Answer and Explanation:
To determine the overall health of the alligator pond, Mr. Ortiz should carry out the following tests:
pH level testpH is extremely important in this type of research as a reduction of pH could lead to a higher availability of toxic metals that may be absorbed by aquatic organisms such as alligators and fish species.
pH is acceptable in a range of 6.5 to 8.2.
Nitrates and Ammonia (NH3) levelsOversaturation of nitrates and ammonia could lead to the death of organisms that are crucial for the maintainance of a healthy pond and for the balance of the food chain.
Moreover, it could lead to algal blooms that result in a lower concentration of oxygen available for other organisms.
Over 0.2 per L could be lethal to some fish species that are also important for the health of the alligator pond.
Less than 0.1 indicates a healthy alligator pond.
Bacterial coliform testThis test determines the amount of bacteria that comes from waste (animal or human), which could lead to mild to serious bacterial infections and diseases.
If it is a healthy pond, the results should indicate less than 10 fecal coliform bacteria/100 mL.
Development and impact on desert areas is mainly due to Select one:
a. air conditioning.
b. roads and highways.
c. modern irrigation.
d. None of these are correct.
Answer:
Answer is C. Modern irrigation.
Explanation:
The word 'irrigation ' means the process of supplying water or watering of land in preparation for planting and watering of planted crops to survive.
Modern irrigation involves the construction of hoses, channels and canals. This is done so that water will be available through out the seasons for the crops, and water will be supplied to areas where there is scarcity of water.
Irrigation is very important because it prevents famine, improves water condition in the soil by dissolving nutrients for plant use.
Imagine you want to study one of the human crystallins, proteins present in the lens of the eye. To obtain sufficient amount of the protein of interest, you decide to clone the gene that codes for it. Assume you know the sequence of this gene. How would you go about this? In a paragraph of approximately 3 to 5 complete logical sentences, explain the technique that you would use, why, and its basic steps.
Answer: cDNA library will be created .
and mRNA from human cells to serve as source of crystallins will be used
Explanation:
To clone a gene, you would need to use a technique called gene cloning or recombinant DNA technology. The basic steps of gene cloning involve isolating the gene sequence of interest, inserting it into a vector, and then transferring the vector into a host cell.
Explanation:To clone a gene, you would need to use a technique called gene cloning or recombinant DNA technology. The basic steps of gene cloning involve isolating the gene sequence of interest, inserting it into a vector, and then transferring the vector into a host cell. In this case, since you want to clone a human crystallin gene, you would need to isolate the specific gene sequence for the human crystallin protein. Once you have the gene sequence, you can use the technique of gene cloning to obtain multiple copies of the gene, which can then be expressed and studied.
How many grams of carbohydrate per day are recommended for adults 19 years and older?
A. 75 grams
B. 100 grams
C. 130 grams
D. 160 grams
Answer:
correct option is C. 130 grams
Explanation:
solution
as carbohydrate is a macro nutrient that is found in many foods and beverage
Most of carbohydrate occur in plant base food
some main natural source of carbohydrate are
vegetablefruitnutsmilkgrainseedsand for adult age of 19 years to 30 years carbohydrate need is 130 grams per day
and adult male age of 19 years to 30 years fiber need is 38 grams per day
and adult female age of 19 years to 30 years fiber need is 25 grams per day
so correct option is C. 130 grams
Mammal like reptiles and exotic ocean animals were present during the Permian period. What types of life were NOT on Earth 250 million years ago?
Answer:
Dinosaurs, flowers, animals with fur and flowering plants
Explanation:
Mass extinction occurs when more than half of the world’s species die in a geologically short period. A species is a group of organisms similar in appearance, anatomy, physiology, and genetics.
The environment changes so fast that most species can’t adapt or evolve, so they go extinct.
Dinosaurs, birds, and flowering plants were not present on Earth 250 million years ago during the Permian period.
Explanation:The Permian period, which occurred around 250 million years ago, was a time when mammal-like reptiles and exotic ocean animals existed. However, there were certain types of life that were not present on Earth during this period. One example would be dinosaurs, which did not appear until later in the Triassic period, after the Permian period had ended.
Additionally, birds, which are descended from dinosaurs, were also not present during this time. Finally, flowering plants, or angiosperms, had not yet evolved, and instead, the plant life consisted mainly of ferns and conifers.
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An 8-year-old girl has had difficulty swallowing for the past day. On examination, her pharynx is swollen and erythematous with an overlying yellow exudate. Laboratory studies show neutrophilia. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) is cultured from her pharynx. Which of the following substances is most likely to increase in response to pyrogens released by this organism? A. Hageman factor B. Immunoglobulin E C. Interleukin-12 (IL-12) D. Nitric oxide E Prostaglandins
Answer:
E) Prostaglandins
Explanation:
In Veterinary Medicine (Eleventh Edition), 2017 book it is mentioned that when bacteria release pyrogens it abrupt the functioning of Interleukin-1 which is responsible for fever. It increases the synthesis of prostaglandins in hypothalamus which disrupts the thermostatically set point and initiate mechanism of vasoconstriction and shivering thermogenesis until the body temperature reached to hypothalamus set point.
On a field expedition to Yellowstone National Park, you collected water samples from some of the hot springs in the hope of discovering new species of thermophilic bacterium. One such bacterium grew in the laboratory and after sequencing the entire genome of this new bacterium by the whole-genome shotgun approach, you use a computer program to search for start/stop signals for translation and homology searches based on similarity to cDNAs in the database. You predict approximately 20,000 genes. Is this an accurate representation of the total number of genes in the organism? Why or why not?
Answer:
No, it is not correct.
Explanation:
No, this is not an adequate representation for the total number of genes in the studied organism. The reason is because we are looking for start/stop signals to make comparisons with a database, and only genes that encode proteins carry start/stop signals; therefore, the 20,000 genes that were predicted correspond only to genes that encode proteins, leaving aside others that do not, so the estimate obtained is not correct.
Match the cell adhesion or junction with the appropriate choice. Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all terms will be used. ResetHelp adherens junctions: desmosome: cell junctions: connexons: plaque: tonofilaments: hemidesmosome: adhesive junction: tight junctions: connexin: gap junction: focal adhesion: create a permeability barrier between epithelial cells
Answer:
The missing options are:
A) protein subunits associated with gap junctions.
B) a type of adhesive junction connecting an epithelial cell to the basal lamina.
C) collection of fibrous intracellular attachment proteins.
D) create a permeability barrier.
E) button-like points of strong adhesion between two cells.
F) hollow cylinders associated with gap junctions.
G) type of adherens junction connecting cells with the extracellular matrix.
H) intermediate filaments associated with plaques.
I) collection of adherens junctions particularly associated with epithelial cells.
J) type of adhesive junction containing actin microfilaments.
K) specialized modifications of the cell membrane in which two cells come together in multicellular organisms.
L) point of cytoplasmic contact between two cells.
M) anchors cytoskeleton of one cell with that of a neighboring cell.
Set of answers are:
A) protein subunits associated with gap junctions. Conexin
B) a type of adhesive junction connecting an epithelial cell to the basal lamina. Hemidesmosome
C) collection of fibrous intracellular attachment proteins. Plaque
D) create a permeability barrier. Tight junctions
E) button-like points of strong adhesion between two cells. Desmosome
F) hollow cylinders associated with gap junctions. Connexons
G) type of adherens junction connecting cells with the extracellular matrix. focal adhesion
H) intermediate filaments associated with plaques. Tonofilaments
I) collection of adherens junctions particularly associated with epithelial cells.
J) type of adhesive junction containing actin microfilaments. Adherens junctions
K) specialized modifications of the cell membrane in which two cells come together in multicellular organisms. Cell junctions
L) point of cytoplasmic contact between two cells. Gap junction
M) anchors cytoskeleton of one cell with that of a neighboring cell. Adhesive junction
Explanation:
Connexin: is a transmembrane protein that forms the gap junctions, they are also called gap junctions proteins.
Hemidesmosome junctions: these types of junctions are in the epidermis, specifically between the epithelial cells and the basal lamina of the epidermis.
Plaque: they are part of the adherens junctions, they are fibrous proteins that are attached to certain points of the extracellular matrix.
Tight junctions: are junctions between two epithelia, they are very restrictive and do not allow the passage of soluble molecules creating a permeability barrier.
Desmosomes: are very strong cell to cell junctions on the lateral sides of plasma membranes. They are in tissues that are under mechanical stress, such as the cardiac muscle.
Connexons: is a pore made of six connexin proteins in a gap junction. Connexons are the ones that connect two cells in gap junctions.
Focal adhesions: They connect the extracellular matrix with the cell, regulatory signs and mechanical force is transmitted through them.
Tonofilaments: tonofilaments are the ones that are associated with a plaque in adherens junctions, they are in epithelial tissues.
Adherens junctions: are cell to cell junctions where the cytoplasmatic face is connected to the actin cytoskeleton. They appear as spots forming the plaque or as zonula adherens, which are actin bands around the cell.
Cell junctions are protein complexes that connect two cells that are next to each other or a cell with the extracellular matrix. They have a lot of functions, such as pas information from cell to cell, or the exterior, form a barrier, synchronize cells, etc.
Gap junctions: are connections between the cytoplasm of two cells, molecules and, ions pass directly from one cell to the other.
Tight junctions create a permeability barrier between epithelial cells, desmosomes anchor cells together, and gap junctions allow direct communication between adjacent cells.
Explanation:Tight junctions create a permeability barrier between epithelial cells, preventing substances from leaking between cells. They seal the cells together using specialized proteins called claudins and occludins. This ensures that only selective molecules can pass through the cells. Desmosomes are adhesive junctions that anchor cells together, particularly in tissues that undergo mechanical stress, such as the skin. They consist of proteins called cadherins that connect with intermediate filaments, like tonofilaments, to provide structural support. Gap junctions are formed by connexons and are specialized cell junctions that allow direct communication and the exchange of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells. This facilitates coordinated activities among cells in tissues.
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Organisms commonly used to test the effectiveness of disinfectants include Bacillus megaterium, Mycrobacterium bovis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and staphylococcus aureus. Why are these species often used and without performing any test how would you rank their susceptibility to disinfection?
Answer with Explanation:
These species have different structural composition therefore they possess bacterial resistance towards disinfectants. As Bacillus megaterium belongs to spore producing family therefor it is said that they are most difficult to kill followed by Mycrobacterium bovis having a thick wall with waxy coating. While Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative cell and staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacteria.
By following order, you rank their susceptibility to disinfection:
Least Susceptible > Most Susceptible
Bacillus megaterium>Mycrobacterium bovis>Pseudomonas aeruginosa>staphylococcus aureus
The Vocabulary of Biological Influences on WeightThere are a wide variety of factors that affect an individual’s weight status. In this section, you will review biological influences including genes, metabolic factors, and physiologic factors like the hormones that regulate hunger and satiety. Match the words to the appropriate sentences.a. Researchers propose these are responsible for 50 to 90% of an individual's BMI. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center b. When this is low in an individual, they burn fewer Calories at rest. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center c. Stimulated to cause hunger in an individual when blood glucose levels are low. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center d. If this is low, an individual will utilize relatively more carbohydrate for energy, thereby more fat will be stored in adipose tissue. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center e. protein produced in the gastrointestinal tract that decreases appetite after food intake. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center f. Synthesized in the stomach and acts to stimulate appetite. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center g. The protein produced by adipose tissue that acts to reduce food intake [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center h. may disrupt ATP production, resulting in less energy storage. [ Choose ] ghrelin Fat oxidation Peptide YY Metabolic Rate Leptin Uncoupling Proteins Genetic Factors Hypothalamic Feeding Center
Question in multiple choice question therefore some questions need explanation and some do not need explanation.
a. Researchers propose these are responsible for 50 to 90% of an individual's BMI.
Answer:
leptin
b. When this is low in an individual, they burn fewer Calories at rest.
Answer:
Metabolic Rate
Explanation:
When body is in working state the metabolic rate is Hight which results in more calories burring and we sweat. But in resting condition metabolic rate is low therefore less calories are burned.
c. Stimulated to cause hunger in an individual when blood glucose levels are low.
Answer:
ghrelin
Explanation:
It is a hormone produced by stomach to induce hunger when blood glucose level is low.
d. If this is low, an individual will utilize relatively more carbohydrate for energy, thereby more fat will be stored in adipose tissue.
Answer:
Fat oxidation
e. protein produced in the gastrointestinal tract that decreases appetite after food intake.
Answer:
Peptide YY
Explanation:
This hormone is released in response to feeding.
f. Synthesized in the stomach and acts to stimulate appetite.
Answer:
ghrelin
Explanation:
It is a hormone produced by stomach and released into intestine to produce hunger.
g. The protein produced by adipose tissue that acts to reduce food intake
Answer:
Leptin
Explanation:
It is a hormone secreted by hypothalamus which decrease the apatite intake.
h. may disrupt ATP production, resulting in less energy storage.
Answer:
Genetic Factors
Explanation:
Genetic mutation cause disruption in the functioning of mitochondria which results In the disruption of ATP production.
Final answer:
The biological influences on weight include genetic factors, metabolic rate, and hormones like ghrelin, leptin, peptide YY, and uncoupling proteins, each playing a specific role in determining an individual's BMI, energy expenditure, hunger, and satiety.
Explanation:
The Vocabulary of Biological Influences on Weight involves understanding a variety of factors that affect an individual's weight, including genetic factors, metabolic rate, and the role of hormones like ghrelin, leptin, peptide YY, and uncoupling proteins. Here is the matching list according to the student's question:
a. Researchers propose these are responsible for 50 to 90% of an individual's BMI - Genetic Factors
b. When this is low in an individual, they burn fewer Calories at rest - Metabolic Rate
c. Stimulated to cause hunger in an individual when blood glucose levels are low - ghrelin
d. If this is low, an individual will utilize relatively more carbohydrate for energy, thereby more fat will be stored in adipose tissue - Fat oxidation
e. protein produced in the gastrointestinal tract that decreases appetite after food intake - Peptide YY
f. Synthesized in the stomach and acts to stimulate appetite - ghrelin
g. The protein produced by adipose tissue that acts to reduce food intake - Leptin
h. may disrupt ATP production, resulting in less energy storage - Uncoupling Proteins
What type of currently available car engine is the only one with zero emissions?
Answer:
Electric engine
Explanation:
Electric engine is powered by an energy source compact enough to be installed in the vehicle. These sources include hydrogen fuel cells, batteries, super capacitors, and flywheel energy storage devices. If electricity is generated from hydro-power, wind power, solar power or nuclear power rather than coal or natural gas power plants so emissions will be zero.
Answer:
Electric car
Explanation:
An ecosystem contains
A. only the biotic (living) components of the environment
B. only the abiotic (nonliving) components of the environment
C. only the energy flow components of an environment
D. both the living organisms and the abiotic components of the environment
E. only the food relationships found in an environment
Answer:
D
Explanation:
An ecosystem involves everything that are living organism and also surrounding nonliving organism surrounding the living organism.
An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living) and abiotic (nonliving) components that interact in a defined area, making answer D the correct choice.
Explanation:An ecosystem encompasses not only the biotic components, which are all the living organisms such as animals, plants, and microorganisms, but also includes the abiotic components like air, water, soil, and sunlight. These living and nonliving elements interact within an ecosystem, influencing nutrient cycles and energy flows.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question of what an ecosystem contains is D. both the living organisms and the abiotic components of the environment.
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There are a number of unique features to eukaryotic pre-mRNA splicing. Select all that apply.A. Introns are thought to encode specific subunits of proteins.B. Introns likely slow down gene expression.C. Introns need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations.D. There are often multiple introns in a gene.
Answer:
Option (A), (C) and (D).
Explanation:
Introns are the non coding nucleotide sequence of the gene. They may present within the gene or may lie outside the exons. Introns are responsible for the gene evolution.
Introns can also responsible for encoding the proteins subunit. Introns needs to be removed from the exons by the process known as splicing. Different splicing are alternate splice, group I and II intron. Different multiple introns can be present in the gene.
Thus, the correct option is (A), (C) and (D).
Final answer:
Introns likely slow down gene expression, need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations, and there are often multiple introns in a gene.
Explanation:
B. Introns likely slow down gene expression.
C. Introns need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations.
D. There are often multiple introns in a gene.
These are the unique features of eukaryotic pre-mRNA splicing. Introns slow down gene expression because they need to be removed precisely to prevent mutations. Genes can have multiple introns, which need to be spliced out before the mRNA can be translated into protein.
The letter associated with each subshell tells us what, specifically? Choose the one best answer.
A. the principal quantum number of the orbital.
B. the principal shell of the orbital.
C. the maximum number of electrons.
D. the three dimensional shape of the orbital.
E. none of the above
Explanation:
Principle quantum number
In electronic configuration of an atom the Orbits or Shells are denoted using n.
K=1, L=2, M=3, N=4 ................ and so on. This number n is of significance which denotes the energy level where the electrons are found.
Orbital Angular Momentum Quantum Number (l)
The orbital angular momentum no. [tex]l[/tex] denotes the subshell of the electron. It tells the shape of the subshells as well.
s subshell corresponds to l=0, p subshell corresponds to l=1, d subshell corresponds to l=2, f subshell corresponds to l=3, and so on.
Magnetic Quantum Number (m)
Magnetic quantum no. denotes the no. of orbitals present in the subshell.
Each orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons both having opposite spin.
The no. of orbitals is taken from the angular momentum quantum number having given as [tex](2l+1)[/tex]
Now the magnetic quantum no. ranges from [tex]-l\ to\ +l[/tex] which includes zero in the middle.
There are n² number of orbitals found in an energy level.
Spin Magnetic Quantum Number (S)
Spin quantum no. can have values either [tex]-\frac{1}{2}\ or\ +\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
orbitals cannot contain two electrons of the same spin.
Electron with positive sign is known as alpha electron and the negative one is called beta electron.
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Final answer:
The letter associated with each subshell specifies the three-dimensional shape of the orbital. The correct option is D.
Explanation:
The letter associated with each subshell indicates the three-dimensional shape of the orbital. For instance, the letter 's' refers to a spherical orbital shape, 'p' refers to a bell-shaped orbital, 'd' and 'f' are for more complex shapes with five and seven orbitals respectively. The principal quantum number (n) designates the size and energy level of an orbital, while the angular momentum quantum number (l) corresponds to the subshell and describes the shape of the orbitals within that subshell. The correct answer to the question is therefore option D. The three-dimensional shape of the orbital is the key characteristic represented by the subshell's letter designation.
True/False
Island biology is excellent for studying the origin of species, because of their isolation, island species tend to resemble each other more than the parent populations.
true because Island biology is excellent for studying the origin of species, because of their isolation, island species tend to resemble each other more than the parent populations.
You are investigating the role of physical activity in heart disease, and your data suggest a protective effect. Whilepresenting your findings, a colleague asks whether you have thought about confounders, such as factor. Under which ofthe following conditions could this factor have confounded your interpretation of the data?a. It is a risk factor for some other disease, but not heart disease.b. It is a risk factor associated with the physical activity measure and heart disease.c. It is part of the causal pathway by which physical activity affects heart disease.d. It has caused a lack of follow-up of test subjects.e. It may have blinded your study.
Answer: option E - It may have blinded your study.
Explanation:
A confounder is a factor, in data analysis, that causes the effects of two distinct processes to be indistinguishable/ unknown.
Of course, the confounder (factor) could have made the protective effect against heart disease a function of more than just physical activity - bringing other factors like heredity or diet history etc into consideration.
So, the confounder (factor) may have blinded your study.
What geologic event most likely caused the folding and faulting of these layers?
Answer:
Folding and faulting- The process in which the layers of the Earth are displaced or moved into a different position due to some forces acted upon them, as there are different reasons due to which the folding and faulting occurs.
The forces are so power full that they can bring the sediments of ocean to level or elevation above the sea level and can have a destructive effects for the living being. As there are various causes for folding and faulting of these layers,some of these forces are given below;Explanation:
Geological events causing the folding and faulting-
Tectonic Plates movement- The parts of the Earth layer are always sliding over each other, and when they do they produce huge seismic waves. Which then causes the earthquakes, the folding and faulting of these layers.
Volcanic eruptions : It happens rarely as the number of gases and lava from inside the Earth, down from the crust move upward and erupts, producing dust in the atmosphere.
The other two geological causes are;
Intrusive igneous activity,subduction.2) Lions and tigers have diverged from a common ancestor approximately 4 million years ago. You are trying to determine whether the lion lineage or the tiger lineage has been evolving at a faster rate at the DNA sequence level since they diverged from their common ancestor. Describe the data you would need to collect to make that determination (2) and how you would interpret the data (1). Suppose that you find that the tiger lineage did, in fact, evolve faster according to the data you described. Propose two evolutionary explanations for that observation (1) and explain how they would impact the rate of evolution (1). Assume that no ancient DNA data exist for either lineage
Answer:
The source if data will be from the ancient DNA of the ancestors and the full DNA data of both the tiger and the lion.
Data interpretation
Its by analysing and comparing individually the specific marker of the ancient DNA with the DNA data of both tiger and lion.
If the tiger lineage did evolved faster then there will be CHANGES when the full DNA data of the tiger is analysed for similarities with ancient DNA data INDICATING a faster rate of evolution for the tiger lineage.
Note: these changes maybe due to the living ENVIRONMENTAL conditions and abundance of food and resources
Assuming no ancient DNA data exist for either lineage
Then analysis for comparison won't be easy but difficult to get by.
As today's data would have to be kept for future analysis and comparision in order for it to act as the basis for ancient data
To evaluate the evolutionary rate of DNA sequences between lions and tigers, we would compare the current DNA sequences of both species. If the tiger lineage evolved faster, it may be due to various selective pressures or a higher mutation rate leading to more genetic changes.
To determine whether the lion lineage or the tiger lineage has been evolving at a faster rate at the DNA sequence level since they diverged from a common ancestor, we would need to collect and compare the DNA sequences of both species. By analyzing the number of mutations and the genetic differences, we can estimate the rate of evolution since their divergence. Since we assume no ancient DNA is available, this comparison would be between the modern lion and tiger sequences.
If we find that the tiger lineage has evolved faster, two evolutionary explanations might be different selective pressures or a higher mutation rate in tigers compared to lions. Different selective pressures could arise from variations in environment, predation, or resources, leading to distinct evolutionary paths. A higher mutation rate could be due to increased exposure to mutagens, shorter generation times, or intrinsic biological factors affecting DNA replication fidelity in tigers compared to lions.
3. The cerebellum of the human is divided into two portions, while the sheep only has one portion of the cerebellum. Why is there a difference?
Answer:
The human brain is divided in to two parts and that is why human brain is responsible for controlling behavior of human and motor control . The sheep have only one portion. Compared to the sheep, the human olfactory bulb is larger in size while the stem on the sheep is larger than human. The cerebellum in the human brain is larger and more secure than the sheep.
Answer:
This is because animals as a whole usually rely more upon their senses and abilities of smell than humans do.
Explanation:
Which snail population has the larger average shell thickness, the population from 1871, or the population from the 1980s?
Answer:
the population from the 1980s had larger average shell thickness.
Explanation:
The snail population from the 1980s had larger average shell thickness.
The reason is explained as follows.
In the 19 the century , a species of crab called green crab moved to North America . They moved to Cape Cod region . They were predators and used to feed on snails . So a new species of snail evolved there which had thicker cover of shell to protect them from their predators. This was a burning example of process of evolution in modern times. The present generation of snails there now had thicker shell than their ancestors.
2. Suppose that you and 19 of your classmates (giving a final population of 10 males and 10 females) are on a cruise, and your ship sinks near a deserted island. You and all of your friends make it to shore and start a new population isolated from the rest of the world. Two of your friends carry the recessive allele (i.e., are heterozygous) for phenylketonuria. If the frequency of this allele does not change as the population on your island increases, what will be the incidence of phenylketonuria on your island?
Answer:
0.25%
Explanation:
20 people start the new population. So there are 20 genes or 40 alleles for the recessive disorder phenylketonuria. 2 out of 40 alleles are recessive for the condition hence frequency of the allele = 2/40 = 0.05
Frequency of the allele does not change when the population increases so it is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. According to it, if q is the frequency of recessive allele, q² = frequency of the recessive condition
Here, q = 0.05 So,
q² = (0.05)² = 0.0025
In percentage, it is 100 * 0.0025 = 0.25%
Hence, incidence of phenylketonuria in the new population is 0.25%
Hence, 0.25% of the population will be born with Phenylketonuria.
Hardy-Weinberg principle:The principle states that the allelic frequency remains constant through generations and the gene pool remains constant. This phenomenon is called genetic equilibrium.
The population of 20 people comprises 40 alleles. Out of these 40 alleles, 2 are for phenylketonuria.
Assigning this allele to [tex]q[/tex],
We get,
[tex]q=\frac{2}{40}\\ q=5\%[/tex]
Now as per the Hardy-Weinberg principle, if the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is [tex]q[/tex] then the incidence/frequency of recessive allele individuals will be,
[tex]q^2=q\times q\\=0.05\times 0.05\\q^2=0.0025\\=0.25\%[/tex]
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Example 1: Two different enzymes are able to catalyze the same reaction, A → B. They both have the same Vmax, but differ their Km the substrate A. For enzyme 1, the Km is 1.0 mM; for enzyme 2, the Km is 10 mM. When enzyme 1 was incubated with 0.1 mM A, it was observed that B was produced at a rate of 0.0020 mmoles/minute. a) What is the value of the Vmax of the enzymes? 0.022 b) What will be the rate of production of B when enzyme 2 is incubated with 0.1 mM A? 0.00022 c) What will be the rate of production of B when enzyme 1 is incubated with 1 M (i.e., 1000 mM) A? 0.022
Answer: (a) = 0.022mmoles/minute; (b) = 0.00022mmoles/minute; (c) = 0.022mmoles/minute
Explanation:
The Michaelis- Menten equation is used to show the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate.
The equation is Vo = Vmax[S]/(Km + [S]
where Vo is the initial velocity, Vmax is the maximum velocity, [S] is the substrate concentration, Km is the Michaelis constant.
(a) For enzyme 1; Vo = 0.002mmoles/minute, Vmax = ?, [S] = 0.1mM, Km =1.0mM; making Vmax subject of the formula;
Vmax = Vo * (Km + [S])/ [S]
Vmax = 0.002*(1.0 + 0.1)/ 0.1
Vmax = 0.022mmoles/minute (Vmax for Enzyme 1&2)
(b) Vo = Vmax[S]/(Km + [S]
Vo = 0.022 * 0.1/(10+0.1) = 0.00022mmoles/minute
(c) Vo = Vmax[S]/(Km + [S]
Vo = 0.022*1000/(1.0+1000) = 0.022mmoles/minute
Evaluate the statement select those that correctly apply meta genomic sampling of the biospheres
Answer:
Meta genomic sampling is the direct genetic analysis of genomes contained with an environmental sample.
Explanation:
The statements that correctly describe the genomic sampling of the biosphere are;
As by carrying out meta genomic sampling we can be provided with the data of functional gene composition of microbial communities.Sufficient amounts of high-quality nucleic acids must be obtained for subsequent library production and sequencing.The DNA extracted should be representative of all cells present in the sample.Two strategies can be employed for meta genomics samples: reference-based assembly (co-assembly) and de novo assembly.De novo assembly typically requires larger computational resources.The "clonal" assumptions built into many assemblers might lead to suppression of contig formation for certain heterogeneous taxa at specific parameter settings.During a period of almost a million years, Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis lived in the same region of East Africa. If these species shared a habitat, how did they not outcompete one another? Be sure to provide a detailed answer that includes information from the fossil record, such as specific physical traits and behaviors in these species.
Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis coexisted in East Africa but didn't outcompete each other due to their different physical traits and behaviors. A.boisei had a robust skull and teeth for chewing tough plant material, while H. habilis had a more modern skull, larger brain, and was skilled in making and using tools.
Explanation:Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis coexisted in the same region of East Africa for a long time, but they didn't outcompete each other because they had different physical traits and behaviors.
Australopithecus boisei, also known as 'Nutcracker Man,' had a massive, robust skull and large molars for chewing tough plant material. It had a specialized diet and was adapted to eat hard, gritty foods by using its strong jaw muscles.
On the other hand, Homo habilis had a smaller, more modern-looking skull and teeth. It had a larger brain and was more skilled in making and using tools. Homo habilis had a more diverse and flexible diet, which allowed them to exploit a wider range of resources.
These differences in physical characteristics and behaviors allowed Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis to occupy different ecological niches within the same habitat, reducing competition between the two species.
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Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely avoided competition through niche partitioning, with distinct diets, tools, and social behaviors.
Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely occupied different ecological niches within the same region. While both were early hominins, they likely had distinct dietary preferences, foraging strategies, and social behaviors.
Australopithecus boisei, characterized by robust skull features including large molars and thick enamel, is often referred to as the "Nutcracker Man" due to its specialization in consuming hard, tough foods like nuts and seeds. In contrast, Homo habilis, with a more gracile skull and smaller teeth, likely had a more varied diet, including softer foods like fruits, vegetables, and meat.
Homo habilis is associated with the earliest stone tool production, suggesting a capacity for more efficient food processing and resource exploitation. This technological advantage may have allowed Homo habilis to access a broader range of food resources compared to Australopithecus boisei.
Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely had different social structures and behaviors. Homo habilis, with a larger brain size and evidence of more complex tool-making abilities, may have had a more sophisticated social organization, allowing for cooperation in resource acquisition and defense against predators
In ecological terms, species can coexist in the same habitat by partitioning available resources, thereby reducing competition. Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis likely occupied different dietary niches, with minimal overlap in resource utilization. This niche partitioning allowed them to coexist without significant competition for food resources.
While Australopithecus boisei and Homo habilis lived in the same region of East Africa, they likely avoided direct competition through differences in dietary preferences, tool use, and social behaviors, ultimately allowing them to coexist in the same habitat for almost a million years.
Explain how the retreat of North American glaciers 16,000 years ago influence the distribution of trees.
Answer:
North American glacier:About some 15,000 years ago earth faced a catastrophic event of ice age termed as Last Glacial Maximum(LGM), which covered most of the globe. As the northern region of the American continent, along with that most of the region in the European lands. Which made it very hard for the living beings to survive.
Explanation:
Effects on Plants-The process of producing more food was been halted by the severe conditions globally and there were more unfavorable conditions for the plants, as the level and height of ice over the surface was in the range of Km's. As the trees and plants did not had any water available due to low temperature in the region.As most of the Amazon was in scattered form and the rain forests were greatly effected by the ice age, as it covered the surface of the land in the north American region.Due, to too much ice and lack of fertile soil available there were less crop and less trees developed, which caused more severe conditions.The fluctuation of the water level in the small arm of the water seal with respirations is called:_________
Answer: Tidaling
Explanation:
It is rise and fall of water in water-seal chamber, used to determine the degree of re expansion of the lungs. It reduction shows the lungs reexpands.
However, with respiratory efforts it is normal.
The net result of excretion of H+ in the urine is the ____ within the blood.
A. retention of H2PO4-
B. conversion of CO2 to H2CO3
C. conversion of CO2 to HCO3-
D. retention of Na+
B
The net result of excretion of H+ in the urine is the __conversion of CO₂ to H₂CO₃__ within the blood.
Explanation:
Excretion of H+ ions from the blood via urine means decreasing the H+ content in the blood. This consequently means the blood pH rises ad becomes more basic (remember H+ ions are responsible for acidity for a solution). For the body to maintain the homeostatic pH of between 7.35 and 7.45, the carbonic anhydrase activity will increase hence dissolving more CO₂ into the blood plasma to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). Carbonic acid dissociated fast into H⁺ and HCO₃⁻. The H+ from the dissociation replenishes the H⁺ to the right concentration.
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Ling, a 75-year-old grandmother, complained that her vision was becoming obscured. Upon examination by an ophthalmologist she was told she had cataracts.
What are cataracts, how do they occur, and how are they treated?
a. A cataract is a clouding of the lens. Some cataracts are congenital, but most are due to age-related hardening and thickening of the lens, diabetes mellitus, or exposure to UV rays over time. The lens can be removed and replaced
with an artificial lens.
b. A cataract is a clouding of the cornea. Some cataracts are congenital, but most are due to age-related hardening and thickening of the lens, diabetes mellitus, or exposure to UV rays over time. A corneal transplant can be performed to replace the damaged cornea.
c. A cataract is increased intraocular pressure. This occurs when drainage of the aqueous humor is blocked. They are treated with eyedrops that increase the rate of aqueous humor drainage or decrease its production.
d. A cataract occurs when there are unequal curvatures in different parts of the cornea or lens. This is a congenital condition. Specially ground lenses or laser surgical procedures are used to correct this problem.
Answer:a. A cataract is a clouding of the lens. Some cataracts are congenital, but most are due to age-related hardening and thickening of the lens, diabetes mellitus, or exposure to UV rays over time. The lens can be removed and replaced
with an artificial lens.
Explanation:
a moving cell with a high mitochondria content is likely A. an animal cell getting ready to photosynthesize B. a plant cell without a cell wall C. A heterotrophic cell D. A Golgi apparatus without a nucleus
Answer: option C - A heterotrophic cell
Explanation:
An organism is said to be an heterotroph if it is unable to produce its own food, making it rely on green plants or other autotrophs for nutrients. So, heterotrophic organisms are usually the classed as consumers (primary, secondary etc).
Due to the need of energy consumption and absorption, heterotrophic organisms (with heterotrophic cells) usually have high mitochondrial content (to help in energy metabolism) and moves about (mobile) in search of nutrients (prey)
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
a. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
b. increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
c. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
d. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Answer:
D. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
Explanation:
Activation of the sympathetic division under any emergency or stress conditions results in a series of physiological responses collectively referred to as flight or fight response.
The sympathetic nervous system causes an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Increased pumping of blood through the heart ensures enough supply of oxygen to muscles required to produce the desired responses.
It also causes constriction of blood vessels that supply gastrointestinal tract and reduced muscular activities of smooth muscles of GI trait. The result is reduced blood flow through these tissues, reduced peristalsis and slowing of digestive activities, which are not required during exercise. The sympathetic nervous system also triggers the release of glucose by the liver increases blood glucose level.
Sympathetic division stimulation causes d) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.
Explanation:Sympathetic division stimulation causes d) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the body's response to stress or danger. When this division is stimulated, it triggers a release of epinephrine, which leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. It also inhibits the activity of the digestive system, resulting in decreased GI peristalsis. Lastly, sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and blood pressure to prepare the body for fight or flight.Learn more about Effects of sympathetic division stimulation here:https://brainly.com/question/31522035
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What can be said about all the DNA molecules in a single Sanger sequencing reaction mix? Select All That Apply
DNA can be sequenced less expensively.
Fewer errors in the sequence are produced.
A whole-genome could be sequenced in a single day.
DNA can be sequenced much faster.
Answer:
Fewer errors in the sequence are produced.
Explanation:
Sanger sequencing is the oldest sequencing methodology developed by Frederick Sanger in 1977. The technique is still in practice today for sequencing of single genes to achieve high accuracy of DNA strands sequencing compared to modern sequencing technologies such as Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) platforms (Illumina Sequencing).
Among the given statements, only B is correct because
Sanger sequencing is costly compared to NGS technologies (per kb cost for NGS is 20 cents whereas for Sanger sequencing it is about $10).Sanger sequencing is not a technology for whole genome sequencing (WGS) rather for single-gene sequencing with high accuracy. For WGS, massively parallel sequencing is required which can be achieved with NGS platforms.