The anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary differ in that _____.

the posterior lobe of the pituitary operates independently of the brain whereas the anterior lobe is directly dependent on brain activity
the anterior lobe of the pituitary is nervous tissue that connects directly to the brain whereas the posterior pituitary is derived from non-neural tissues
the anterior lobe of the pituitary receives neuronal impulses from brain cells whereas the posterior lobe receives blood-borne hormones
the posterior pituitary gland synthesizes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone whereas the anterior lobe receives all of its hormone products in the blood
many anterior pituitary hormones regulate other endocrine glands whereas posterior pituitary hormones regulate nonendocrine tissues

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

many anterior pituitary hormones regulate other endocrine glands whereas posterior pituitary hormones regulate nonendocrine tissues

Explanation:

Anterior pituitary or adenohypophysis is the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Secretion of endocrine cells of the anterior pituitary is controlled by regulatory hormones released by hypothalamus. The hypothalamic releasing hormones bind to anterior pituitary endocrine cells, upregulating or downregulating their release of hormones. Anterior pituitary hormones stimulate endocrine glands: FSH and LH (ovaries and testes), TSH (thyroid), and ACTH (adrenal cortex).

Posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis is the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It  is not glandular it is just a collection of axonal projections from the hypothalamus. Posterior pituitary hormones regulate nonendocrine tissues: ADH-vasopressin (kidney tubules) and oxytocin (mammary glands, uterine tissues, brain).


Related Questions

please help me with this question

image attached

Answers

ur answer is gametophyte

Most people with hemophilia are: a. Female c. Elderly b. From southeast Asia d. Male Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

D. Male. Why this is, is because it is hereditary and mostly the males are the ones that get it.

Answer:

a

Explanation:

How many atp equivalents are consumed in the conversion of each of the following to a glucosyl residue in glycogen?

Answers

Answer;

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate - 1

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate - 1

Pyruvate - 13

G-6-P - 1

Explanation;

1) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate = 1

G1P + GTP --> UDPG + PPi two P is equivalent to 2 ATP --->2 ADP + Pi) Therefore, two ATP equivalents - but UDP is the product and only one P needed

2 DHAP --> F1,6-BP -->F6P --> G6P -->G1P -->UDPG --> glucosyl residue

2) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate = 1

3) Pyruvate = 13

2 pyr + 2 ATP --> 2 OAA

2 OAA + 2 GTP --> 2 PEP

2 PEP --> 2 2PG --> 2 3PG

2 3PG + 2 ATP --> 2 1,3 BPG

2 1,3 BPG + 2 NADH --> 2 G3P

2 NADH = 6 ATP

2 G3P --> DHP + G3P --> FDP -- > F6P + P

F6P --> G6P --> G1P

G1P + UTP --> UDPG + PP

4) Glucose-6-phosphate = 1

G6P -->G1P G1P + UTP --> UDP-GLC + 2 Pi

UDP-Glc + glycogen --> glycogen+ 1 Glc

What is a potential negative consequence of using genetically engineered medicine

Answers

gene markers resistant to antibiotics can lead to a increased risk in humans developing a resistance to an antibiotic.

Answer:

The genetically engineered medicines could lead to an unforeseen threat to the environment, that is, the biggest challenge is the capriciousness of the genetically engineered species. For example, a modified vaccine or virus may recombine its DNA with those of the naturally occurring species. The outcomes could have random features and may result in a threat of health hazards like antibiotic resistance or epidemics.

where would a mutation need to occur for it to be passed onto offspring

Answers

reproductive cells like eggs and sperm

Recessive sex-linked traits such as color blindness appears less frequently in females because A Females have fewer sex chromosomes B females do not carry alleles for sex-linked alleles C females do not transmit sex-linked alleles D females inherit two sex-linked alleles

Answers

its D

colorblidness is carried on the X cromasome. since it is resessive it can be covered up. woman have 2 X cromasomes so both have to have it or she wont be color blind. men only have one X cromasome so its more likely that their just one X can have it

All energy in any ecosystem starts as A) carbohydrates. B) electricity. C) sunlight. D) water.

Answers

the answer would be C, sunlight

Answer:

The correct answer is option C. sunlight.

Explanation:

The Sun is the main source of energy for organisms, as the light energy or solar energy, the ecosystems.  

Producers are autotrophs such as plants, and algae use the energy from solar light to make organic matter from water and carbon dioxide through the process of photosynthesis.

Hence, this establishes the initiating of energy flow through almost all ecosystems and food web.

Thus, the correct answer is option C. sunlight.

Suppose a mutation occurs in the gene encoding eukaryotic rna polymerase i, ii, or iii that renders that polymerase non-functional. match each rna polymerase mutation with all of the cellular processes that it would disrupt.

Answers

RNA polymerase (green) creates RNA by adhering to a DNA strand.An enzyme called RNA polymerase is in charge of converting a DNA sequence into an RNA sequence during transcription.

What is the function of a polymerase?

Three distinct RNA polymerases (RNAPs), which transcribe various kinds of genes, are present in all eukaryotes.RRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, and snoRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II, while tRNA and 5S rRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase III.The genes that encode the structural RNAs for the ribosome subunits are translated by RNA polymerase I.A fraction of short RNAs as well as the genes that encode proteins are both transcribed by RNA polymerase II. The crucial enzyme responsible for converting the genetic data stored in DNA to RNA is known as RNA polymerase (RNAP). Three distinct RNA polymerases (RNAPs), which transcribe various kinds of genes, are present in all eukaryotes.RRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I, mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, and snoRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase II, while tRNA and 5S rRNA genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase III. Separate RNA polymerases are present in chloroplasts and mitochondria, where they specifically transcribe the DNAs of those organelles. These RNA polymerases are comparable to bacterial RNA polymerases. Two enzymes that function on DNA are DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase.The enzyme used in DNA replication is called DNA polymerase, whereas the enzyme utilized in transcription is called RNA polymerase.Phosphodiester linkages can be created by both enzymes between nucleotides.5' to 3' is the range in which polymerization occurs. Primases, specialized enzymes, are often responsible for producing the RNA primers needed for DNA replication.However, several replication systems have developed to synthesize primers using cellular DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. DNA polymerase I is a protein that aids in bridging DNA gaps created during DNA replication, repair, and recombination. DNA polymerase is an enzyme that breaks down DNA.The leading strand will no longer replicate if DNA polymerase I is not active. Pseudogenes are alleles of healthy genes that have developed mutations that have rendered them non-functional. For instance, the protein coding region may have an early stop codon, a frameshift mutation, an internal deletion, or an internal insertion as compared to the healthy sequence.  DNA polymerases' major function is to efficiently and properly replicate the genome in order to maintain the genetic code and ensure that it is faithfully passed down through the generations.

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Defects in RNA polymerase I can be inferred if there's decreased nucleolar activity, unchanged mRNA and tRNA levels, and insensitivity to alpha-amanitin because this polymerase is responsible for rRNA synthesis which is essential for ribosome function and protein synthesis.

If a scientist observes that a cell has an RNA polymerase deficiency preventing it from making proteins, three additional observations that would support the conclusion that a defect in RNA polymerase I activity, rather than the other polymerases, are causing the defect could be:

Observation of a decrease in the nucleolar size or activity, because RNA polymerase I is primarily found in the nucleolus and is responsible for synthesizing most of the rRNAs.Detection of normal levels of mRNA and tRNA transcription, suggesting that RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase III are functioning correctly, as these polymerases transcribe protein-coding genes and tRNA respectively.The cell's insensitivity to the toxin alpha-amanitin, as RNA polymerase I is insensitive to this toxin, while RNA polymerase II is highly sensitive, and RNA polymerase III has moderate sensitivity.

Together, these observations would point towards a malfunction in RNA polymerase I as the cause of the protein synthesis deficiency.

A taxon that does not include the last common ancestor of all its members is a _____ group.

Answers

A monophyletic taxon is also called a clade. Paraphyletic taxon : A group composed of a collection of organisms, including the most recent common ancestor of all those organisms. Unlike a monophyletic group, a paraphyletic taxon does not include all the descendants of the most recent common ancestor.

Does this help?

What are the main causes of deforestation?
Check all that apply!!

A) air pollution
B) mining
C) cattle ranching
D) water pollution
E) logging

Answers

Answer:

B) mining

C) cattle ranching

E) logging

Explanation:

Deforestation is the process of destroying a forest and replacing it with something else, especially by an agricultural system. Deforestation is done to make land available for other uses such as plantations and pastures. The main causes of deforestation are mining, logging and cattle ranching. Other causes include agriculture (cash crops), oil and gas extraction, development (housing and urbanization) and lack of law enforcement.

Answer:

B) mining

C) cattle ranching

E) logging

Explanation:

On a camping trip, eleni accidentally steps on a hot coal from the campfire. upon touching the coal, her foot reflexively withdraws from the coal. what is the sequence of response in eleni's neurons?

Answers

sensory neuron-inter-neuron

Final answer:

The withdrawal reflex that caused Eleni to retract her foot utilizes a reflex arc, starting with nociceptors detecting high temperature and culminating in the contraction of muscles leading to foot withdrawal, without the need for brain input.

Explanation:

The Sequence of Response in Neurons During the Withdrawal Reflex

When Eleni accidentally steps on a hot coal and her foot reflexively withdraws, this is an example of the withdrawal reflex. The sequence of response in the neurons involves the following steps:

High temperature is sensed by nociceptors in the skin of Eleni's foot, which are specialized sensory receptors for detecting painful stimuli.These receptors initiate a nerve impulse that is carried by sensory neurons to the spinal cord.Within the spinal cord, the impulse is transferred to interneurons, which process the information.The interneurons then synapse with motor neurons, which send the impulse out to the muscles in Eleni's foot.The muscles affected, such as the tibialis anterior, contract, causing dorsiflexion of the foot - this is the motor response that leads to the withdrawal of the foot from the hot coal.Inhibition of opposing muscles, like the gastrocnemius and soleus, prevents further plantar flexion and potential injury.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about gamete formation in mammals?A. Only one of the four cells resulting from meiosis goes on to become an oocyte.B. In the female, the separation of cytoplasm is unequal during meiosis.C. The polar bodies formed during meiosis in the female can participate in fertilization with sperm.D. Only one of the four cells resulting from meiosis goes on to become an egg, which becomes a zygote upon fertilization by a sperm cell.E. The cytoplasm is diminished during development of sperm, and a flagellum is formed to give sperm locomotion.

Answers

thanks again and again I will give it to you

Final answer:

The statement that polar bodies can participate in fertilization with sperm is not true. In oogenesis, polar bodies are reabsorbed and do not engage in fertilization. Spermatogenesis results in mature sperm cells with locomotion for fertilization, while oogenesis yields one viable ovum that can form a zygote upon fertilization.

Explanation:

Among the given statements about gamete formation in mammals, the one that is NOT true is C. The polar bodies formed during meiosis in the female can participate in fertilization with sperm. During oogenesis, the unequal division of cytoplasm results in the creation of one large ovum and smaller polar bodies. These polar bodies do not participate in fertilization and are eventually broken down and reabsorbed by the body.

In contrast, spermatogenesis results in four haploid spermatids from a primary spermatocyte, each going on to form a mature sperm cell capable of fertilization. The mature sperm cells are characterized by a compact head and a flagellum providing locomotion, which is essential for reaching and fertilizing the ovum.

When fertilization does occur, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II, giving rise to a viable ovum and a second polar body, which also does not participate in fertilization. The fusion of sperm and the mature ovum forms a zygote with the necessary genetic material to develop into a new organism.

Water is extracted from digested food in the body primarily by the

Answers

the large intestine primarily

What makes pelicans and penguins different?
a. pelicans are flightless birds.
b. pelicans spend about three-quarters of their lives in the water.
c. penguins have large bills with a loose and elastic pouch.
d. penguins have wings shaped for swimming.

Answers

D penguins have wings shaped for swimming

Answer:

Penguins have wings shaped for swimming

Explanation:

got it right on the exam

If you have type O blood, what your possible genotypes?

Answers

Their genotype is either AA or AO

Which of the following combinations correctly matches a phylum to its description?
Platyhelminthes – radial symmetry, polyp and medusa body forms
Echinodermata – bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system
Cnidaria – flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, acoelomate
Nematoda – segmented worms, closed circulatory system

Answers

Answer:

Echinodermata – bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system

Explanation:

Echinodermata are marine animals that include groups such as sea stars, sea urchins, sand dollars, sea cucumbers, and sea lilies. As adults they have radial symmetry, usually five point radial symmetry. One of their unique characteristic is water vascular system which consists of a network of fluid-filled canals involved in gas exchange, feeding, sensory reception and locomotion. Their digestive and nervous systems are very simple.

The study of animals is called zoology.

The correct answer to the question is option B which is Echinodermata – bilateral symmetry as a larva, water vascular system.

What is bilateral symmetry?

When a species has two equal halves when it cut through the specific plane is called bilateral symmetry.

According to the question, the Echinodermata has bilateral symmetry and consists of a water vascular system that helps to move in any direction.

An example of the Echinodermata is starfish.

Hence, the correct answer to the question is option B.

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Body parts of organisms that are similar in structure but not in function is called what

Answers

Similar body parts may be homologies or analogies. Both provide evidence for evolution. Homologous structures are structures that are similar in related organisms because they were inherited from a common ancestor. These structures may or may not have the same function in the descendants. Analogies is a comparison between two things, typically for the purpose of explanation or clarification.

Final answer:

Body parts of organisms that are similar in structure but serve different functions are called homologous structures. These are crucial for understanding evolutionary relationships, in contrast to analogous structures, which look similar due to similar environmental adaptations rather than shared ancestry.

Explanation:

The body parts of organisms that are similar in structure but different in function are known as homologous structures. For instance, the bones in a whale's flipper are homologous to those in the human arm, showcasing similar embryonic origins, but they perform different functions. These structures can often provide significant clues to the evolutionary history of an organism. However, it is crucial to differentiate between homologous and analogous structures, which are similar due to convergent evolution and environmental constraints, not a common ancestry. For example, the wings of a bird and those of a butterfly are analogous, as they serve the same function of flight, but do not derive from a common ancestor.

Comparative anatomy plays a pivotal role in the study of both homologous and analogous structures, offering insights into evolutionary changes and the adaptive nature of species. Vestigial structures, such as the wings on flightless birds or hind leg bones in whales, are also a focus within this field, as they are remnants that suggest a different use in an ancestor.

What happens as a result of ion flow at a presynaptic terminal?

Answers

The correct answer is: Release of neurotrasmitters from the synaptic vesicles  

Action potential travels through the membrane of the presynaptic cell causing the channels permeable to calcium ions to open. Ca2+ flow through the presynaptic membrane and increase the Ca concentration in the cell which will activate proteins attached to vesicles that contain a neurotransmitter (e.g. acetylcholine), Vesicles fuse with the membrane of the presynaptic cell, thereby release their contents into the synaptic cleft-space between the membranes of the pre- and postsynaptic cells.

TRUE OR FALSE
1. Oxygen is absorbed into the bloodstream in the trachea?
2. The bronchial tubes branch off from the trachea like an upside-down letter Y.

Answers

1) False. Oxygen is absorbed in the alveoli of the lungs

2) True. The bronchial tubes branch off into the lungs which then branch off into the smaller bronchi and even smaller bronchioles.

The gene for curled ears (C) is dominant over the gene for straight ears (c). What percent of the offspring would be expected to have curled ears as a result of a cross between a heterozygous cat (Cc) and a straight eared cat (cc) ? 100% 75% 50% 25%

Answers

you can find your answer by making a punnet square, but the correct answer is 50%

The percent of the offspring with curled ears as a result of a mating between Cc x cc is 50%.

What is a Punnett square?

A Punnett square is a graphical representation of the gametic combinations after a genetic mating.

The Punnett square can be useful to obtain the genotypic and phenotypic proportions from a cross.

In conclusion, the percent of the offspring with curled ears as a result of a mating between Cc x cc is 50%.

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Cellular respiration produces ______ from ________. organic molecules are a source of ______ energy that cellular respiration transfers into _____ and transforms into _____. carbon dioxide and water; oxygen and sunlight; kinetic; usable chemical energy in the form of glucose; heat energy that the cell can use to do work carbon dioxide and water; organic molecules and oxygen; chemical potential; usable chemical energy in the form of atp; heat energy that cannot do work glucose and oxygen; carbon dioxide and water; chemical potential; usable chemical energy in the form of atp; heat energy that cannot do work

Answers

Final answer:

Cellular respiration produces ATP from organic molecules (such as sugars) and oxygen. The process transforms the energy in these molecules into a usable form that cells can use to perform work, with carbon dioxide and water being byproducts of this process.

Explanation:

Cellular respiration produces ATP from organic molecules and oxygen. Organic molecules such as sugars are sources of chemical potential energy which cellular respiration transfers into usable chemical energy, in the form of ATP, and transforms into heat energy. Cellular respiration is primarily achieved through glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. This process oxidizes glucose molecules to create ATP. It is part of a biological cycle, functioning in harmony with photosynthesis, to allow organisms to access life-sustaining energy.

Energy in ATP molecules is easily accessible and cells use it to perform various forms of work including building complex molecules, transporting materials, and powering different motions. Carbon dioxide and water are byproducts of this process rather than waste products, as they are often used in other biological reactions.

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What Mineral Property that is very easy to observe but is one of the most unreliable to use for identification?

A) Luster
B) Color
C) Hardness
D) Streak
E) Cleavage

Answers

The answer is B. Color

The answer, I believe, is B, Color

Which form of reproduction results in the highest degree of genetic variation among offspring?

Answers

The correct answer is:  sexual reproduction

Sources of genetic variation are different:

• Genetic mutations-random and rare events that occur within the genome and contribute to variations among individuals (or population). Mutations might be neutral, harmful or beneficial when they form new alleles favored by natural selection.

• Crossing over (genetic recombination)-event that occur during the meiosis (cell division that creates gametes)

• Random segregation during meiosis

• Random fertilization

• External source such as transposable genetic elements or retroviruses.

The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates _____.A) secretionB) absorptionC) filtrationD) temperature regulation

Answers

D) temperature regulation

Which of the following statements about insulin or its effects on the body are true?

Select all that apply.

Insulin enters the cytoplasm of cells, signaling the nucleus to make more glucose.

A net result of insulin is that body cells take up fewer glucose molecules.

When releasing insulin, the pancreas is acting as an endocrine gland.

Insulin binds to receptor proteins found in the cell membranes of many types of body cells.

Answers

Answer:

When releasing insulin, the pancreas is acting as an endocrine gland.Insulin binds to receptor proteins found in the cell membranes of many types of body cells.

Explanation:

Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the blood. This is the case for the pancreas that releases insulin into the blood to regulate blood sugars. Most cells in the body have insulin receptors. However, liver and muscle cells have many of them. This allows these cells to uptake glucose and stores them as glycogen for use when energy is required in high demand.

The true statements about insulin or its effects on the body are: When releasing insulin, the pancreas is acting as an endocrine gland. Insulin binds to receptor proteins found in the cell membranes of many types of body cells, hence options C, and D are correct.

The islets of Langerhans release insulin when blood sugar levels increase, as they do after eating.

This hormone facilitates the body's cells' ability to absorb sugar from the circulation. Along with preventing the liver from creating additional sugar, insulin also enables the liver and muscles to retain sugar.

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A 7 year old child is admitted to a hospital with jaundice but released when the doctors learn that the child recently drank a lot of sunny d and carrot juice. explain what jaundice is, what caused it in this case, what other problems may jaundice indicate and why he was ultimately released.

Answers

so confused on that question

Which statement is correct concerning the relationship between chromosomes and genes, chromatin, or sister chromatids?

Genes are the DNA - protein material that make up entire chromosomes.
Each unreplicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
Chromatin is a length of DNA in a chromosome that codes for a protein or RNA.

Answers

The correct answer is: Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.

Mitosis is the cell division of somatic cells (all cells except gametes) in which mother cell produce two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as she had.

During the S phase of interphase, replication occurs and the genetic material of a cell is duplicated. There are still the same number of chromosomes (e.g. in humans 46) but they exist in a X shape structure-two sister chromatids (genetically identical). So, there are 46 chromosomes, but 92 chromatids. Sister chromatids separate during the anaphase of mitosis and each chromatid is then considered a separate, individual chromosome. After division and cytokinesis, the normal chromosome number is restored to the cell.

Which body system is responsible for breaking down food molecules so that they are small enough to be used by cells?

excretory system

endocrine system

digestive system

circulatory system

Answers

The answer is Digestive system and Circulatory system.
It is the Digestive system

The immune response requires a team effort. How do the specific and non-specific defenses work together? EXPLAIN YOUR ANSWER.

Answers

A non-specific immune response (also called immunity) is antigen-independent while a specific immune response is antigen-dependent. The examples of the non-specific immunity are fever, phagocytosis by macrophages, skin and mucus.  The example of the specific immune response is cytotoxic T-cells able to recognize antigens on infected cells and kill them before the infection could spread.

What should be true of fossils of the earliest tetrapods?

A) They should show evidence of internal fertilization.

B) They should show evidence of having produced shelled eggs.

C) They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land.

D) They should be transitional forms with the fossils of chondrichthyans that lived at the same time.

E) They should feature the earliest indications of the appearance of jaws.

Answers

C) They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land.

Final answer:

The earliest tetrapod fossils should primarily display limited adaptations for a terrestrial lifestyle, such as primitive limbs structured for swimming rather than walking. Other developments, like internal fertilization and shelled eggs, are important in tetrapod evolution but may not be evident in the very earliest fossils.

Explanation:

Fossils of the earliest tetrapods should primarily indicate limited adaptation to life on land. This is because tetrapods were the first vertebrates to make the critical evolutionary leap from water to land, and thus their initial adaptations to a terrestrial lifestyle would not have been highly refined. The earliest tetrapods, for instance, may still have had limbs structured for swimming rather than walking, and may not yet have fully developed structures like feet with digits.

While internal fertilization and the production of shelled eggs are notable developments in the evolution of tetrapods, these features may not necessarily be evident in the earliest tetrapod fossils, as they represent subsequent adaptations for terrestrial life. Similarly, jaw's appearance and transitional forms with chondrichthyans are not exclusively related to the initial transition of tetrapods to land life.

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