Answer:
The correct answer is mental hygiene.
Explanation:
Mental hygiene is well being or preventing mental illness. Mental hygiene is the ability to functioning at a level that is balanced at a satisfactory level on emotional and behavioral adjustment.
Mental hygiene is the science that helps in preventing mental illness by developing various programs. Dorthea Dix worked on mental hygiene to treating people with mental illness.
Thus, the correct answer is - mental hygiene.
A pregnant woman at her first prenatal visit asks the nurse if it is safe to have sex during her pregnancy. Which client statement alerts the nurse to the need for further teaching?
Answer:
Can you put the choices?
Explanation:
Which characteristics must be identified in the child’s behavior before central nervous system stimulants are indicated? Select all that apply.
__ Lack of ability to control impulses
__ Symptoms lasting at least 6 months
__ Short attention span for the child's age
Answer:
The complete question would be A 6-year-old patient is being evaluated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which characteristics must be identified in the child's behavior before the central nervous system stimulants are indicated? Select all that apply.
All the options apply.
Explanation:
A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has short attention spam, one of the reasons for this is due to the lack of control over impulses. They act according to these impulses and do not care for the consequences. The symptoms can last a minimum of six months or more.
imagine that an organization utilizes a physical ability test as part of its selection process for a particular jon and that significantly more men pass the test than women__________________.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
Imagine that an organization utilizes a physical ability test as part of its selection process for a particular job, and that significantly more men pass the test than women. Based on the test, the organization ends up hiring nearly three times as many men as women. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to this situation?
Answer:
The physical ability test may be defined as the different tasks that are done in the clinical environment to multiply the physical demand. This is mainly done to known the capability of the employee.
The job in which men pass the tests than women represent the discrete impact. The discrete impact might or might not be able to include the illegal discrimination. This discrimination is involved in the E.E.O. law of U.S. and depends on the type of job.
Answer:
d. This is an example of disparate impact and may or may not constitute illegal discrimination under U.S. EEO law depending on the job requirements.
Explanation:
Imagine that an organization utilizes a physical ability test as part of its selection process for a particular job, and that significantly more men pass the test than women. Based on the test, the organization ends up hiring nearly three times as many men as women. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to this situation?
a. This is an example of disparate treatment and is definitely an illegal violation of U.S. EEO law.
b. This is an example of disparate impact and is definitely an illegal violation of U.S. EEO law.
c. This is an example of disparate treatment but does not violate any U.S. EEO laws.
d. This is an example of disparate impact and may or may not constitute illegal discrimination under U.S. EEO law depending on the job requirements.
Volleyball helps people reach their fitness goals by __________.
a. using team work to win.
b. improving balance and agility.
c. improving spiritual health.
d. encouraging competition.
Answer:b
Explanation:
Increased appetite and thirst may indicate that a client with chronic pancreatitis has developed diabetes melitus. Which of the following explains the cause of this secondary diabetes
Answer:
Dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells .
Explanation:
The normal homeostasis maintenance is important for the normal physiology of the body. Pancreatitis means the infection in the pancreas that can affect the body homeostais.
The insulin and glucagon hormone is released from the alpha and beta cells of the pancreas. The irregular secretion of the insulin hormone can cause diabetes mellitus. This condition arises when the beta cells of the pancreas are not functioning properly.
Thus, the answer is dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells .
Final answer:
Chronic pancreatitis can lead to secondary diabetes mellitus due to the damage and dysfunction of the beta cells in the pancreas, resulting in inadequate insulin production. This leads to increased appetite and thirst as symptoms of high blood glucose levels.
Explanation:
When a client with chronic pancreatitis develops diabetes mellitus, it is considered secondary diabetes. Secondary diabetes refers to the development of diabetes as a result of another medical condition or factor. In the case of chronic pancreatitis, the cause of this secondary diabetes is the damage and dysfunction of the pancreas, particularly the beta cells that produce insulin.
The beta cells in the pancreas are responsible for producing insulin, which helps regulate blood glucose levels. However, chronic pancreatitis can lead to the destruction or dysfunction of these beta cells, resulting in inadequate insulin production. Without sufficient insulin, blood glucose levels increase, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite and thirst.
Kendra is researching the effects of vitamin C on test-taking ability. Before the exam, Kendra gives group A orange juice, and group B water. Vitamin C is the ______.
Kendra is researching the effects of vitamin C on test-taking ability. Before the exam, Kendra gives group A orange juice, and group B water.Vitamin C is the independent variable in Kendra's research.
In Kendra's study, she is investigating the effects of vitamin C on test-taking ability. To conduct a controlled experiment, she needs to manipulate one variable while keeping others constant. In this case, the variable being manipulated is vitamin C. She administers vitamin C through orange juice to one group (group A) and withholds it by giving water to the other group (group B). The independent variable, in this context, is the one that the researcher deliberately changes to observe its effects on the dependent variable, which is likely the test-taking ability in this case. By giving group A orange juice (containing vitamin C) and group B water (lacking vitamin C), Kendra is isolating the influence of vitamin C on the test-taking abilities of the two groups, allowing her to draw conclusions about the impact of vitamin C on this particular aspect of performance.
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Women who masturbated to orgasm during adolescence generally have less difficulty reaching orgasm during intercourse than women who have never masturbated.True / False.
Cipro-floxacin (Cipro) is a quinolone, which acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase. Which of the following statements about cipro-floxacin is true?A) It should not be used in children.B) Ciprofloxacin is teratogenic and is not approved for pregnant women or children. C) Antacids and other agents that contain divalent minerals can prevent cipro-floxacin from being absorbed.D) First generation quinolones have little efficacy against the gram-positive organisms that cause community-acquired pneumonia.
Answer:B). Ciprofloxacin is teratogenic and is not approved for pregnant women of children.
Explanation: This is because Ciprofloxacin is a Class C drug, I.e Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
It means that unless under certain circumstances where the potential benefits have been weighed to be more than the potential risks, the drug should not be used for pregnant women.
It has also been reported to be passed to the child from the mother during breastfeeding and may cause serious adverse risk including articular damage.
Ciprofloxacin is only approved for use in children for only two indications due to the risk of permanent injury to the musculoskeletal system. These two indications are:
• inhalational anthrax
• Complicated urinary tract infections.
I hope you found this useful.
While working at a local food processing plant, a flying object penetrates an employee's right eye. The employee is admitted to an emergency department. After administering pain medication, which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
1."Does the company provide worker's compensation?"
2."Do you wear glasses?"
3."Did you have visual problems before the injury?"
4."Are you afraid?"
Answer:
Do you wear glasses?
Explanation:
The proper safety requirement must be provided to the employee for the prevention of any injury at the work place. The employee safety should be considered one of the most important factor at the work place.
The employees that are working at food processing plant must be cautious and should protect them from the chemicals and machine equipment. The employees should have given medication after the injury in right eye. The nurse must known known whether the employee wear glasses or not as the glasses protect the eye and proper power of glass should be given to the employee.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Heavy reliance on the use of technology in diagnosis and treatment is a characteristic of the __________ healing system.
Answer: Western Biomedicine
Explanation:
Western Biomedicine which is also called the following; conventional medicine, mainstream medicine, allopathic medicine and orthodox medicine is a modern Western scientific approach with a sum total of knowledge, skills and practices used for the diagnosis and treatment of illnesses.
This system is used by medical doctors and health professionals (like pharmacists and nurses) to treat diseases using medicines, surgery or radiation.
You have been called to attend a birth and are the only healthcare provider responsible for the management of the newborn in the room. When should you first call for additional help?
A) Before birth, when you have identified the presence of a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation.
B) After birth, when you determine the baby requires positive-pressure ventilation.
C) After birth, when the obstetrician or labor nurse suggests you need additional help.
D) After birth, when you determine the baby requires intubation.
Answer:
Before birth, when you have identified the presence of a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation.
Explanation:
The parturition may be defined as the acts of the giving birth to the child. The fully developed fetus is taken out from the mother's womb and the parturition is controlled by the hormone as well.
After the birth of the child, proper health care and medical prescription of the infant is done by the health care provider. In case of any emergency or the medical situation before the birth the child must require the neonatal resuscitation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
In emergency neonatal care, it's best to call for additional help before birth when you've identified perinatal risk factors that increase the likelihood of resuscitation. Waiting until after birth may cause critical delays in the baby's care.
Explanation:In emergency newborn care and resuscitation, timing and identifying likely problems are essential. Therefore, the best time to call for additional help is before birth, when you have identified a perinatal risk factor that increases the likelihood of requiring neonatal resuscitation (Option A). Recognizing signs of potential complications, such as maternal infection, preterm labor, or fetal distress, allows you to activate additional support channels in advance. Holding off till after birth could lead to critical delays especially as newborns can deteriorate rapidly. Your additional help in the form of a team can then be ready to assist with the proper tools for resuscitation procedures like positive-pressure ventilation or intubation if needed immediately after birth.
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In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the ________ variable.
Answer: independent Explanation:
The manipulated factor in a psychological experiment is the independent variable, which is changed by the researcher to measure its effect on the dependent variable.
In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the independent variable. The independent variable is the situation created by the experimenter through experimental manipulations.
It is the factor, property, or condition that is purposely changed in the experiment to determine its impact on the dependent variable, which is the outcome that is measured. For a clear experiment, other variables (control variables) are held constant to isolate the effects of the independent variable alone.
An activity that takes place during the early phases of pathogenesis and includes activities that limit the progression of disease is_______.
Answer: secondary prevention of disease
Explanation: avoiding diseases before they begin at the secondary level includes all measures, activities, that are carried out by oneself or a health professional that leads to early detection, diagnosis and prevention of disease to avert more serious problems.
In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client's thoughts and attitudes?
Answer:
d. cognitive strategies
Explanation:
Cognitive strategies are general domain processes for the control of the functioning of mental activities, including the techniques, skills and abilities that the person uses consciously or unconsciously to manage, control, improve and direct their efforts in cognitive aspects, such as processing, attention and execution, in learning. They are critical in the acquisition and use of specific information and interact closely with the content of learning. Cognitive strategies are self-management skills that the student (or person) acquires, presumably over a period of several years, to govern their own process of attending, learning, thinking and solving problems.
In general, cognitive strategies are understood as all those sequential behaviors and procedures, planned and oriented by rules, that make it easier for a person to learn, think and be creative, in order to make decisions and solve problems.
Samantha learns that after suffering a traumatic brain injury, her brother Tobias has significant injury to his thalamus. What can we anticipate will be the impact on Tobias in the future?a. Tobias will not be able to speak but will understand what is being said to him.
b. Tobias will be conscious but is likely to have long-term memory loss.
c. Tobias will most likely suffer from irreversible brain death.
d. Tobias will likely make a full recovery, but will have problems with impulse control.
Final answer:
Tobias, with an injury to his thalamus, is likely to be conscious but may experience long-term memory loss, along with difficulties in sensory perception, motor functions, and emotional responses. So the correct option is b.
Explanation:
We can anticipate that Tobias, who has suffered significant injury to his thalamus after a traumatic brain injury, may face a range of challenges. The thalamus plays a critical role in processing and relaying sensory information to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex, as well as in the regulation of consciousness, sleep, and alertness. Damage to the thalamus could result in difficulties with sensory perception, problems with motor functions, disruptions in consciousness, and issues with memory and emotional responses. Therefore, the impact on Tobias in the future is most likely to be:
Tobias will be conscious but is likely to have long-term memory loss.While recovery outcomes can vary based on the severity of the injury and the treatment administered, injuries to the thalamus typically involve complex cognitive and sensory-processing deficits rather than irreversible brain death or impulse control problems alone.
What type of prevention seeks to minimize the severity of the illness or the damage due to an injury-causing event once the event has occurred?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Answer: B) Secondary prevention
Explanation: how this helps you
Answer:
Secondary prevention
Explanation:
Secondary prevention is the prevention that tries to stop the undertaking and hopefully put an end to a disease before it develops fully.
You hear a news report about a new asthma treatment. What would you want to know before you asked your doctor if this treatment was right for you?
Answer:
I would want to know how randomly the clinical trial test was done and how effective it is.
Explanation:
Asthma is a life threatening disease, a chronic one at that, it causes difficultly in breathing. Asthma is caused by respiratory infections.
Although Asthma can not be cured hundred(100) percent, it still has medications for the management of the disease. These medications provide quick and fast relief towards Asthma attacks. One of the important Medications is the corticosteroid which is usually inhaled through nebulizers. As some of these medications can be inhaled some can also be taken as injections or as pills. The medications are to prevent inflammations.
If i am in the condition, as an Asthmatic patient and I heard about the new treatment, I WOULD WANT to know if it is not a trick to MAKE PEOOLE WITH THE CONDITION to go for it and take their money, and I would also like to know how effective the new treatment is
Because Keza is a college student, people expect her to spend a lot of time studying. The expectation that college students should study a lot is a ______.
College students face high academic expectations regarding studying time and achievement.
Explanation:High academic expectations are a social norm associated with college students. These expectations include dedicating ample time to studying, completing coursework, and graduating successfully. Students are also expected to exhibit self-discipline and focus on their educational goals.
Combat veterans may be diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). You wonder about the best way to treat PTSD. This is an example of getting research ideas from ____.
Explanation:
practical problems
A child undergoing drug treatment develops hyperthermia, acidosis, and respiratory depression. What type of drug would be responsible for the condition?
Answer:
It could be cocaine, MDMA, amphetamine...
Explanation:
Those are the drugs that can cause life threatening conditions, sometimes even death.
It mainly causes hyperthermia.
Some of the symptoms: very high temperature, which can damage brain pretty badly, other organs, too.
Other symptoms: muscle cramps, dizziness, headache, vomiting, feeling weak in general.
Heart rate is very high and redness of the skin might appear.
To ensure he gets the most he can out of his cruise vacation, night after night Toby stays up late. He tries to sleep during the day, but his cabin is too noisy and he suffers from REM sleep deprivation. Toby can expect to experience REM _____ during his first several nights back home.
Answer:
REM REBOUND
Explanation:
REM deprivation boosts drive-related behaviors like hyperplasia and raises baseline arousal. Neurotransmitter levels, as well as physiological and psychological processes, are also impacted. Unknown mechanisms may be at play in these alterations.
What are the REM sleep deprivation?Numerous research on both people and animals demonstrate that REM sleep deprivation affects memory development.
However, because these frequently co-occur, memory issues linked to REM sleep deprivation may instead be caused by general sleep disruption.
Over time, your body will adjust to the routine, making it easier for you to fully enter the light, deep, and REM stages of sleep. You could even discover that waking up is less difficult. To relieve stress, find artistic outlets.
Therefore, while sleep deprivation lasting more than 96 hours led to considerable REM rebound sleep, sleep deprivation lasting 12 to 24 hours boosted both REM and NREM sleep.
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The eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome outbreak resembled an illness with similar symptoms that affected some 20,000 people in Spain as a result of what household item being contaminated?
Answer:
Cooking Oil (rapeseed oil)
Explanation:
The eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome (EMS) is a condition of health which resulted in an increased amount of the eosinophil and muscle pain called myalgia.
The symptoms resembled with the symptoms of a disease which outbreak in Spain in 1981 which affected about 20,000 people called toxic oil syndrome.
The toxic oil syndrome was caused because of the intake of the denatured rapeseed soil which was not meant to be consumed usually but made to be consumed by adding aniline to the oil. Consumption of rapeseed oil with aniline caused intoxication and other symptoms like increased eosinophils.
Thus, Cooking Oil (rapeseed oil) is the correct answer.
In the preindustrial period, what was the main role of dispensaries
Answer:
"Dispensaries provide a basic medical care to ambulatory patients."
Explanation:
A place or room where something is dispensed. A room specifically designed for the dispensing of drugs; a pharmacy. An institution that dispenses medical supplies and advice. A dispensary is an workplace in a institute, hospital, industrial plant, or other group that distributes capsules, medical supplies, and in about cases even medical and dental conduct. In a traditional dispensary set-up, a pharmacist dispenses medication as per prescription or order form.
A building is said to be suffering from Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) when what percentage of the occupants complain of a general array of symptoms that abate after leaving the building?
Answer:
20%.
Explanation:
SBS (Sick Building Syndrome) may be defined as the medical condition in which most of the individual of the building shows symptoms of illness without unknown reason.
Any building to be categorized as SBS require the some percentage of the individuals should show the symptom. This percentage is atleast 20% of the occupants of the building. These symptoms might gone away after the people leave the building.
Thus, the answer is 20 %.
A research study examined the intellectual growth of 20 premature children over a period of 18 years. This is best described as an example of ________.1. Naturalistic observation
2. A longitudinal study
3. A case study
4. A cross-sectional study
Answer: 2). A Longitudinal study
Explanation:
Longitudinal Study or research is a type of observational research (study) in which specific subjects (variables) are observed and data is gathered on them over a period of time. In this case, the subjects being observed are the premature children, the data collected on them are their intellectual growth and this research was carried out over the period of Eighteen (18) years.
a nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo allograft transplatation of the liver which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the post transplant medications?
Answer:
This question comes related to the following options:
a."Immunosuppressants help reduce the risk of postoperative infection."
b."I will need to have periodic laboratory work to assess for toxicity."
c."I will need to take immunosuppressants until all signs of organ rejection are gone."
d."These drugs will prevent organ rejection."
Allograft transplantation or Allotransplantation is a medical procedure to provide (in this case) an organ to a recipient from a donor who is not identical genetically speaking or with a different genotype, which requires very specific considerations when it comes to prevent toxicity or organ rejection, and this requires the patient's immunosuppressants levels to be periodically checked permanently to minimize risks.
Thereby the best answer would be b.)
During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged?
Answer:
The correct answer would be - the lateral meniscus.
Explanation:
The lateral meniscus is the band or the pad of connective tissues that are fibrocartilaginous in nature. These tissues are located on the lateral side of the knee.
The lateral meniscus is one of two, the other one called the medial meniscus, menisci of the knee. The lateral meniscus is the larger menisci than the other and covers a larger area of the articulate surface.
Thus, the correct answer is - The lateral meniscus.
Children at the ______ morality stage of Piaget's moral reasoning view justice and rules as unchangeable and not under the control of people.
Answer:
The correct answer is - heteronomous stage.
Explanation:
Heteronomous stage is the stage of the Piaget's theory of moral development of the child. It is a stage which is characterized by the approximately at age of of 6 to 10 years of age.
In the stage of heternomous stage the child develop the morality with the rules as unchangable and not under the control of people.
Thus, the correct answer is - heteronomous stage.
A client has recently been diagnosed with cancer. The client says, "What did I do wrong to get such a disease?" Which nonverbal processes, along with the client's statement, would convey a congruent message? Select all that apply.
a) A sad facial expression
b) An erect, confident posture
c) A cheerful expression
d) A fearful tone of voice
e) A sarcastic tone of voice
Answer:
A. a sad facial expression
The school nurse is presenting a lecture to adolescents to teach them how conception occurs. Which statement by the nurse would accurately describe this process?
Answer:
-"Conception usually occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of the fallopian tube."
Explanation:
Conception is the process of fertilization of ovum and sperm forming a zygote. The sperm cells from male determines the sex of the fetus. An ovum carries an X chromosome, whereas, the sperm may carry either X or Y chromosome. If an X chromosome fertilizes with the ovum, a female child is born and if a Y chromosome fertilizes with the ovum, a male child is born. Conception occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of Fallopian tube and aids the fusion with sperms coming up into the Fallopian tube.
Answer:
Right answer: Conception usually occurs when the ovum is in the outer third of the fallopian tube
Explanation:
The first option is wrong: "Human life begins with the union of two cells: the zygote and the sperm." Because human life begins with the union of the ovum and the sperm which is then called zygote. The second option is wrong: "At the time of conception, the ovum determines the sex of the baby." Ii is actually the sperm what determines the sex. The third option is wrong too: "The ovum carries the Y chromosome, and the sperm carries an X or Y chromosome." Actually the ovum carries X chromosome.