Answer:
The sample was broken down by electric current and formed a new burnable substance The initial substance, then, is a compound.
Answer:
The sample was broken down by the electric current and formed a new substance that could burn. Therefore, the original liquid is a compound.
If a drug taken for one condition (e.g., bone loss) also inhibits smooth muscle contraction, what side effects might the drug have?
Answer:
Trouble swallowing (Dysphagia)
Explanation:
Trouble swallowing also known as dysphagia is caused by difficulty with nerves and muscles cells in the mouth and throat when swallowing drug substances. What literally happens when swallowing is that, the airways folds up and closes and breathing skips for a moment to allow push down of the substance down the oesophagus into the gut system. The push down is done by the floor of the tongue located at the ventral surface.
The ventral surface of the tongue consist of a stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium muscle cells which is smooth. When a drug taken for one condition (e.g., bone loss) and also inhibits smooth muscle contraction, it also affects the tongue thereby causing troubled swallowing.
The nurse determines that a client recently diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis understands discharge teaching upon which client statement?
Answer:
"I have to call my doctor so I can get antibiotics before seeing the dentist."
Explanation:
Once an individual is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis, there is a high risk for repeated episodes. Thus, such client is placed on Antibiotic prophylaxis before or after dental procedures so that this will prevent the client from having any further infections. Unless there is an evidence of heart failure, such patient has no routine restriction on sodium.
Inflammation of the normally air-filled middle ear with the accumulation of fluid and pus behind the tympanic membrane; occurring either unilaterally or bilaterallyTrue/false
Answer:
Inflammation of the normally air-filled middle ear with the accumulation of fluid and pus behind the tympanic membrane; occurring either unilaterally or bilaterally
True
Explanation:
Erica was supposed to be going to the prom this weekend; instead she is in bed. When her parents tell the pediatrician that Erica __________________, the pediatrician tells the parents to bring Erica in immediately to be evaluated for depression.
Answer: Erica was trying to end with her life
Explanation:
Thoughts and attempts of ending life are one of the most common symptoms of depression.
Depression is a mental illness that is characterized by a feeling of sadness and hopelessness that persists for most of the day. Other symptoms of depression are irritability, guilt, loss of interest in activities that the person enjoyed before, little contact with other people and sleeping for most of the day.
The reasons why a person can develop depression involves environmental and genetic factors. There is clinical evidence that people can inherit depression and be more likely to develop if one of their relatives had it. Regarding environmental factors, events such as the loss of a job or the lost of a loved one can lead to a person developing depression.
A person with depression has difficulty developing their daily activities. The symptoms of this mental illness can interfere with their work or with their studies, causing the person to lose interest and isolate themselves from others. The World Health Organization states that more than 300 million people around the world suffer from depression and will be the leading cause of disability in 2020.
Women are more likely to develop depression due to hormonal changes they experience such as the menstrual period and pregnancy.
A person who has depression does not want to be in that state but in turn, finds it difficult to overcome the symptoms of the disease. Depression is a mental illness that does not heal on its own, which needs urgent medical attention because if it is not treated, it can have serious consequences. Among the treatments for depression are those focused on psychological therapy and drug therapy, which will be applied by a mental health professional.
Yokow gets just enough calories from starchy foods, but his diet is very low in protein. He has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, and a rash on his skin. Yokow probably suffers from:_________A. Marasmus.B. Iron-deficiency anemia.C. Kwashiorkor.D. Nonorganic failure to thrive.
Answer: c) Kwashiorkor
Explanation:
Kwashiorkor is caused by a lack of protein in the diet. Every cell in your body contains protein. You need protein in your diet for your body to repair cells and make new cells.
The Yokow is suffering form Kwashiorkor due to lack of enough protein in the diet.
What is Kwashiorkor?Kwashiorkor is caused by a lack of protein in the diet. Every cell in your body contains protein and we know that we need protein in your diet for your body to repair cells and make new cells.
So we can conclude that the Yokow is suffering form Kwashiorkor due to lack of enough protein in the diet.
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The _________ to personality assumes that psychological processes are not just influenced by culture but are thoroughly culturally constituted.
Answer:
Cultural perspective.
Explanation:
The cross culture psychology may be defined as the psychology that studies humans behavior on the basis of their culture. The behavior and psychology of humans get change with the change in the culture.
The cultural perspective of the psychology determines the effect of the culture on the members the group. The cross culture is broad term as compared with the culture psychology. The culture psychology explains that psychology process are culturally constituted.
Thus, the answer is cultural perspective.
Answer:
The correct answer is - cultural perspective.
Explanation:
Cultural perspective is the thinking point of view which is based on the native environmental and social influence of an individual. The influence that culture and society have on the perspective.
This is the field of the theory that assumes that psychological process is not only influenced by society but are thoroughly culturally constituted.
Thus, the correct answer is - cultural perspective.
A nursing student is preparing a teaching plan about peptic ulcer disease. The student knows to include teaching about the percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding. The percentage is?
Answer:
15% to 20% of peptic ulcer patients suffer from bleeding.
Explanation:
Peptic ulcer disease is known due to the extreme pain characterized by dull, gnawing pain in the abdomen or in the back. It usually increases with eating. 15% to 20% of peptic ulcer patients also suffer through a bloody diarrhea. They experience bleeding through excretion.
It is important that bleeding is mentioned in the teaching plan because it is an important indicator of peptic ulcer getting worse.
Valerie has established that Mr. Goodman does not have a pulse and is not breathing, and she has exposed the chest. She must immediately begin CPR while Joanne retrieves and sets up the AED. Which actions should the team take to ensure that they are providing high-quality CPR?
Answer and explanation:
Following points should be kept in mind while doing or observing CPR.
1)Rate should be 100-120 compressions per minute.
2)Compression depth should be atleast 2 inches.
3)Push hard and fast.
4)Interruptions of almost 10 seconds
5)Give effective breaths to make the chest rise.
6)Ventilation.
The actions that should be taken by the team in order to ensure that they are providing high-quality CPR include:
There should be smooth compressions which should be at rate of 100 - 120 compressions in every minute.The chest should be fully allowed to recoil after every compression had been done.The interruptions in the compression should be reduced to less than 10 seconds.Excessive ventilation should be avoided.Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) refers to the emergency procedure that's performed on a person that has cardiac arrest. When the heart of a person stops, this is done in order to keep the blood flowing in the person's body and preserve the person from dying.
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A newly promoted nurse manager is studying the critical factors that are needed to be an effective leader according to situational-contingency theory. Which statement by the nurse manager indicates the need for further study?
Answer:
"The leader should provide specific feedback for positive performance."
"The leader should elicit feedback from peers, followers, and higher authority."
Explanation:
People with AIDS are most likely to suffer from:______. a. reduced cortisol levels. b. reduced lymphocyte levels. c. elevated oxytocin levels. d. elevated serotonin levels.
Answer:
The correct answer is b. reduced lymphocyte levels
Explanation:
Human immunodeficiency virus is responsible for causing a deadly disease called AIDS. This virus attacks our immune cells and weakens our immunity. T helper cells which are also known as CD4 cells are the main target of HIV.
It attacks T helper lymphocytes and get inside the Tcell. Then it gets incorporated into the DNA of CD4 cell and replicate itself and makes more copied of itself. Then it gets released from that cell and infects more T lymphocytes.
So in this way, it destroys T helper lymphocytes and reduces our immunity. So the correct answer is b.
Individuals with AIDS most likely suffer from reduced lymphocyte levels, significantly impairing their immune system's ability to fight infections and making them susceptible to opportunistic infections and cancers.
People with AIDS are most likely to suffer from reduced lymphocyte levels. AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, severely impacts the immune system by destroying CD4 T-cells, a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in the body's defense mechanisms. This destruction leads to a significant reduction in the body's ability to fight off infections and diseases, making individuals with AIDS more susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain types of cancers.
Lymphopenia, the term for reduced lymphocyte levels, is a hallmark of HIV progression to AIDS. The depletion of these critical immune cells is due to various mechanisms, including HIV-induced pyroptosis, a form of cell death that promotes inflammation, and the direct effects of the virus on CD4 T-cells. This decline in lymphocyte count signifies the immune system's impaired ability to respond effectively to pathogens, underlining the importance of lymphocytes in maintaining health.
The nursing instructor is discussing assessment of the head and neck with the class. What identifying characteristic would the instructor use for the thyroid cartilage?
Answer:
The notch on its superior edge
The thyroid cartilage is readily identified by the notch on its superior edge.
Explanation:
Thyroid cartilage also known as hyaline cartilage structure that sits in front of the larynx and above the thyroid gland.There are two composition of the cartilage or two halves which meet in the middle of the peak which is known as the also called the Adam's apple.It's important function is that it plays a vital role in the production of the human voice.Final answer:
The thyroid cartilage is the largest piece of cartilage in the larynx, noted for its laryngeal prominence or "Adam's apple" and a V-shaped structure that is more prominent in males.
Explanation:
The thyroid cartilage is a key identifying characteristic when assessing the head and neck. It is the largest piece of cartilage of the larynx, known for its shield-shaped structure made of hyaline cartilage. A distinctive feature of the thyroid cartilage is the laryngeal prominence, commonly referred to as the "Adam's apple," which is more pronounced in males, largely due to the effects of testosterone.
This cartilage consists of two V-shaped plates that meet in the front at the point of the laryngeal prominence. Inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the cricoid cartilage, which forms a complete ring and is also made of hyaline cartilage. The structure and positioning of the thyroid cartilage make it palpable and visible on the anterior aspect of the neck.
A client is exposed to second-hand smoke on a daily basis. The client asks if he is at risk for the development of cancer. The best response would be:
Answer: Generally we humans are predisposed to cancerous causing agent directly or indirectly
Explanation:
Cigarette smoking can cause cancer almost anywhere in the body. Cigarette smoking causes cancer of the mouth and throat, esophagus, stomach, colon, rectum, liver, pancreas, voicebox (larynx), trachea, bronchus, kidney and renal pelvis, urinary bladder, and cervix, and causes acute myeloid leukemia.
A ______________________ professional would most likely hold one of the following positions: cancer registrar, privacy officer, software analyst, or compliance officer.
Answer:
Registered Health Information Administrator (RHIA)
Explanation:
Health information administrators are responsible for the maintenance and security of all patient records. They have to be registered in RHIA for do this job. Recent federal government regulations require that all health care providers keep electronic records of their patients and that those records are safe. As a result, health information managers must keep up to date with information technology, as well as legal requirements. In addition, as patient data is used more frequently for quality management and medical research, health information managers must ensure that the databases are complete, accurate and available only to authorized personnel.
In collective practices, administrators work closely with doctors. While an administrator can deal with business issues in small medical groups, leaving policy decisions to the physicians themselves, larger groups usually employ a full-time administrator to help them formulate the strategies for business and coordinate daily activities.
Recall of what you have learned is often improved when your physical surroundings at the time of retrieval and encoding are the same. This best illustrates ________.
A) echoic memory.
B) the spacing effect.
C) context-dependent memory.
D) the serial position effect.
Answer:
Context-Dependent Memory
Explanation:
Connected-dependent memory refers to the enigmatic finding that people who learn material in a particular physiological state tend to remember the material better if they return to the same state they were during learning.
Dr. Grath believes that imitation and reinforcement contribute to language development. Dr. Grath’s views are most consistent with those of…
Final answer:
Dr. Grath's views on language development through imitation and reinforcement are most consistent with B. F. Skinner's reinforcement theory and Albert Bandura's social learning theory, highlighting a combination of environmental influences and biological predispositions in language acquisition.
Explanation:
Dr. Grath's belief that language development is influenced by imitation and reinforcement aligns with behaviorist B. F. Skinner's views. Skinner's well-known theory posits that language is learned through reinforcement and feedback, such as parental approval or comprehension in social interactions. Accordingly, simple phrases like "me juice" from a child are positively reinforced when a caregiver responds appropriately, enhancing language learning.
However, Noam Chomsky challenged this view, introducing the concept of an innate language acquisition device (LAD), suggesting that humans are biologically predisposed to learn language. Modern researchers bridge these theories, recognizing that language development is a complex interplay of nature and nurture.
Additionally, Albert Bandura's social learning theory underscores the importance of imitation and observational learning in acquiring not just language, but a range of behaviors and social norms. This context adds weight to theory that language learning is influenced by social and environmental factors, as well as biological predispositions, within a supportive cultural and societal framework.
A Chemical Hygiene Officer (CHO) is responsible for implementing, updating, and administering the Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The chemical hazard may be defined as the harmful effect of the particular chemical on the living organisms. The chemical hazard can cause mutation in DNA or can cause environmental pollution.
The chemical hygiene officer is the respected post that regulated the implementing and safety of the healthy hazard. The officer maintains the guidelines and made specific regulation regarding the use of the particular substance that can cause chemical hazard.
Thus, the answer is true.
Which of the following statements describes what an Accident and Health policyowner may NOT do?
File a covered claim
Assign ownership
Cancel the coverage
Adjust the premium payments
Answer:
Adjust the premium payments
An Accident and Health policyowner has several rights, but they cannot adjust the premium payments. These are determined by the insurance company.
Explanation:An Accident and Health policy owner has several rights, including the ability to file a covered claim, assign ownership, and cancel the coverage. However, one thing they can't do is adjust the premium payments. The premium payments are determined by the insurance company based on various factors such as age, health status, and type of coverage. The policyowner does not have the authority to make adjustments to these payments.
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People with ________ levels of cumulative adversity are healthier and better able to cope with recent misfortune than people with ________ levels of cumulative adversity.
Answer:
People with moderate levels of cumulative adversity are healthier and better able to cope with recent misfortune than people with high and low levels of cumulative adversity.
Explanation:
Mary Seeker carried out a study in which she measured cumulative diversity and its impact on health outcomes. The result of her study indicated that people that exhibited both high and low levels of cumulative diversity were connected to poor outcomes of health. On the other hand, people with moderate level of adversity were best off and coped better with recent misfortune.
Jolie has been experiencing increasingly frequent episodes of hostile behavior, memory loss, and violent outbursts. Upon examination, a doctor discovered that Jolie has suffered cellular loss in the basal ganglia and the cortex of her brain. This suggests that Jolie is suffering from _________ disease.
Answer:
Huntington's disease
Explanation:
Huntington's disease is also known as Huntington's chorea.
The symptoms and effect of this disease are
Lack of coordination sudden body movementsDifficulty in talkingThe cause of this disease is an autosomal dominant mutation of either an individual's two copies of a gene.
This individual's two copies of a gene is called as Huntingtin
After a cervical neck injury, a client is placed in a halo fixation device with a body cast. Which statement indicates the client’s concern about body image has been resolved successfully?
Answer:"I've gotten used to the brace. I may even miss it when it's gone."
Explanation:A halo fixation device is an external attachment for the upper thoracic spine and cervical parts of the spinal corded to immobilize your neck,it servesas a rigid frame and support that holds the head in a fixed position preventing movement around the head.
When Client admits that he or she has gotten used to the frame and can do without it,he has affirmed that his issues are resolved.
The health care provider documents in a client's medical record the statement "bizarre gesturing, decline in hygiene, and command hallucinations." Which action is most important for the nurse to take when caring for this client?
1. Note the quality and duration of the gestures.
2. Offer the client a fresh change of clothing.
3. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
4. Administer antipsychotic medication.
Answer:
The correct answer would be - option 3.
Explanation:
The client is experiencing a psychotic problem characterized by the weird gestures, bad hygiene and hallucination about commands or the voices. The nurse should work on the various aspects however the safety should be most important and priority.
If the bizarre gesture is obvious there is finding new symptoms are meaningless by noting the quality and time of gestures. Hygiene is essential but safety should be priority so asking about the voice commands and analyzing risk is most important.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 3.
If you wanted to improve your health by making better lifestyle choices, what should you do?
Answer:
improving my diet
doing physical exercise
You just finished a workout at the gym and ate a couple of eggs washed down with a chocolate soy protein drink. The dietary protein replenishes ___________ first.
Answer: Body Protein
Hope it helps youre welcome
Answer:
The body protein
Explanation:
After a work out, the protein replenished first when an individual takes in a high protein diet is the body protein.
Metabolic waste, such as excess sodium, appears in the __________, whereas food components that are not digested or absorbed, such as fiber, appear in the __________.
Answer:
Metabolic waste, such as excess sodium, appears in the _urine__, whereas food components that are not digested or absorbed, such as fiber, appear in the _stool_.
Explanation:
Urine includes metabolic waste. Metabolic waste consists of compounds, such as excess sodium, which have been absorbed out of the cells, blood, and elsewhere by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Stool contains non-digested or ingested products, such as fiber or a paperclip. Such objects travel into the large intestines, where the body extracts water and minerals, and stores the remains as stool
Answer: URINE;STOOL
Explanation: Metabolic wastes are wastes generated after the CATABOLISM (the breakdown of foods). These wastes are appears in forms of micro substances like excess Sodium and others like magnesium are sent out after FILTRATION by the KIDNEYS.
Foods that are not digested ( they are not broken down) through the CATABOLISM are removed from the body through the STOOL. Example include FIBRES.
In a study of a disease in which all cases that developed were ascertained, if the relative risk for the association between a factor and the disease is equal to or less than 1.0, then:a. There is no association between the factor and the diseaseb. The factor protects against development of the diseasec. Either matching or randomization has been unsuccessfuld. The comparison group used was unsuitable, and a valid comparison is not possiblee. There is either no association or a negative association between the factor and the disease
Answer:
The correct option is E: There is either no association or a negative association between the factor and the disease
Explanation:
Relative risk is a ratio that compares the risk of a health event between two groups. When the relative risk is 1, this means that the risk among the two groups are identical. When the relative risk is more than one, this means there is an increased risk for the exposed group. A risk ratio of less than 1, means that there is decreased exposure, which means negative association, which implies that exposure protect against the disease. Hence from the question, a value of relative risk less than or equal to one signifies no association or negative association.
A client hospitalized for heart failure is receiving digoxin and will continue taking the drug after discharge. What should be included in the plan of care for the next few days?
Answer:
Taking the apical pulse before drug administration and teaching the client how to count the pulse.
Explanation:
The British National Formulary (BNF) and Micromedex suggest the assessment of apical pulse before administration of digoxin. An apical pulse of < 60 beats-per-minute (bpm) is the assessment where digoxin shall be withheld and taken only after approval of physician. A low pulse is referred to as bradycardia which is indicated to cause digoxin toxicity and heart block. Hence, sinus bradycardia and slow ventricular rate is correlated with digoxin toxicity in patients.
The period of sleep during which the brain is very active, voluntary muscle activity becomes suppressed, there is considerable physiological arousal, and one's eyes move back and forth under closed eyelids is called:___________
Answer:
REM Sleep
Explanation:
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep may be defined as the sleep that involves the rapid and random movement of the eyes. The muscle tone gets low during the REM sleep.
The brain is quite active and desynchronized brain waves are recorded in the REM sleep. The individual brain is quite active as the awake person's mind during REM sleep.
Thus, the correct answer is REM sleep.
Which term describes therapeutic care that eliminates or minimizes the psychological and physical distress experienced by children and families?
Answer: Atraumatic Care
Explanation:
Atraumatic care refers to a care approach which eliminates or reduces the psychological and physical disorder experienced by children and their families in the health care system. This is usually inflicted by an illness or health promotion.
Humanlike features start to develop around 9 weeks after conception. What is the developing human called at this point in development?
Answer: Fetus
Explanation:
Anya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Anya's brain development will likely be ______.a. the same as peers raised in enriched environments.b. greater than peers raised in enriched environments.c. depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
d. greater than her biological parents.
Answer:
c. depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
Explanation:
Anya is growing up in an orphanage and receives very little emotional, mental, or physical stimulation and nurturing. Anya's brain development will likely be depressed compared to peers raised in enriched environments.
This is because the other peers are getting more stimulus and nutrition that is important for the development and upbringing of the a healthy and active mind.