What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?

Answers

Answer 1
A low-fat and often low-carb diet to improve health and for the purpose of weight loss and/or control.
Answer 2
Final answer:

A high-protein diet is typically associated with weight loss and muscle building. An example is the Paleolithic or paleo diet, developed in the 1970s, which includes foods like lean meats, fish, and seeds, mimicking a hunter-gatherer lifestyle.

Explanation:

A high-protein diet is often associated with strategies for weight loss and muscle building. An example of a high-protein diet is the Paleolithic diet or the paleo diet. This diet, developed in the 1970's by gastroenterologist Walter Voegtlin, is based on foods that were eaten during the Paleolithic era. It includes lean meats, fish, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and seeds, which are rich sources of protein. The paleo diet exudes the belief that the human body is designed for a hunter-gatherer lifestyle.

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Related Questions

How does inappropriate land use, such as removing vegetation from hillsides and plowing fields parallel to a hillside, affect the erosion rates of that landscape? Explain your answer.

Answers

Removing vegetation from a hillsides will make the land bare and open to the eroding effects of water and wind. The vegetation on a hills sides normally hold the soil particles together by means of their roots and prevent the soils from been carried away. When these vegetations are removed, the rate at which the soil will be washed down the slope by water and wind will be very high.

Answer:

increase in erosion

Explanation

i just tuck the test 3.17

ï‚· how many cells are produced at the end of mitosis and meiosis

Answers

Two identical cells are produced in mitosis. 4 genetically cells are producd in meiosis

HELP PLEASDE I NEED TO PASS

Answers

Okay.. 

B is your answer

hope this helps

The release of endotoxins as bacteria are destroyed by phagocytes causes the phagocytes to release tumor necrosis factor (tnf). the life-threatening loss of blood pressure due to the action of tnf is called __________.

Answers

Answer:  "endotoxic shock" .
______________________________________

Which two factors can speed up the process of evaporation?

Answers

Strong winds and warm temps

if you start with a single bacterium, capable of dividing every 20 minutes, how many bacteria would you have after just 4 hours

Answers

Answer:

4096

Explanation:

Multiple 1 (original bacterium) by 2, 12 times

1*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2*2 = 4096

4096 bacteria would be present after 4 hours as they grow via binary division.

What is bacteria?Bacteria is prokaryotic unicellular microorganism.They are found in extreme harsh conditions.Bacteria has hair like structure that helps in their locomotion.Bacteria grow through binary division.What do you mean by binary division?It is a type of cell division in which one cell give rise to two identical daughter cells.

As it is given that bacteria divides at every 20 minutes mean 2 cells are formed from 1 cell. And after 40 min 8 (2∧n) bacterial cells are present.

After 4 hours i.e., 240 min= 240/20=12.

So 2∧12 = 4096 cells are present.

Hence, the answer is 4096 bacterial cells.

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What are the benefits/risks associated with the addition of antibiotics and genetically modified
e. coli to cattle feed?

Answers

One major risk is mutation. Diseases can mutate just has how we have genetic mutations. The bacteria in the cattle may become immune to the drugs over a long period of time, or mutate and become immune. As we try to fight it with more antibiotics, it may become immune to those as well, eventually creating a bacteria immune to most antibiotics, leaving us unable to fight it, especially in poorer areas, due to the fact that if we did create new antibiotics they would be more expensive than your common antibiotic, such as penicillin.

Which statement is true about the rates of cell division in eukaryotes?

A. They remain the same for the life of the organism

B. They are faster than that of prokaryotes

C. They increase with the age of the organism

D. They vary greatly within an organism

Answers

D) They vary greatly within an organism 

Eukaryotic cells multiply at varied speeds. Yeast cells divide and double in 2 hours, but plant and mammal cells take 10–20 hours. Therefore, option (D) is correct.

Why do prokaryotic cells divide faster than eukaryotic cells?

Prokaryotic cell division, also known as binary fission, is a simpler and more rapid process than eukaryotic cell division. Bacterial populations can expand quite quickly due of how quickly their cells divide. Prokaryotic cells can replicate more quickly than eukaryotic cells because they typically only contain one circular chromosome. A prokaryotic cell can really go through two cycles of DNA replication before the cell divides.

Eukaryotic cells multiply and develop at remarkably varied speeds. While the majority of plant and animal cells take between 10 and 20 hours to divide and multiply, yeast cells may do so in just 2 hours.

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Serotonin is derived from the amino acid tryptophan and is an important neurotransmitter.
a. True
b. False

Answers

very true. Serotonin is the hormone that makes you happy

Which term do biologists use to describe the average number of individuals of a species per unit area?

Answers

I think the answer is population density sorry if im wrong

Population density is the right term.

Population density of any species (plant, animal or humans) is the number of individuals found in a given unit of area. It is usually expresses as “X” species in “Y”

X  = number of species

Y = unit of area , it can be square feet, Square meter, Square kilometer, Square yard etc.  

For example , population of 1000 insects living in an area fo 1000 square feet has a population density of 1000/1000 insects per square feet = 1 insect per square feet.

Which types of vaccines described on the website are examples of live vaccines? explain your reasoning?

Answers

It is the measles. It is a very infectious contamination caused by the measles infection. Introductory signs and side effects regularly incorporate fever, frequently more noteworthy than 40 °C, runny nose, hack and aggravated eyes. A few days after the begin of manifestations, little white spots may shape inside the mouth, known as Koplik's spots.

Decomposers consume nonliving organic matter. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F

Answers

The answer is true!!!!
True, Decomposers consume nonliving organic matter. Many bacteria, and fungi fill this niche.

The wolves and moose of Isle Royale are the focus of the longest-running study of a predator-prey system in the wild. Both are recent arrivals to Isle Royale: moose swam to the island in the early 1900’s. Wolves followed decades later, traveling over the ice from Canada in the 1940’s.About 40 years into the study, the wolf population crashed when humans introduced the canine-parvovirus. Additional factors over the years have impacted both populations. At one point during the study, the moose population collapsed during the most severe winter on record followed by an outbreak of moose ticks. What point on the graph represents the outbreak of moose ticks and a drastic decline in the moose population? A) Point A B) Point B C) Point C D) Point D

Answers

Final answer:

The question asks for a point on a graph which indicates an outbreak of moose ticks and a rapid decline in the moose population in the context of a predator-prey system study. The point of interest should show a notable drop in the moose population, after a decrease due to a harsh winter and before any significant downward trend in the wolf numbers.

Explanation:

Without the accompanying graph, it's difficult to definitively point out which point represents the outbreak of moose ticks and the consequent drastic decline in the moose population. However, given the context, you'd want to look for a point in the graph where there's a significant drop in the moose population. This point should fall after the first major decrease representing the severe winter and before any major decreases in the wolf population, if such data is represented in the graph. An understanding of the predator-prey system and effects of disease outbreaks on such systems can aid interpreting the graph.

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Human waste, excreted from the digestive system, _____.

Answers

Human digestive waste is made up of 75 % water and 25 % solid matter. Waste Material Solid % Water % Dead Bacteraia 30 % Indigestible food 30 % (Cellulose) Cholesterol & Fats 10-20 % Inorganic substances 10-20 % (calcium phosphate and iron phosphate) Protein 2-3 % Other products of human waste are cell debris of the mucous membrane of the intestinal tract also passes in the waste material, Bile pigments (bilirubin) and dead leukocytes (white blood cells). The brown colour of waste is due to the action of bacteria on bilirubin. The odour of waste is caused by the chemicals which are produced by bacterial action.

Human waste, excreted from the digestive system, _____.

is considered sterile

contains about 50 percent bacterial cells

has passed through the liver

started as food delivered to the stomach via the trachea

Which molecules do mammals use to store extra glucose  in their muscles?

A.Starch
B.Glycogen
C.Baleen
D.Myosin

Answers

B. Glycogen (animal starch)

its b hope this helps you out bc it did me

Growth on the macconkey agar and na plates was recorded as good growth poor growth. what did you use to establish what constituted good growth?

Answers

Microbiological experiments are conducted to analyse the growth pattern and capabilities to consume a substrate and undergo multiplcation in number and mass for multiple microbes. Generally, agar or brotg remains the preliminary substrates for analysis of microbial growth. The usual practices include dilution of the stock solution, plating on the plate and observations after a growth period of atleast 24 hours. The number of colonies appearing on the plate are observed and counted manually or automatically. Using appropriate mathematical formula, the actual number of microbial units can be calculated in thw stock solution.

Thus, based upon number of colonies appearing on the plate, the growth can be distinguished as following:

1. No growth: this refers to no appearance of any growth on plate, neither diluted nor stock solution.

2. Poor growth: Qualitatively, poor growth refers to appearance of only 10 or less number of colonies in the stock solution. Such stocks are further concentrated and re-analysed for growth.

3. Good growth: Good microbial growth refers to appearance of 15 or more colonies in the stock solution. Such solutions are considered as moderately concentrated in nature.

Thus, based upon the above mentioned qualitative analyses, the nature of growth can be determined easily.

The membranes of neurons at rest are very permeable to _____ but only slightly permeable to _____. hints the membranes of neurons at rest are very permeable to _____ but only slightly permeable to _____. na+; cl– k+; na+ k+; cl– na+; k+

Answers

The membranes of neurons at rest are very permeable to K+ but only slightly permeable to Na+. The sodium – potassium pump carry both Na and K ion through the membrane to balance the leakage. Na+ is pushed out of the cell and K+ is pulled into the cell.

Neuronal membranes at rest are highly permeable to potassium ions (K+) and slightly permeable to sodium ions (Na+), which contributes to the neuron's resting membrane potential.

The membranes of neurons at rest are very permeable to potassium (K+), but only slightly permeable to sodium (Na+). In its resting state, a neuron's cell membrane has numerous potassium leak channels that allow for the efflux of K+ ions, contributing to the negative resting membrane potential inside the neuron. On the other hand, the permeability of the neuron's membrane to Na+ is significantly lower; there are very few sodium leak channels, and the Na+ ions that do enter are actively pumped out by the sodium-potassium pump.

________ is a common boundary where different parts of a system interact.

Answers

Answer:  An "interface" .
__________________________________________________

Answer:

The answer is the interface

Explanation:

Interface is defined as the surface between two portions of matter or the space in which they have a common boundary. For example, the interface allows to know the separation surface between two liquids. In addition to this, the interface allows molecules or particles to cross the membrane, for example, what happens in the osmosis process.

How does the serratus anterior function as an antagonist to the rhomboid muscles?

Answers

Answer: Serratus anterior abducts the scapula and rhomboids adducts the scapula.

Serratus anterior is a muscle that originates  of the 1st to 8th ribs at the side of the thorax and inserts in the medial border of the scapula. This muscle during contraction abducts the scapula and the rhomboids muscles do the opposite by retracting the scapula toward the vertebral column(adducts).




Final answer:

The serratus anterior functions as an antagonist to the rhomboid muscles by performing protraction of the scapula, which is the opposite action of the rhomboids' retraction of the scapula.

Explanation:

The serratus anterior is a large and flat muscle that originates on the ribs and inserts onto the medial border of the scapula. Its primary function is to pull the scapula forward and around the rib cage, a motion known as protraction. This movement is opposite to that of the rhomboid muscles, which retract the scapula by pulling it towards the vertebral column.

Antagonistic muscles have opposite actions. When the serratus anterior contracts, it works against the rhomboids. If the rhomboids are contracting to bring the scapula medially (retraction), the serratus anterior will be relaxed. Conversely, when the serratus anterior contracts to move the scapula laterally (protraction), the rhomboids will be relaxed. This opposition is what makes the serratus anterior an antagonist to the rhomboids.

What do you get when you cross a shark with a snowball?

Answers

The answer is: Frostbite


If you put the letters of the word "frostbite" on your worksheet, each one of them will correspond to a number, and those numbers are the answers to the questions on the worksheet.
Frostbite is a play of words between a bite of a shark and the cold of the snowball.

Which part of the reproductive system and a fluid that provides a source of energy for the active sperm?

Answers

Seminal vesicles. Hope it helps.

A camel's hump is an example of what adaptation

Answers

The humps are actually fatty tissue reservoirs. The Humps minimize the insulating effect on a camels body to protect it from the hot climates.

When animal cells undergo cell division, several cellular structures aid the the movement of chromosomes into the two new daughter cells. What are these cellular structures? A) DNA and the resulting transcribed RNA. B) Nuceolus and the proteins it produces. C) Centrioles and the spindle fibers they produce. D) Smooth ER and the proteins produced and packaged there.

Answers

The C) Centrioles and the spindle fibers they produce aid the movement of chromosomes into the two new daughter cells.  

Cell division seems to be limited by the length of chromosomal structures called ____________.

Answers

The answer is chromosomes. The chromosome contains the DNA nuclei. It contains all the genetic material of the parents.It is often duplicated in the cell metaphase of the cell division. Chromosomes differ from one organism to another. They are often visible under the microscope.

In which days of mansturation cycle no egg will be there ?????

Answers

a menstruation cycle usually has 4 phrases. around 28 days, or a month. menstruation, repair phrase, receptive phrase, and premenstrual phrase. between repair phrase and receptive phrase, an ovum is release from an ovary. that usually occurs during the 13th to 15th day of the cycle. therefore, AROUND the first 12 days should not be any eggs. note that each women has different cycle lengths and each cycle may be different.

Final answer:

The menstrual cycle includes a phase called ovulation, typically around day 14 of a 28-day cycle, when an egg is released and can be fertilized. Outside the context of ovulation and after menopause, no viable eggs are present or released.

Explanation:

The question is addressing the menstrual cycle and the availability of an egg for fertilization. In a typical cycle, ovulation occurs around the midpoint of the cycle, nearly day 14 of a 28-day cycle. However, eggs are not available at all times during the menstrual cycle. During menopause, which usually happens to women in their mid-40s to mid-50s, the ovaries lose their sensitivity to Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH). As a result, menstrual periods become less frequent and finally cease, leading to the point where no eggs are matured and released, making natural conception impossible.

Moreover, outside of the reproductive years and outside the ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, eggs are not mature or released. During menstrual cycles, an egg, once released during ovulation, is viable for fertilization for only about 12-24 hours. If it is not fertilized within this time frame, it will degenerate and be reabsorbed by the body. If fertilization does not occur, the menstrual cycle progresses to menstruation, and the cycle starts anew without an egg present until the next ovulation.

The mpf protein complex turns itself off by _____.

Answers

Final answer:

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by the targeted degradation of its cyclin subunit towards the end of mitosis, allowing the cell to progress to the next stage of the cell cycle.

Explanation:

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by initiating the degradation of its cyclin subunit. MPF, also known as Mitosis Promoting Factor, is composed of two subunits: cyclin and cyclin-dependent kinase (cdk). While levels of cdk remain relatively constant, the levels of cyclin vary, accumulating during the G₁ phase and peaking at mitosis before they are targeted for degradation. This degradation process involves proteasomes that break down cyclin, leading to the inactivation of MPF towards the end of mitosis. The breaking down of cyclin is a critical step in ensuring that MPF activity ceases, allowing the cell to exit mitosis and enter the G₁ phase of the cell cycle.

Which memory system is preserved the longest, even into alzheimer's disease?

Answers

procedural memory is preserved the longest

All _____ stimuli and responses are inborn, such as salivating at the sight of food.

Answers

All UNCONDITIONED stimuli and responses are inborn, such as salivating in the sight of food.
Unconditioned stimulus is a stimulus that unconditionally, naturally and automatically trigger a response. For instance, food is an unconditioned stimulus for an hungry animal and the unconditioned response is salivating. 

What stomach secretion is needed to produce mature erythrocytes?

Answers

Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein principally secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach. This secretion is needed to produce mature erythrocytes. Its secretion is governed by the same biochemical processes that regulate acid secretion and its action is to assist in the absorption of vitamin B12.

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How are codons like words in an instruction manual?
A. They tell cells the specific sequence of amino acids for making a protein.
B. They are made up of 26 different nucleotides that are like letters of the alphabet.
C. They tell cells the specific sequence of nucleic acids for making a nucleotide.
D. They are made up of 20 different nucleotides that each stand for one kind of amino acid.

Answers

They tell cells the specific sequence of amino acids for making a protein.

They tell cells the specific sequence of amino acids for making a protein.

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