Answer:
C. carbohydrate.
Explanation:
The digestion of carbohydrate starts in the mouth, where the salivary amylase converts carbohydrate in the food to maltose. This action continues through the esophagus, and when it gets to the stomach, it stops due to the acidic nature of the stomach (as the amylase works only in alkaline environment).
The maltose (disaccharides) is further broken down to monosaccharides called glucose in the duodenum. other disaccharides like sucrose and lactose are coverted to glucose + fruitose by sucrase, and glucose + galactose by lactase respectively. Carbohydrate in the duodenum are broken down to maltose by pancreatic amylase before converted to glucose.
Salivary amylase starts the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth by breaking down starch into maltose. This process stops when the food reaches the acidic environment of the stomach.
Explanation:The salivary amylase enzyme present in saliva begins the process of digestion in the mouth by breaking down carbohydrates. Specifically, salivary amylase acts on starch, which is a common dietary carbohydrate, breaking it down into smaller sugar units like maltose, a disaccharide.
The decomposition of carbohydrates by amylase continues until the food bolus reaches the stomach, where the acidic environment inhibits further action of the enzyme.
What state of mind does alcohol initially produce in most adults after the first drink?
Answer:
euphoria
Explanation:
When a person takes alcohol, he/she feels relaxed and euphoric. This happens because of the release of endorphins. Endorphins are a chemical that produces the feeling of pleasure and happiness. After the first drink, the content of alcohol in blood is 0.05-0.06% which is sufficient to develop euphoric feeling.
However, some of the consumers have also claimed that it act as a depressant.
While mosses can cover a significant area of land, they are never more than a few centimeters tall. Why do they not grow tall?
Answer:
They have no vascular system.
Explanation:
Vascular system contains an important feature they have series of tubes which helps to transport nutrients, and water over a distance in plants. The vascular system of phloem, and xylem allows trees (such as redwood) to grow a hundred feet tall.
Mosses do not have vascular system. Without the vascular system liverworts, and mosses are not able to grow large. Mosses are rarely one inch in height. Mosses are small flowerless waxy plants with no stem, and leaves.
Final answer:
Mosses do not grow tall because they are nonvascular plants without a complex system to transport water and nutrients, which limits them to surviving in moist conditions and growing only a few centimeters tall.
Explanation:
Mosses are fascinating plants that do not grow tall because they lack a vascular system. Unlike trees, which have a complex system to transport water, nutrients, and sugars, mosses must absorb these necessities directly through their leaves. Mosses have simple structures called rhizoids that help them attach to surfaces, but these are not true roots and cannot draw in water from deep within the soil. As nonvascular plants, mosses grow close together in clumps or mats, relying on moist conditions to survive. Furthermore, natural forces like wind and light create a demand for plants to grow taller, while water accessibility encourages a shorter stature. Mosses have not evolved to tackle this conflict, resulting in their characteristic low growth. They are prevalent in environments ranging from tundra to tropical forests, where they play a critical role in moisture retention, soil nutrition, and providing shelter and food for animals. However, their sensitivity to air pollution and certain substances like copper salts impacts where and how they can survive.
Assuming you begin with a single bacterial cell that has doubling time of 15 minutes, how many cells would you find at the end of one hour?
Answer:
16 cells
Explanation:
According to the given information, the generation time of the bacterial cell is 15 minutes. This means that the bacterial cell would have a total of 60/15= four divisions (1 hour= 60 minutes) in one hour. A division in a single bacterial cell produces two new bacterial cells. If both the newly formed bacterial cells enter the cell division, a total of four cells will be formed. Likewise, if all the newly formed bacterial cells enter the process of cell division, a total of 2^4= 16 cells will be formed by the end of four consecutive cell divisions.
Final answer:
Starting with a single bacterial cell, with a doubling time of 15 minutes, you would have 16 bacterial cells at the end of one hour after four doubling events.
Explanation:
If a single bacterial cell has a doubling time of 15 minutes, then it would double four times in one hour (since 60 minutes divided by 15 minutes equals four doublings). To calculate the number of bacterial cells after one hour, we apply the formula for exponential growth:
Final Population = Initial Population × 2(Number of Doublings)
Starting with one cell, we calculate the population after one hour as follows:
Final Population = 1 × 2⁴ = 1 × 16 = 16
Therefore, you would end up with 16 bacterial cells at the end of one hour, assuming the doubling time is exactly 15 minutes and there are no limiting factors affecting the growth.
Millicent sits up in bed several times a week, shouting and crying as if she is terrified. Her mother takes her to the pediatrician who suggests that she is having night terrors. Upon hearing this, Millicent’s father says, "This is probably just caused by nightmares. She’ll grow out of it!" Is Millicent’s father correct?
Answer:
Nightmares in children may disturb them mentally and a child can individual develop the fear against a particular thing. Children can see fearful images and unrelated pictures in their nightmares.
The Millicent father is not completely right as she does not completely have nightmares. Sleep terrors might occur during NREM ( non-rapid eye movement) sleep. The main and typical treatment is to see whether the fear or terror go away by itself or not otherwise some extra treatment must be given to the child.
The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old g2, p2 client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation after delivering a dead fetus. which finding is the highest priority to report to the health care provider (hcp)?
Answer: A. activated partial thromboplastine time(ATTP) of 30 secs.
B. Haemoglobin of 11.5g/dl(115g/l)
C. urinary output of 25ml in the last 1hour
D. platelets at 149000mm3(149*109/l)
Correct option is A
Explanation:
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or APTT ) is a blood test that characterizes coagulation of the blood.The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is often used in conjunction with another measure of how quickly blood clotting takes place called the prothrombin time (PT). The prothrombin time (PT) measures the speed of clotting by means of the extrinsic pathways
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) reflect the underlying consumption and impaired synthesis of the
coagulation cascade.
Which of these events is caused by the stapes pushing against membrane covering the oval window?A The pressure change causes the organ of Corti to vibrate horizontally.B The pressure change causes the tectorial membrane to move horizontally.C The pressure change causes the organ of Corti to vibrate vertically.D The pressure change causes the tectorial membrane to vibrate vertically.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C "The pressure change causes the organ of Corti to vibrate vertically".
Explanation:
The organ of Corti is an important structure for auditory perception that acts as a receptor organ for hearing. The organ of Corti is located in the mammalian cochlea and it allows for the transduction of auditory signals into nerve impulses according to the vibrations that are received from external sources. If the receiving sounds comes from the stapes pushing against membrane covering the oval window, the pressure change will causes the organ of Corti to vibrate vertically. Stimulus from membrane covering the oval window are sent to the organ of Corti, which responds by vibrating vertically.
The net energy yield from this pathway, where glucose is broken down through several steps forming pyruvate, is ________ molecules of ATP and _____ molecules of NADH.
Answer:
2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADH
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the first step of cellular respiration (break down of glucose to extract energy) which occurs in the cytoplasm. Glycolysis is a pathway common to all living organisms- prokaryotes and eukaryotes, as it does not require oxygen to occur.
Glycolysis occurs in two major phases (ten steps) requiring 10 enzymes catalyzing each step; the energy-requiring phase and the energy-requiring phase.
In the energy-requiring phase, the starting molecule (glucose) gets rearranged in a series of chemical reactions, and two phosphate groups gets attached to it producing fructose-1,6-bisphosphate which is unstable, This modified sugar then splits in half due to its instability to form two different but inter-convertible phosphate-bearing three-carbon sugars (Dihydroxyacetonephosphate, DHAP and Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, G3P). Because the phosphates used in these steps come from 2 ATP molecules, 2 ATP molecules get used up in this phase
All the DHAP molecules get converted to G-3-P in order to enter the next phase.
In the energy-recovering phase, the 3-carbon sugar (G3P) is converted into another three-carbon molecule called pyruvate, through a series of reactions. In these reactions, two ATP and 1 NADH molecules are made. This recovery phase occurs twice (one for each of the two isomeric three-carbon sugars, DHAP and G3P). Hence, a total of 4 ATP and 2 NADH molecules are produced in this phase.
Overall, Glycolysis converts one glucose (six-carbon) molecule to two pyruvate (three-carbon) molecules and a net release of 2 ATP molecules (4 overall - 2 used) and 2 NADH molecules.
Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
Answer:
A.OSHA
Explanation:
The complete question is as follows:
Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
A.OSHA
B.UNICEF
C.CDC
D.USMLE
OSHA is the short form for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration which is an agency of the United States Department of Labor located in Washington D.C, USA. The agency works to set and enforce standards for safe and healthy working environment for both men and women who work in private and public sectors. The employers of OSHA have the responsibility to provide a safe workplace and ensure that no serious health hazards take place in the same. Therefore the employers of emergency responders are mandated by OSHA to take measures to protect employees that are exposed to body fluids and blood.The double-lobed mass of tissue located in the mediastinum along the trachea behind the sternum that is involved in immunity is known as the
Answer:
The correct answer is thymus gland.
Explanation:
In the immune system, the thymus is considered as a primary lymphoid organ. Thymus is present behind the sternum, above the heart and between the two of our lungs. It is made up of two-lobed and is involved in releasing hormones and providing immunity.
Thymus is the primary site where T- cells become mature. T- cells are formed in bone marrow but reaches to thymus for maturation. These mature T- cells play a very important role in providing adaptive immunity against foreign molecules.
Thymus is larger till puberty and it slowly shrinks as the age increases. So the correct answer is thymus.
Brent is a White man who has been given a choice to work with Darwin or Ken. Darwin is a Black man who shares many of Brent's values and attitudes, and Ken is a White man who shares little in common with Brent. Who will Brent like and want to work with most?
A) Darwin
B) Ken
C) All else being equal,his liking will be equally high for both Darwin and Ken
D) Brent will probably choose to work alone
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Brent will opt to work with an individual who has the desired characteristics to meet the work requirement and could also go along with efficient team building. Thus, in case if both Ken and Darwin have similar characteristics, then Brent would prefer to work with both the person irrespective of their color. Physical characteristics will not impact Brent decision for choosing one amongst the two.
Hence, option C is correct
Hamstrings is a collective name for the four muscles on the anterior and lateral aspects of the upper leg. Indicate whether the statement is true or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Hamstring term is used to define the posterior thigh compartment. It has three parts and forms tendons at the backside of the knee. It is responsible for flexing the lower portion of the legs at the knees.
The anterior and lateral sides of the thighs are covered by Quadriceps femoris muscle. It has four major parts – one rectus femoris muscle and three vasti muscles which asre vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius
Hence, the given statement is false
The hamstrings are a collective name for muscles on the posterior thigh, and the statement is true.
True. The hamstrings are indeed a collective name for four muscles located on the posterior thigh. These muscles include the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris.
After suffering a brain injury by falling from a ladder, Zack's wife continues to tell the doctor that his personality has changed. He used to be fun loving and carefree, but he is now more critical and yells at his children for seemingly little reason. Zack is likely to have suffered damage to the __________ part of his cortex.
Answer:
frontal lobe
Explanation:
The cerebral cortex of the brain has four paired lobes. one of these four paired lobes is the frontal lobe and it occupies 2/3rds of the entire human brain. the frontal lobe is associated with performing tasks such as speech and language production, walking and running, classifying and identifying objects, reacting to feelings, forming memories, forming the personality of a person, and attention involving tasks. Since after the injury, Zack has an altered personality and his reaction to the situation has changed, this points out to the fact that he is most likely suffering from frontal lobe injury.following clear-cutting of a broadleaf forest several hundred years ago, the land was colonized by herbaceous species that were replaced largely over time by shrubs, then by forest trees. Assuming the growth of the shrubs and trees was enhanced by the soil-holding properties of the herbaceous plants, which of the following processes best describe the progression from herbaceous plants to forest trees?
The question is incomplete as it lacks the options which are:
A) primary succession; facilitation
B) primary succession; inhibition
C) primary succession; toleration
D) secondary succession; facilitation
E) secondary succession; inhibition
Answer:
The correct answer will be- secondary succession; facilitation
Explanation:
Secondary succession is the series of changes in the community which takes place on the disturbed or damaged land but previously colonized.
The succession takes place in one of the three ways: Facilitation, inhibition and tolerance model.
Facilitation model of succession occurs when the pioneer species growing in an area modifies the area and make it suitable for survival for themselves and other invading species.
The primary species are replaced by the competitive species which are replaced by another competitive species. Thus, the growing species facilitates the growth of the other species.
In the given question, since the herbs are replaced by the shrubs and then the forests on the disturbed land, therefore, secondary succession; facilitation is the correct answer.
In a bacterial cell population that is growing exponentially, if one generation has 100 cells and the following generation has 200 cells, the next generation is expected to have
Answer:
400 cells
Explanation:
Bacterial growth refers to the increase in the number of bacteria population in an exponential manner. That is, if a bacteria cell divides in a generation to give rise 2 bacteria cells, while in the next generation, we would be having a bacterial cell population of 4 cells.
So, if one generation has 100 cells and the following has 200 cells, the next generation would have a bacterial cell population of 400, showing an exponential increase in bacterial cell growth from one generation to another.
The roots of mandibular first premolars are? A. (flattened faciolingually) and (frequently sharply curved distally) B. (flattened faciolingually), (usually free of marked distal curvature) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces) C. (broader facially than lingually) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces) only D. (broader facially than lingually), (usually free of marked distal curvature) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces)
Answer:
D. (broader facially than lingually), (usually free of marked distal curvature) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces)
Explanation:
From the diagram below, we can different aspects of Mandibular first premolars. A. Buccal, B. Lingual, C. Mesial, D. Distal, E. Occlusal.
The Buccal aspect of mandibular first premolars have buccolingual measurement as a canine and has a sharp buccal cusp.The crown is inclined lingually but is broader facially than lingual, and therefore, the tip of the buccal cusp is situated on the vertical axis of the root.
The lingual cusp is smaller and shorter than buccal cusp.
The distal contact area is wider than the mesial contact area, since the contact tooth is second premolar offering it a free of marked distal curvature.
In addition, the outline is concave from the contact area is broader than the mesial contact area, thus it is frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces.
Answer:
I think the answers "D"
Explanation:
Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine are all examples of _______.A. bodily humors. B. synaptic clefts.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
A.bodily humors. B.synaptic clefts. C.neurotransmitters. D.growth hormones.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- C
Explanation:
Neurotransmitters are the chemicals released from the neurons at the synaptic junctions which helps in the transmission of the electrical impulse from one neuron to another.
The dopamine, serotonin and nor-epinephrine are the biogenic forms of neurotransmitters which are synthesized from the precursors of the amino acids. These neurotransmitters are produced in producing different functions in the body.
Thus, option- C is the correct answer.
The hormone insulin, which is produced by the cells of the pancreas, is released into the surrounding extracellular fluid by an energy-requiring process called _____.
Answer: Active transport
Explanation:
Active transport can be defined as the process by which the molecules are transported against the concentration gradient by the help of energy.
The hormones like insulin are also transported by this process so that the hormone can reach to the place where it is required.
This is an energy consuming process because of sizeof molecule and the opposite of the concentration gradient.
Given that equal amounts of the different mRNA’s were injected into fertilized frog eggs, which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the electrophoresis results?
a. B-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is a-hemoglobin mRNA
b. a-hemoglobin is present only in cells where B-hemoglobin is absent
c. a-hemoglobin mRNA is more stable than B-hemoglobin mRNA
d. Tubulin inhibits translation of hemoglobin mRNA
Answer:
Answer is A. B-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is a-hemoglobin mRNA.
Explanation:
The introduction of electric charge into a gel or fluid, causing or resulting in the movement of the charged particles in the gel or fluid, is referred to as the electrophoresis. It can also be explained as a separation method or technique which is based on the movement of particles or ions in an electric field.
The electrophoresis is used in separating DNA fragments , RNA or protein, based on their size and charge.
1. Discuss why reproductive isolation is necessary for divergence in populations.
3. Identify the eight mechanisms of reproductive isolation.
4. Explain the common ways in which sympatric speciation can occur.
5. Recognize that allopatric speciation is the most common way in which new species arise.
1. Reproductive isolation is essential for population divergence. The mechanisms of reproductive isolation are essential for speciation which is the process of development of new species from preexisting species.
Due to reproductive isolation individuals of the same population will acquire different types of genetic variations and mutations such that males and females of the isolated populations cannot reproduce with each other.
3. Mechanisms of reproductive isolation are temporal isolation, behavioural isolation, gametic isolation, ecological isolation, mechanical isolation, hybrid inviability, hybrid sterility and hybrid breakdown.
4. Species populations within the same habitat become reproductively isolated in sympatric speciation. This speciation is a resultant of polyploidy where an offspring develops with twice the number of chromosomes.
5. Allopatric speciation is also called geographic isolation and it is the most common type of isolation. A geographical barrier separates individuals of a species and the separated groups develop into new species.
What is true about innate behavior, such as the tendency of bulldogs to want to chase larger animals or cars?
Explanation:
Behaviour is the activity of an organism when they respond to a stimulus. When we talk about an innate behavior, we refer to behaviors with and strong genetic component, this means that they are not affected by environmental factors. This innate behavior is also known as instinct.
I hope you find this infromation sueful and itneresting! Good luck!
Plate tectonics is the theory explaining the structure of the earth's crust and the resulting features and processes of the interaction of the plates that move slowly over the underlying mantle. There are four boundary zones that are created by these plate interactions. What is the most common resulting process that is found in all four of the zones?
Earthquakes
Submarine mountain range
Trenches
Widening of the ocean basin
Answer:
The correct answer is "Earthquakes".
Explanation:
The four boundary zones that are created by tectonic plates interactions are: divergent, convergent, transform and plate boundary zones. There are different consequences of the boundary zones, including the generation of new crust, destruction of new crust, plates sliding horizontally and unclear effects, respectively. Independently of the effect of the boundary zones, the most common resulting process of these effects is the generation of earthquakes. Earthquakes are the result of the movement of tectonic plates, which takes place at all four boundary zones.
What is the sciatic notch? How can it be used to determine gender?
Answer:
a sciatic notch is a part of the pelvis.
Men have a more arched sciatic notch while women have a broader sciatic notch
Explanation:
Various measurements of the greater sciatic notch such as width, depth, and length of the posterior angles.
The demarking points identify sex with 100% accuracy.
Hope this helps :)
The sciatic notch is a part of the ileum. The ileum is a part of the pelvic bones. The sciatic notch can determine the gender, as the sciatic notch of males is narrower than that of females.
What is a sciatic notch?The sciatic notch is a shape that is present in the pelvic bone of animals. The pelvic bone is present in the middle of the body. It saves the organs like the bladder and other organs.
The sciatic notch is used to determine the sex of the human because in males and females the shape of the sciatic notch is different. The females have broader sciatic notch than males.
Thus, the ileum includes the sciatic notch. The pelvic bones include the ileum. The gender can be determined by the sciatic notch, since the male sciatic notch is smaller than the female sciatic notch.
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The synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produces which of the following as a byproduct?
Answer:
Water
hope it helps:)
The synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produce water as a byproduct.
DEHYDRATION SYNTHESIS:
Dehydration synthesis is a type of reaction which involves the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller molecules with the release of water. Dehydration synthesis is the reaction through which proteins or carbohydrates (polysaccharide) are formed. For example, glucose molecules will combine in a dehydration synthesis to form starch with the release of water.Hence, the synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produce water as a byproduct.
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An action potential is a. the tiny electrical charge that exists when a. a neuron is neither receiving nor sending information. b. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron. c. the small gap that exists between adjacent neurons. d. an electrical signal that travels along the dendrites of a neuron.
Answer:
b. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron.
Explanation:
An action potential is a nerve impulse or an electrical signal that travels down an axon which cause a change in polarity across the membrane of the axon.
In response to an electrical signal from another neuron, sodium ion (Na+) and potassium ion (K+) (i.e gated ion channels) open and close as the membrane reaches its threshold potential. Na+ channels open at the beginning of the action potential, and Na+ moves into the axon, causing depolarization.
Repolarization occurs when the K+ channels open and K+ moves out of the axon, causing a diferent change in polarity between the exterior of the cell and the interior of the cell. The impulse then travels down the axon in one direction only, to the axon terminal where it signals to other neurons.
An action potential is b. an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron
An action potential is an electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron. It's a rapid change in voltage across the neuron's membrane that propagates a nerve impulse, essential for neuronal communication. This process is a fundamental component of neuronal communication. When a neuron receives a chemical signal or some form of stimulus, this leads to a sudden reversal in the electrical gradient across the neuron's membrane, initiating the action potential. This electrical signal travels rapidly down the neuron's axon as it conducts the nerve impulse. The phenomenon is marked by a swift change in voltage across the neuron's membrane, where sodium ions rush into the cell, causing the inside to become positively charged compared to the outside. This reversal triggers the signal to ripple down the axon, facilitating communication within the nervous system.
Ribosomes create, or synthesize, proteins through the use of DNA and RNA. Which of these is a step in protein synthesis? A. The ribosome starts decoding when it attaches to the mRNA. B. The ribosome moves down the mRNA strand from one codon to the next as the tRNA brings each corresponding amino acid. C. When the ribosome reads the last mRNA codon, it signals the end of translation. D. All of these
Answer:
all of these
Explanation:
All of these are steps in the general process of protein synthesis:
First, when the mRNA attaches to the ribosome, the ribosome starts decoding. Then, the ribosome moves down the mRNA strand from one codon to the next as the tRNA brings each corresponding amino acid. Finally, when the ribosome reads the last mRNA codon, it signals the end of translation.
This mechanism is virtually the same in all life forms.
Ribosomes create, or synthesize, proteins through the use of DNA and RNA. All of these are the steps in protein synthesis.
What is protein synthesis?The process of making proteins in a cell takes place at an intercellular structure called a ribosome, which is formed of both RNA and protein.
The messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence is read by the ribosome, which then converts the genetic code into a specific string of amino acids that develop into lengthy chains and fold to create proteins.
The biological machinery that produces proteins is known as a ribosome. Each cell contains several ribosomes, which are each composed of two subunits. These two subunits form a tight seal around the messenger RNA molecule before moving down its length and reading each three-letter codon.
Therefore, Ribosomes create, or synthesize, proteins through the use of DNA and RNA. All of these are the steps in protein synthesis.
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Match the terms. endoplasmic reticulum, cell wall, digestion, cytoplasm, centrioles, ingestion, ribosome, cellular respiration, Golgi bodies, nucleolus1. food vacuoles and lysosome 2. all cellular material outside the nucleus 3. transportation routes in cell 4. phagocytosis 5. ribosome production 6. production of protein 7. passive diffusion 8. produce and package secretions 9. plant cell 10. spindle production for cell division
Answer:
The correct matches are given below.
Explanation:
The answer for the correct matches of the given options for a cell are;
Ingestion - Food Vacuoles And Lysosome
Cytoplasm - All Cellular Material Outside The Nucleus
Endoplasmic Reticulum - Transportation Routes In Cell
Cell Wall - Phagocytosis
Nucleolus - Ribosome Production
Ribosome - Production Of Protein
Digestion - Passive Diffusion
Golgi Bodies - Produce And Package Secretions
Cellular Respiration - Plant Cell
Centrioles - Spindle Production For Cell Division
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
Ingestion Food Vacuoles And Lysosome
Cytoplasm All Cellular Material Outside The Nucleus
Endoplasmic Reticulum Transportation Routes In Cell
Cell Wall Phagocytosis
Nucleolus Ribosome Production
Ribosome Production Of Protein
Digestion Passive Diffusion
Golgi Bodies Produce And Package Secretions
Cellular Respiration Plant Cell
Centrioles Spindle Production For Cell Division
Explanation:
Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars. These organelles are found only in plants. Which organelles are found only in animals?
Answer: centrioles and lysosome
Explanation: centrioles are found in animals and most protists.
They usually occurs in pair and the pair is collectively called centrosome.
Centrioles are microtubules organizing center.they contain microtubules which controls the separation of chromosomes during cell division.they also help to produce spindles.
Centrioles provides functional internal structure of flagella and cilia
Lysosomes are vesicles that contains enzymes capable of digestion either food or dead cells.
Which condition would be most conducive to the evolution of sexual reproduction and recombination?
Answer:
A rapidly changing environment
Explanation:
The sexual reproduction is more advantageous to organism to survive in the harsh conditions due to the changes in the sequence of nucleotides of the genes which became a characteristic feature of the sexual mode of reproduction.
This process of changes in the sequence is known as recombination. The sexual mode or reproduction evolved in the last common ancestors of eukaryotes but it is known to occur in the prokaryotes also as they reproduce by conjugation, transformation and transduction.
The sexual mode of reproduction was evolved in the organism as a result of the change in the environment to survive and thrive in the environment.
How many molecules are formed from the cleavage of glucose during the first step of glycolysis?
Answer:
The correct answer is- 2 molecules with 3 carbons
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. In glycolysis, glucose is broken down in the absence of oxygen into two molecules of pyruvate which consists of three carbons.
So in glycolysis, glucose is partially oxidized into two molecules of pyruvate. Then in aerobic respiration, this glucose is fully oxidized into CO2 in kreb's cycle. Glucose is a six-carbon compound so it gives 2 molecule of 3 carbon compounds during the first step of glycolysis.
So during this partial oxidation of glucose 2 ATP and 2 NADH is produced with 2 molecule of pyruvate which is a 3 carbon compound.
NAD and FAD work by loading and unloading _________ and _________ during energy transfers.
Answer:
Hydrogen and electrons
Explanation:
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) serve as reducing power during energy transfers. One NAD+ accepts one hydrogen ions and two electrons and becomes reduced into NADH. Likewise, FAD accepts two hydrogen ions and two electrons and is reduced into FADH2. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 into NAD+ and FAD respectively releases both hydrogen ions and electrons.
For example, some of the energy of glucose released during glycolysis and Kreb's cycle is temporarily stored in the form of NADH and FADH2. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 via electron transfer chain of mitochondria releases both electrons and hydrogen ions (protons). The protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane to generate the proton concentration gradient.