Today lan wants to run less than 7/12 mile.Write a fraction with a denominator of 4 to represent a distance that is less than 7/12 mile.

Answer:

70 feet per minute.

21 minutes

1890 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

(350 ft) / (5 min) = 70 ft/min

(1470 ft) / (70 ft/min) = 21 min

(70 ft/min) * (27 min) = 1890 ft

Answer:

Option C is correct.

[tex]7 \cdot \sum_{i=1}^{18} i^2 + 9 \cdot 18[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression:  [tex]\sum_{i=1}^{18} (7i^2+9)[/tex]

Using properties of summation:

Using properties of summation in the given expression we have;

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^{18} (7i^2+9)[/tex]

= [tex]\sum_{i=1}^{18} 7i^2 + \sum_{i=1}^{18} 9[/tex]

=[tex]7 \cdot \sum_{i=1}^{18} i^2 + 9 \cdot 18[/tex]

Therefore, the following given expression uses the properties of summation to represents is, [tex]7 \cdot \sum_{i=1}^{18} i^2 + 9 \cdot 18[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Point R is the mid point of side FE Using mid point formula coodinates of F are (3a,b)

In triangle DEF, DF = base = 4a and height = 2b.

Hence area of triangle DEF = 1/2 hy = 4ab

In triangle QRP, base QR = line joining mid points of sides DE and EF

= 1/2 (DF) = 2a

Height =b

So area of triangle DEF = 1/2 (2a)b = ab

i.e. Area of triangle DEF = 4 times triangle QRD

It follows that in an isosceles triangle, if QR is the mid points of isosceles sides, then triangle QRD has 1/4 times area of triangle DEF

There is only one unique triangle that can be drawn with side lengths of 4cm, 5cm, and 10cm.

A triangle is defined by its side lengths. In order for a triangle to be formed, the sum of any two side lengths must be greater than the third side length. In this case, we have side lengths of 4cm, 5cm, and 10cm. We can check if these lengths can form a triangle by checking the triangle inequality:

Since all three inequalities are true, a triangle can be formed with side lengths of 4cm, 5cm, and 10cm. Therefore, there is only one unique triangle that can be drawn with these side lengths.

Answer:

0.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Alright, so we are given a triangle where all the angles are the same. Now - we need to write a proof that when IE bisects KM, it creates equal angles.

Given:

IKM is equiangular

IE is perpendicular to KM

This is enough to prove that IKE is congruent to IME because:

IEK and IEM are both 90 degrees, since IE is perpendicular to KM

KIE and MIE are the same degree measure, since I is being bisected.

This leaves us with only one angle remaining, and since we already know that the first two angles are congruent to their counterpart - we also know that IKE is congruent to IME because all interior angles of triangles add up to 180°, and we know the other two angle sets to be congruent.

Answer:

The 52nd term is -125

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for an arithmetic sequence is

an = a1+d(n-1)

where a1 is the first term and d is the common difference.

a1 = 28

d = 25-28 = -3

Let's check  19-22 = -3  so the common difference is correct

an = 28 - 3(n-1)

We want to find the 52 term  so n = 52

a52 = 28 -3 (52-1)

a52 = 28 -3(51)

a52 = 28 -153

a52 = -125

Answer:

Total number of ice cream cones sold =  15x +7

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the statement: Suppose 8x + 16 ice cream cones were sold on Saturday and 7x - 9 were sold on Sunday.

⇒ Ice cream cones were sold on Saturday = 8x+16

and

Ice cream cones were sold on Sunday = 7x -9

We have to find the total number of ice cream cones sold.

Total number of ice cream sold = Ice cream cones sold on Saturday + Ice cream sold on Sunday

Substitute the given values we get;

Total number of ice cream sold = [tex]8x + 16 + 7x -9 = 15x + 7[/tex]

Therefore, the total number of ice cream cones sold is, 15x +7

Answer: x = 7 (choice C)

"sum of 1 and 3 times a number" means we have the expression 1+3*x for some unknown number x. This is set equal to 22, and we isolate x. The idea is to follow the order of operations PEMDAS in reverse. So start with subtraction and try to undo it. If it's not present, then undo addition, and so on, until x is all by itself on one side.

1+3x = 22

3x+1 = 22

3x+1-1 = 22-1 ... see note 1 below

3x = 21

3x/3 = 21/3 .... see note 2 below

x = 7

note1: Undoing addition. We undo the "+1" by subtracting 1 from both sides

note2: Undoing multiplication. 3x means "3 times x". The inverse of this is division which means we divide both sides by 3

Answer:

c = 5 and t = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

t = 2c + 10, t = 4c

so

2c + 10 = 4c

-2c = -10

c = 5

t = 4(5)

t = 20

Answer:

c=5 t=20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

W >_2/7

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is to calculate the difference between the original selling price and the sale price. Then divide the markdown amount by the original selling price and multiply by 100 to find the percent markdown.

The first step in finding the percent markdown is to calculate the difference between the original selling price and the sale price. Subtract the sale price from the original selling price to find the markdown amount. Then, divide the markdown amount by the original selling price and multiply by 100 to find the percent markdown.

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The percent markdown is approximately 14.99%.

The first step in finding the percent markdown is to calculate the difference between the original selling price and the sale price.

In this case, the difference is $175.80 - $149.42 = $26.38.

Next, divide the difference by the original selling price and multiply by 100 to find the percent markdown.

So, $26.38 / $175.80 × 100 = 14.99%.

Therefore, the percent markdown is approximately 14.99%.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(y+6)=(1/2)x

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

solving the inequality

9 - y > 12 ( subtract 9 from both sides )

- y > 3 ( multiply both sides by - 1 )

Remembering to reverse the inequality symbol when multiplying/ dividing by a negative quantity

y < - 3 ← reverse symbol

Thus y is less than or equal to - 3

The only value from the list which makes this true is - 6 → B

To find a solution to the inequality 9 – y > 12, one must first simplify the inequality to y < -3. After comparing all the options, the correct answer is Option B (– 6), as it is the only value that is less than -3.

The question asks to find a value of y that satisfies the inequality 9 – y > 12.

To find the solution, we need to isolate y on one side of the inequality:

Now that we have the solution to the inequality, we can evaluate the given options.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: – 6, because – 6 < – 3.

Answer:

The correct option is 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given table is notices that the function f(x) is a downward parabola.

The maximum value of f(x) is 5 at x=1.

The function g(x) is

[tex]g(x)=-x^2+4x[/tex]

vertex of the parabola is

[tex](\frac{-b}{2a}, g(\frac{-b}{2a}))[/tex]

[tex](\frac{-4}{2\times 1}, g(\frac{-4}{2\times 1})[/tex]

[tex](2, g(2))[/tex]

Put x=2.

[tex]g(x)=-2^2+4(2)=4[/tex]

Therefore the vertex of g(x) is (2,4). The vertex of a downward parabola is the maximum point of the function.

Therefore ƒ(x) has the greater maximum. Option 1 is correct.

Answer:

ƒ( x) has the greater maximum.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 11 girls were not selected.

Step-by-step explanation:

First let's find out how many girls their were in total. In this case their are 23.

Let's subtract 12 from 23. That ends up to be 11. (subtract 23 from 11 / 11 from 23)

-23

-12

-------

11

What we know:

- Twenty-three girls tried out for the cheerleading squad.

- Only 12 girls will be chosen for the team.

Answer and Explanation:

The answer is 11 because,

When trying to find out how many girl's that where not selected you just simply subttact 23 from 12.

23-12=11

That being said, the answer is 11.

Answer:  Circumference of cake board is 35π cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Diameter of a round cake = 30 cm

Diameter of a cake board is 5 cm longer than the diameter of a round cake.

So, Diameter of a cake board = 30+5=35 cm

So, radius of a cake board will be

[tex]r=\frac{35}{2}[/tex]

As we know the formula for " Circumference of Circle ":

So, According to question, we get,

[tex]C=2\pi r\\\\C=2\pi\times \frac{35}{2}\\\\C=35\pi[/tex]

Hence, Circumference of cake board is 35π cm.

Answer:

35pi

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

175 divided by 7 is 25

There are 25 rows

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

175 divided by 7 =25

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug your values into the equation A=1/2bh and do the math. First multiply the base (b) by 1/2, then divide the area (A) by the product. The resulting value will be the height of your triangle! so A=1/2(6)(h). 1/2 times six is 3 so you have A=3h, subtract 3 and your awnser is 3A=h divide by 2 H= 1.5

Answer:

Plug your values into the equation A=1/2bh and do the math. First multiply the base (b) by 1/2, then divide the area (A) by the product. The resulting value will be the height of your triangle! so A=1/2(6)(h). 1/2 times six is 3 so you have A=3h, subtract 3 and your awnser is 3A=h divide by 2 H= 1.5 I dont understand how this answers a question wit showing full steps

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer would round to 55%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

55%

Step-by-step explanation:

We can write an equation! So 23234008 = 41892128*x. Let x be a percent. So x=23234008/41892128 or x is about .5546151. So x is about 55%

Answer:

11. O = (-1, 5/2); 12. H = (1,4)  

Step-by-step explanation:

11. Circumcentre

Your points form the vertices of a right triangle (see image below).

The circumcentre (O) of a right triangle must be at the midpoint of the hypotenuse.

Your hypotenuse has the ends at (-3,4) and (1,1), so

O = ((-3 + 1)/2),(4 + 1)/2))

O = (-2/2,5/2)

O = (-1, 5/2)

===============

12. Orthocentre

The orthocentre (H) of a right triangle is the vertex at the right angle.

Your right angle is at (1, 4), so

H= (1,4)

Answer:

To determine if fractions are equivalent, you need to get a common denominator.  When the denominators are the same, if the numerators are the same, the fractions are equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine if fractions are equivalent, you need to get a common denominator.  When the denominators are the same, if the numerators are the same, the fractions are equivalent

Answer:

diagonal^2 = side^2 + side^2

144*10 = 2s^2

144*5 = s^2  

side = 12sqrt(5) f

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1x^2 - 4x is the quotient and remainder is 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Let use synthetic division

First we write all the coefficients of x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x + 7 inside

we need to divide by x-1. x-1=0 so x= 1

so we put 1 outside

The coefficients of x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x + 7  is 1, -5, 4, 7

    1                       1            -5           4            7

                                            1             -4         0

                 -------------------------------------------------------------

                            1              -4             0         7

Here 7 is the remainder

Now we write the answer in descending powers of x

1  -4  and 0 we have

The highest exponent in the question is x^3

when we divide by x-1 then highest exponent becomes x^2

So answer is 1x^2 - 4x + 0 that is 1x^2 - 4x

Answer:

x^2 - 4x + (7) x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

This is correct Hope this Helps! :)

Answer:

The theoretical probability of obtaining exactly four heads when flipping six coins is also 23.4%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Getting x successes out of n trials is a binomial distribution and is given by:

p(x) = [tex]nC_{x} p^{n-x} q^{x}[/tex]

Here, n = 6

x = 2

p = probability of one head = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

q = 1 - p

= [tex]1-\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Substitute these values, we get,

p(2) = [tex]6C_{2} (\frac{1}{2} )^{6-2} (\frac{1}{2} )^{2}[/tex]

= [tex]15(\frac{1}{2} )^{6}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{15}{64}[/tex]

= 0.234

= 23.4%

We know that [tex]6C_{2} =6C_{6-2}[/tex]

[tex]6C_{2} =6C_{4}[/tex]

Now,

p(4) = [tex]6C_{4} (\frac{1}{2} )^{6-4} (\frac{1}{2} )^{4}[/tex]

= [tex]15(\frac{1}{2} )^{6}[/tex]

= p(2)

Hence, the theoretical probability of obtaining exactly four heads when flipping six coins is also 23.4%.

Answer:

133

Step-by-step explanation: