Answer:Claims management
Explanation: claims management is the term used to describe the processes and steps taken both legal and administrative to ensure a health management organization pays or caters for the bills incurred during the treatment,care for incidents, occurrence or malpractice. Claims management involves both the healthcare provider,the Insurance company and the policyholder ( the subscriber) claims management is guided by Law.
Answer:
Claims management.
Explanation:
Claims management means handling matters related to customers or third parties bringing a claim against a party or claims by a party against customers or third parties, including investigations, litigation support, and settlements.
Where should a constricting band be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite?
Answer:
Two inches above and two inches below the bite.
Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus is the ______ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
a. first
b. second
c. fourth
d. seventh
Answer:
D. Seventh.
Explanation:
In 2015, 30.3 million Americans, or 9.4% of the population, had diabetes.
Approximately 1.25 million American children and adults have type 1 diabetes.
Undiagnosed: Of the 30.3 million adults with diabetes, 23.1 million were diagnosed, and 7.2 million were undiagnosed.
Prevalence in seniors: The percentage of Americans age 65 and older remains high, at 25.2%, or 12.0 million seniors (diagnosed and undiagnosed).
New cases: 1.5 million Americans are diagnosed with diabetes every year.
Prediabetes: In 2015, 84.1 million Americans age 18 and older had prediabetes.
Deaths: Diabetes remains the 7th leading cause of death in the United States in 2015, with 79,535 death certificates listing it as the underlying cause of death, and a total of 252,806 death certificates listing diabetes as an underlying or contributing cause of death.
The nurse caring for a 24-year-old woman admitted with pneumonia explains how antibiotics work to help cure her pneumonia. Which statement would be correct about how antibiotic therapy works?
Answer:
The antibiotics should be taken correctly, respecting the times of take, the doses and the days of the treatment; otherwise the bacteria could not be eliminate and develop the disease again.
Explanation:
Pneumonia is an infection that settle in the lungs. They may affect the region of the pulmonary alveoli where the terminal branches of the bronchi and sometimes the interstices (space between one alveolus and the other) emerge. Basically, pneumonia is caused by the penetration of an infectious or irritating agent (bacteria, viruses, fungi and allergic reactions) into the alveolar space, where gas exchange occurs. This location should always be very clean, free of substances that could prevent air from contacting the blood. Some symptoms of the disease are: high fever, dry or yellowish or greenish cough, shortness of breath and difficulty breathing.
Treatment of pneumonia requires the use of antibiotics and improvement usually occurs within three or four days.
If the person begins to feel better and discontinues the treatment, theres a high chance for the bacteria to return with more resistance to the body, and may even aggravate the initial situation. The drug kills nonresistant bacteria, left over resistant ones. So its important to not interrupt the treatment.
_________was treaed for hypertnesion prior to applying for a major medical pplicy. as te producer who is writitng the replacing policy what should you tell________
Answer:
Health insurance may be defined as the policy that might covers the the risk of the individual medical expense. The monthly or yearly premium is submitted by the individual to avail the benefit of the health insurance.
The policy can be replaced in the limited circumstances only. The insurer must tell him that the hyper tension can only be considered as the pre-existing condition. This conditions is not enough to get cover under the new health policy.
When she prepares food, Felicia wants to use a product that is a rich source of'unsaturated fat. Based on this information, which of the following fats should she select?
Answer:
Olive oil
Explanation:
Olive oil reduces risk of heart disease because of its monosaturated fat content. Along with this heart-healthy fat, extra virgin olive also contains polyphenols which act as antioxidants, reducing the oxidative stress throughout your body.
A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn has just been admitted to the nursery. Nursing assessment reveals a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, and irregular respirations. With which condition are these signs associated?a. Hypervolemiab. Hypoglycemiac. Hypercalcemiad. Hypothyroidism
Answer:
Hypoglycemia
Explanation:
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia in newborns are
1) Jitteriness
2) low body temperature
3) poor feeding
4) seizures
Hypoglycemia is relate to the situations in which sugar level down to normal level. The symptoms for Hypoglycemia include confusion, trouble in talking, seizure, etc.
Hypoglycemia is caused due to high intake of insulin and sudden low of sugar level.
Which program offers nutrition screenings at no cost?
A) food distribution centers
B) Meals on Wheels
C) SNAP
D) workplace wellness programs
Answer:
D is the correct answer
Explanation:
workplace wellness programs
A client on a psychiatric unit who has been hearing voices is receiving a neuroleptic medication for the first time. The client takes the cup of water and the pill and stares at them. What is the most therapeutic statement the nurse can make?
1 "You have to take your medicine."2 "This is the medication that your doctor ordered."3 "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it."4 "There must be a reason that you don't want to take your medicine."
Answer:
3. "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it" Will be the most therapeutic statement made by the nurse to the client in the psychiatric unit.
Explanation:
A psychiatric patient hears voices or has auditory verbal hallucinations due to psychotic disorders like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder etc. Patients with psychosis tend to hear voices which are not real but can either talk to them or command them to do something, mostly harmful things.
Neuroleptic medications are antipsychotics which help to treat psychotic disorders. Hence in order to treat the auditory hallucinatory symptoms and treat the client from hearing voices, the client should take the pill.
Final answer:
The most therapeutic response to a client hesitant to take their first dose of neuroleptic medication is to explain how the medication can help alleviate their symptoms and encourage them to take it.
Explanation:
When a client on a psychiatric unit who has been hearing voices is receiving a neuroleptic medication for the first time and hesitates to take it, the most therapeutic response would be option 3: "This will help you not to hear the voices. It will only work if you take it." This statement is supportive, informative, and directly addresses the client's symptoms, providing a clear rationale for taking the medication which aligns with the client's likely desire to alleviate their symptoms. It's also couched in positive terms, which can help motivate the client to take action in their treatment.
3.
what's the definition for Psychosomatic response
Any cause of stress
Reaction an individual may go through after a loss
state of calm
Physical reaction that results from stress
A Psychosomatic response is a physical reaction produced by the body in response to stress or emotional factors. It is legit and can lead to serious health consequences if not recognized and treated properly.
Explanation:The definition for Psychosomatic response is a physical reaction that an individual experiences as a result of stress or emotional upset. This term is derived from the words 'psyche' meaning mind, and 'soma' meaning body, underlining the connection between these two aspects. For instance, stress might manifest as a psychosomatic response in the form of headaches, upset stomach, or even more serious conditions like heart disease. It's important to remember that even though these symptoms are often triggered or worsened by emotional factors, they are real and can have serious health consequences if not addressed.
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The completion of __________ form is needed to document your voluntary request for termination of Medicare coverage as permitted under the Code of Federal Regulations. Section 1838(b) and 1818A(c)(2)(B) of the Social Security Act require filing of notice advising the Administration when termination of Medicare coverage is requested. While you are not required to give your reasons for requesting termination, the information given will be used to document your understanding of the effects of your request.
Answer:
CMS 1763 (Request of Termination for Premium Hospital and/ Supplementary Medical Insurance)
Explanation:
The CMS 1763 is a form that is granted to people who wish to terminate or end their premium hospital and/ medical insurance. They could either terminate the hospital insurance alone or the medical insurance alone and could also terminate both. The end dates of both insurances have to be inputted. The request is filed by writing down the name of the enrollee as well as his medical number. It could also be executed by another person other than the enrollee. You may or may not provide the reasons for termination but you have to make sure that you've fully understood the whole contract termination. It requires two witnesses who will also write down their addresses.
Clarisse and Cindy are honor students who conduct themselves in a mature manner at the Christian college they attend in Philadelphia. This year for spring break, they decided to go to Cancun, where they auditioned for the "Girls Gone Wild" video. Which statement best describes the probable reason behind the behavior of Clarisse and Cindy?
a. Clarisse and Cindy unintentionally broke a taboo due to the stress, authoritarianism, and strict regime involved in Christian education.
b. Clarisse and Cindy considered themselves on a moral holiday, which permitted them to "let their hair down."
c. Clarisse and Cindy were evil-spirited at heart and their true behavior surfaced in Cancun.
d. Clarisse pushed Cindy, or Cindy pushed Clarisse, into violating their Christian norms and deciding to "go wild."
Answer:
B. Clarisse and Cindy considered themselves on a moral holiday, which permitted them to "let their hair down"
Explanation:
The first statement alleged they auditioned for the video because they broke some taboo due to stress, which is false because the text clearly stated they conducted themselves in a mature manner and if it is to be believed, someone conducting themselves maturely would not break some taboo and if they were to do so mistakenly, they wouldn't lash out by instead they'd be remorseful.
This makes B the most likely scenario, they'd feel doing the video in the summer and no big deal since they've been good in school and are currently on vacation so they'd feel they've earned it.
C and D were not considered because there was no hint of any in the text and it is least likely they were the cause
Answer:
Clarisse and Cindy considered themselves on a moral holiday, which permitted them to "let their hair down."
Explanation:
The position of surgeon general does not in itself carry much direct line authority, but it became very visible in the 1980s when which of the following spoke out with great courage and moral authority on the politically controversial subjects of AIDS and tobacco?
Answer:
Surgeon General, Everett Koop.
Explanation:
Surgeon general was something like a '' family doctor '' or '' nation's doctor '' back in the days. When it comes to this specific person, he was very famous and crucial in the certain era. He was also a pediatric and public health administrator. He was born in 1916 and he died in 2013. He was known to be very much against smoking and his father was the first person ever to quit it because of him. He also dedicated biggest part of his life in helping people who were suffering from AIDS.
Which of the following would be inappropriate treatment for a diver exhibiting symptoms of Decompression Sickness?
A. Administering CPRB. Administering pure oxygen (if qualified)C. Treat for shockD. Taking the victim back underwater
Answer:
D. Taking the victim back underwater
Explanation:
Taking the victim back underwater would be inappropriate treatment for a diver exhibiting symptoms of Decompression Sickness.
Answer:
D.Taking the victim back underwater
Explanation:
Jeffery is a national-level baseball player. He undergoes seven weeks of spring training and plays more than 150 games in 6 months in a year. This takes a toll on his energy level, and he starts using a performance-enhancing drug to increase alertness and to improve focus and attention. Which of the following drugs does Jeffery most likely use?
Answer:
The answer is Amphetamine
Explanation:
Amphetamines are stimulant drugs. They improve performance by increasing the activity of certain chemicals in the brain, they release excitatory neurotransmitters such as dopamine, they speed up messages traveling between the brain and the body. They are also called ergogenic drugs because they are considered to increase energy output. They enhance athletic performance. However they can be addictive and are illegal.
You have an infected cut on your hand that is swollen and red. You: a. Wash hands, put on a clean bandage, and cover it with a glove b. Wash your hands and continue working with the food c. Use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut Leave it alone. d. It will heal better on its own without a bandage
Answer: the correct option is C (Use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut Leave it alone).
Explanation: An antiseptic is antimicrobial substance that are applied to living tissue/skin to reduce the possibility of infection.
Therefore if you have an infected cut on your hand that is swollen and red. You use an antiseptic and put on a glove over the infected cut .
Answer: the answer is A
Explanation: With an infected cut, you will have to wash your hands first, put on a clean bandage and cover with gloves so your food does not get contaminated and your wound does not get re-infected. when you are through, you can visit your doctor for proper treatment and dressing.
Carlos has a family history of premature heart disease and stroke. To lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, Carlos should:______A) Increase his intake of trans fat.B) Take medication to increase his blood pressure.C) Stop smoking sigrats.D) Increase his intake of vitamin k.
Answer: C. Stop Cigarette Smoking
Explanation:
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases and stroke and for the fact that there is a family history of heart disease and stroke, it means that smoking cigarettes is going to raise the possibility of coming down with heart diseases and stroke therefore cessation of cigarette smoking will be key in lowering his risk of coming down with those diseases.
As regards other options, increase in fat intake is a direct risk factor for atherosclerosis which can lead to heart diseases and stroke.
Taking medication that can increase his blood pressure will be entirely negative to his health and increased intake of vitamin k really has nothing to do with health conditions in question
In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, what will likely occur?
Answer:
The correct answer is - Extinction.
Explanation:
When a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus the extinction of the conditioned response will occur, In classical conditioning.
For example, in Pavlov's classic experiment, the salivation in dogs occurs when the sound of the bell occurs, but if the food is not presented with the sound of the bell. The salivation response eventually became extinct.
Thus, the correct answer is - Extinction.
PLEASE HELP BRAINLEST 5 STARS AND THANKSWhich of the following represent features of robotic surgery? Check all of the boxes that apply.
performs surgery without human interaction
makes use of tiny video cameras
causes more tissue damage than traditional surgical approaches
improves surgical precision
reduces pain and recovery time
costs more than traditional surgery
Answer:
2,4,5
Explanation:
The following features represent robotic surgery: makes use of tiny video cameras, improves surgical precision, and reduces pain and recovery time. Hence options B, D, and E are correct.
Makes use of tiny video cameras: Robotic surgery uses tiny video cameras to provide a magnified view of the surgical site. This allows the surgeon to see more detail and make more precise movements.
Improves surgical precision: Robotic surgery allows for greater precision than traditional surgical approaches. This is because the robotic arms are controlled by the surgeon using a computer console, which allows for more delicate movements.
Reduces pain and recovery time: Robotic surgery can help to reduce pain and recovery time. This is because the incisions are smaller and the surgeon is able to take more precise movements, which can damage less tissue.
Therefore options B, D, and E are correct.
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Janis wants to keep a clean home so she can have friends over. Although cleaning isn't the most enjoyable activity to her she discovers something interesting: when she sweeps the kitchen she then feels like putting more effort into cleaning the rest of the day. How might we describe this in psychological terms
Answer:
This can be described as a commitment.
Explanation:
From a psychological point of view, we can say that when Janis swept the kitchen's floor, she committed herself to have a clean house so that she can invite her friends. She is directing her activities to reach a goal and is easier because after sweeping the kitchen she is mentally predisposed to reach her goal of keeping the house clean.
According to Dr. Sandra Collins, what are the three major types of factors which cause conflicts? a. Relationship factors, personal factors, situational factors b. Personal factors, perceptional factors, situational factors c. Situational factors, relationship factors, perceptional factors d. Relationship factors, perceptional factors, personality factors
Answer:
A) B) C)
Explanation:
According to Dr. Sandra Collins, what are the three major types of factors that causes conflicts are Relationship factors, personal factors, situational factors, Personal factors, perceptional factors, situational factors and Situational factors, relationship factors, perceptional factors.
What is perception?
Perception is the process by which people become aware of themselves, others and the world around them. The perceptual process is a fundamental tool in relationships, as it sharpens the interpretation of inner and outer signs. It provokes critical reflections, generating in people the need to reevaluate their own beliefs as a mechanism for preserving the quality of life and their human identity.
The perception of your work relationship may come from the (re) evaluation of the psychological contract that we “signed” at the beginning of the relationship. It brings us to moral problems, related to the practice and to each specific situation, which may affect only yourself or many people. However, establishing what people must do in a given situation to be considered positive is a moral problem.
Therefore, According to Dr. Sandra Collins, what are the three major types of factors that causes conflicts are Relationship factors, personal factors, situational factors, Personal factors, perceptional factors, situational factors and Situational factors, relationship factors, perceptional factors.
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A person is badly disfigured by the lawnmower blade when mowing a lawn. According to Erikson’s theory, which age at the time of injury will be associated with the greatest risk of long-term psychologic effects?
Answer: 11 years
Explanation: an 11 year old child is generally in Erikson's stage of industry versus inferiority, which involves the mastery of skills; unfortunately, the child did not master the skill of lawn mowing. Also, the child will be entering adolescence (stage of identity versus confusion), when major physical and emotional changes occur in relation to how one is perceived by the self and by others. A 35-year-old adult is generally in Erikson’s stage of intimacy versusisolation and therefore is less concerned about proving industriousness; a person of this age has usually moved through the stage of identity versus confusion. A 55-year-old adult is generally in the stage of generativity versus stagnation, is therefore less concerned about being industrious, and has moved through the stage of identity versus confusion. A 70-year-old adult is generally in Erikson’s stage of ego integrity versus despair, is less concerned about becoming industrious, and has moved through the stage of identity versus confusion.
Stone tools enabled our ancestors to butcher meat more quickly and efficiently, thereby providing higher quantities of protein for the developing brain and influencing the direction of our physical adaptation. This demonstrates the intimate connection between ________.
a. unilineal cultural evolution and technology
b. norms and values
c. nature and nurture
d. biology and hegemony
Answer:
C. Nature and nurture
Explanation:
“Nature” refers to biological/genetic predispositions impact on human traits, and “Nurture" describes the influence of learning and other influences from one's environment.
A high school soccer player sustained five concussions before she was told that she should never play contact sports again. After her last injury, she began experiencing episodes of double vision. She was told that she had most likely incurred damage to which cranial nerve?a) V (Trigeminal)
b) VI (Abducens)
c) IV (Trochlear)
d) VII (Facial)
Answer:
VI (Abducens).
Explanation:
Cranial nerves may be defined as the nerves that controls the sensory and motor functions of the neck and head. These nerves emerge directly from the brain and are 12 in number.
Abducen is the sixth cranial nerve that helps in the movement of the lateral rectus muscle and also responsible for the outward gaze. This nerve work as somatic efferent nerve. This nerve also effects the vision of an individual and results in double vision.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Answer:
B. VI (Abducens)
Explanation:
Abducens cranial nerve supports movement of the eye laterally. Any damage to the nerve can cause double vision.
Match each device with its advantage A. Insulin pump Provides quick measurement B. Glucose meter ensures accurate doeses C. Joint implant relief offers pain relief
Answer:
A. Insulin pump - ensures accurate doses
B. Glucose meter - provides quick measurement
C. Joint implant relief - offers pain relief
Explanation:
A. The insulin pump is a device that mimics the way that the pancreas works. It provides insulin to the body by delivering safe and accurate doses of insulin in a continous way.
B. The glucose meter is a device that provides a quick and accurate measurement of the amount of sugar (glucose) that is present in the blood.
C. The joint implant relief, usually used by people above 60 years of age, is a successful orthopaedic replacement that enables an individual that is suffering from constant pain to get a higher quality of life by eliminating their pain, which enables them to reincorporate into their former activities, e.g. return to work. According to research, the most successful joint implants are hip replacements and knee replacements.
A psychological condition producing mood swings between wild elation and deep depression is called:
Answer:
Bipolar Disorder
Explanation:
Bipolar disorder is a mental condition that causes extreme changes in mood. The disease can suffer high and low temperament and is characterized by serious pathological mood changes ranging from mania to depression.
It often begins in adolescence or during early adulthood and all that relate to people who have this disorder have to face the permanent consequences of these behaviors.
The pattern is not the same in all people with bipolar disorder. When symptoms occur together it is called a mixed state; If, on the contrary, the symptoms occur immediately, one after the other, it is called the rapid cycle.
A class of brain chemicals that may play a particularly important role in the development of anorexia in both rats and humans is _____________. Evidence for this includes the fact that people suffering from anorexia often report that the feeling that accompanies the disorder is quite ____________.
Answer: Endorphins ; Pleasurable/Pleasant
Explanation:
When you starve , the body stimulates the production of endorphins to help manage the pain. The problem is, endorphins like opiates are addictive .
So in anorexia, the constant release of endorphins can be quite addictive because it provides a pleasant drugged up feeling.
What is the name of the condition characterized by disordered eating, lack of menstrual periods, and osteoporosis?
A) Female anorexia
B) Female bulimia
C) Female athlete triad
D) Binge eating disorder
Answer:
C. Female athlete triad
Explanation:
The female athlete triad (the triad) is an interrelationship of menstrual dysfunction, low energy availability (with or without an eating disorder), and decreased bone mineral density; it is relatively common among young women participating in sports.
During his speech, Karl claimed that the elderly are bad drivers. He supported this claim by pointing out that his 75-year-old grandfather has had three accidents this year, an old lady was driving 10 mph under the speed limit the other day, and a 68-year-old woman ran into a building at the mall after having a stroke. Karl is using reasoning by __________.
Final answer:
Karl's claim that the elderly are bad drivers, based on specific examples involving older individuals, is an example of inductive reasoning and could be considered a hasty generalization or stereotype.
Explanation:
During his speech, Karl claimed that the elderly are bad drivers. He supported this claim by mentioning specific instances involving older individuals, such as his 75-year-old grandfather's accidents, an old lady driving below the speed limit, and a 68-year-old woman who had an accident at the mall due to a stroke. Karl is using reasoning by making generalizations about a group of people based on a few selective examples. This type of reasoning is known as inductive reasoning, specifically when it leads to a stereotype or hasty generalization. While inductive reasoning involves making general conclusions from specific observations, the conclusion may not always be accurate if the sample is not representative or the examples are not sufficient. In Karl's case, he is making a sweeping generalization that all elderly individuals are bad drivers based on limited personal experiences, which might be seen as evidence of ageism.
Using the false-belief task, researchers find that children under age _________ are not likely to have developed a "theory of mind."
Answer:
Under age of three (3)
Explanation:
The theory of Mind is a cognitive skill which is related o understanding the minds of the other person and their own that is how the other person will act or why the person acts in this way.
The theory of mind is based on the belief, intention and desire and emotions and analysing those attributes to understand the minds of the other person.
The task used to measure the Theory of mind is known as a false brief task which when performed on the children under ages gave incorrect answers.
But when the test was performed on children's above 4 years the children's stared giving the correct answer.
Thus, under the age of three is the correct answer.
Answer:4
Explanation:
The theory of mind suggests that children grow with different perspective at different age as they attain awareness with their surrounding environment.
The child of 4 years will likely to distinguish between what has been told to him or her and what's true in reality. Thus the false believes may dimnish in this age due to cognitive development.
Its okay to store dry foods near cleaners and pesticidesas long as the chemiclas are properly labeleda) trueb) false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
It is not good to store dry foods near cleaners and pesticides.