydrogenation of unsaturated fats. The use of trans fat extends shelf-life of foods and is said to boost flavor. However, the body is not able to process these fats and can have a detrimental effect on the body. Trans fat is known to increase cholesterol in the body so you will be more at risk for other diseases like diseases of the heart, diabetes, and even stroke.
Answer:
D. Trans fat
Explanation:
In response to a stimulus a brain cell called a neuron will send a signal to the brain using _______
A). electrical signals and chemical neurotransmitters
B). myosin and actin
C). contraction and relaxation
D). respiration and absorption
Answer:
I think its A not %100 tho
Explanation:
The answer I believe is A
Where does the sinoatrial node send an impulse after it initiates the electrical signal?
I think atrioventricular node
How might a gene mutation be silent, with no observable effect on a cell or an organism? A. Codons are complementary to anticodons in tRNA. A gene mutation that changes a codon to its anticodon would have no observable effect on the cell or the organism. B. Many proteins are superfluous to the function of a cell. A gene mutation in a gene that encodes an unnecessary protein would have no observable effect on the cell or the organism. C. Several codons are stop codons. A gene mutation that inserts a stop codon when only a few amino acids remain in the peptide sequence would have no observable effect on the cell or the organism. D. Many amino acids are encoded by multiple codons. A gene mutation that encodes the same amino acid would have no observable effect on the cell or the organism.
Answer:
D. Many amino acids are encoded by multiple codons. A gene mutation that encodes the same amino acid would have no observable effect on the cell or the organism
Explanation:
If gene mutation does not change code (gene still encodes for the same amino acid), the same protein with its function will be produced. This is called synonymous mutation.
Silent mutations might also occur when codon is altered to produce an amino acid with similar function as previous (e.g. leucine to isoleucine) so that the function of protein is not significantly changed.
Answer:
D. Many amino acids are encoded by multiple codons. A gene mutation that encodes the same amino acid would have no observable effect on the cell or the organism
Explanation:
If gene mutation does not change code (gene still encodes for the same amino acid), the same protein with its function will be produced. This is called synonymous mutation.
Silent mutations might also occur when codon is altered to produce an amino acid with similar function as previous (e.g. leucine to isoleucine) so that the function of protein is not significantly changed.