Explanation:
compliment activation is the lysis,(destruction) of bacterial, viral, fungal, through the membrane attack complexes.
Why is the archaea domain closer to eukarya than bacteria?
Answer:
Archaea domain is closer to eukarya than bacteria because genetically they are more similar to Eukarya than Bacteria.
Explanation:
Options for this question are:
They both lack a nucleus and contain cytoplasm. The unique functional adaptations of Archaea are more similar to Eukarya adaptations. They both evolved in the same geological time period. Genetically, the Archaea are more similar to Eukarya than Bacteria. They both have membrane-bound organelles. Archaea is not closer to Eukarya because it contains prokaryotic cells just like Bacteria.Archaea are unicellular prokaryotic organisms, which share many characteristics with bacteria, however, the existence of metabolic functions and genes similar to eukaryotic organisms suggest that there is a genetic link between the two. Even the enzymes responsible for genetic processing, such as transcriptases and translation enzymes, are similar to those in eukaryotic cells.
The theory that establishes the relationship between Archaea and Eukaryotic suggests the existence of a common ancestor, whose later evolution allowed an Archaea to join a protobacteria to form a eukaryotic cell, and hence their genetic relationship.
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If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________. A) threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase B) potassium channels compensate and no change in heart rate would occur C) heart rate would decrease, but blood pressure would rise due to the excess sodium present D) tetanic contraction would occur due to the short absolute refractory period of cardiac muscle
Answer:
A,
Explanation
Increase membrane permeability to rapid sodium influx leads to fast depolarization.With continuous rapid opening now , threshold will be reached onetime.
Hence fast propagation of action potential occurs . since reploarization and refractive period now shortened, due to increase rate of depolarization .Rapid action potential will be propagated and transmitted in the cardiac cells. Leading contraction rapid systolic contraction.
Increase in sodium ion concentration in the cardiac cells leads to retention of fluids( the high solute potential draws water in from surrounding tissues and plasma by osmosis) in the cardiac muscles cells. This leads to increase in blood pressure, and the increasing after load leads to rapid heart rate.
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, the threshold would be reached more quickly and the heart rate would increase. Option A
Explanation:If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase.
The membrane potential of pacemaker cells increases as sodium ions diffuse through the always-open sodium ion channels, causing the electrical potential to rise.
This prepotential depolarization mechanism accounts for the auto rhythmic property of cardiac muscle. By increasing the rate of sodium influx, the membrane potential would reach the threshold more rapidly, leading to a faster heart rate.
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In which animals are the blood and the interstitial fluid considered to be the same body fluid?
Answer:
In insects such as cockroach, grasshopper
Explanation:
Insects such as grasshopper has open circulatory, in them the body fluid is the hemolymph. The hemolymph does contain any respiratory pigment. It bathes the organs directly as it is pumped between open spaces in the body.
Thus, in insects, the blood and the interstitial fluid considered to be the same body fluid?
________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.
Answer:
eccrine glands, sebaceous glands , apocrine glands
Explanation:
Eccrine sweat glands are located on all over the body and secret water and electrolyte to regulate body temperature and excretion of waste substances too.
Sebaceous glands are located at the place where hair is present except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
Apocrine glands are located in armpits, the groin, and around the nipples of the breast the sweat releases from the apocrine have some odor too.
Florence Nightingale was a nursing pioneer who challenged prejudices against women and elevated the status of all nurses. Which statement accurately describes one of her accomplishments?
a.She established the fact that nursing is the same as medicine.
b.She promoted the addition of nursing education as part of a medical degree.
c.She established the tenets of the American Red Cross.
d.She promoted the publication of books about nursing and health care.
Explanation:
Florence Nightingale raised the status of nursing to a respected occupation, improved the nature of nursing care, and established present day nursing education. She advanced the production of books about nursing education and health care. Her conviction with respect to nursing was that it was independent and particular from the act of medication. She didn't belief that nursing training ought to be a piece of a clinical degree. Clara Barton built up the American Red Cross in 1882.Suppose the government has imposed a price floor on the market for soybeans. Which of the following events could transform the price floor from one that is not binding into one that is binding?a. Farmers use improved, draught-resistant seeds, which lowers the cost of growing soybeans.b. The number of farmers selling soybeans decreases.c. Consumers' income increases, and soybeans are a normal good.d. The number of consumers buying soybeans increases.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Price floor is a minimum price determined by the government at which a particular item can be sold. It is legal to sell the item on the minimum price which is often imposed by the government when farmers or sellers of the item convince that market price is not fair without a price floor.
In this case the farmers are farmers use improved, drought resistant seeds, which lowers the cost of growing soybeans which can transform the price floor.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
In the context of a government-imposed price floor on soybeans, an increase in the number of consumers buying soybeans could potentially transform a non-binding price floor into a binding one. This is because the rise in demand could drive the equilibrium price above the current price floor, making the floor price binding.
Explanation:In the context of this question, a price floor is a minimum price set by the government at a level above the market equilibrium price. If the government sets a floor price on soybeans, it sets a price that it will not allow the price of soybeans to fall below, even if market conditions would require it to. If the floor price is set above the equilibrium price, it is known as a binding price floor.
The scenario that could transform the price floor from not binding to binding would be Option D: 'The number of consumers buying soybeans increases.' This event could push the market demand for soybeans up, pushing up the equilibrium price. If this new, higher equilibrium price exceeds the price floor, then the price floor becomes binding. The government would then need to buy the surplus soybeans that are not sold in order to keep the market price at the floor price.
Conversely, if farmers use better seeds (Option A) or the number of farmers decrease (Option B), this could increase supply, which would lower the equilibrium price and make a price floor less likely to bind. Similarly, if consumers' incomes increase and soybeans are a normal good (Option C), this could also increase demand, but depending on the elasticity of the demand for soybeans, it may not increase the price enough to make a price floor binding.
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The enzyme phosphofructokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate and adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) activates the enzyme phosphofructokinase (PFK) by binding at a site distinct from the substrate-binding site. This is an example of:__________.
Answer: This is an example of allosteric regulation or modulation.
Explanation: Allostery is a process by which a ligand binds to a site on the enzyme that is different from the substrate binding site. This site is different from the active site and it is called allosteric site. Allostery can be positive or negative. If the binding of the ligand to the allosteric site of the enzyme activates the binding of the substrate to the active site of the enzyme, it is known as positive allostery but if the binding of a ligand to the allosteric site of the enzyme inhibits the binding of the substrate to the enzyme active site, it is known as negative allostery or allosteric inhibition. The binding of ADP to the allosteric site of phosphofructokinase (PKF) activates the enzyme, it is therefore a positive allostery.
Tong et al. (1998) used binocular rivalry to test brain responses when the person perceived a house or a face. When the person perceived the face, activity in the _____ increased
Answer:
Parahippocampal place area (PPA)
Explanation:
Binocular rivalry is the visual event that require non-cognitive switching between two images. This happens when a person is being shown two images simultaneously, and is only conscious to one image at a time. That image is said to be dominant and the other suppressed.
PPA is increased because it is this area in the brain that is stimulated by visual segments such as pictures.
Final answer:
When a person perceives a face, the face recognition areas of the brain show increased activity. This activity is specific to faces and is different from the brain regions that process places or houses. Older adults show activity in both regions, which correlates with better memory for associated faces and places.
Explanation:
The study by Tong et al. (1998), which explored brain responses using binocular rivalry, found that when a person perceived a face, there was increased activity in the face recognition areas of the brain. These feature detectors are tuned to respond to particular objects, faces being one of the key stimuli. In contrast, places or houses would activate a different region. This is consistent with findings from fMRI scans and research using transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) that disrupting the face recognition areas leads to a temporary inability to recognize faces while still being able to recognize houses, indicating the specificity of these brain regions for processing certain types of visual information.
In essence, the research suggests that in young adults, only the brain region for processing faces is active when a face is perceived, unlike in older adults, where both face and place regions show activity. A resultant effect is that older adults tend to remember faces associated with certain places better, as indicated by a surprise memory test conducted after brain scanning.
Your sister-in-law is amazed at her 9-year-old son. She can remember when her son was not able to sit and listen to a story for very long and now he is able to listen intently and remember the story in very good detail. What two advances occur during middle childhood in information processing abilities that assist with his newly developed abilities?
Answer: Attention and memory
Explanation:
Attention and memory are the two skills developed in the body which is led to the development of abilities.
As a child he had a good memory that is the reason he remember the whole story. This happened at the time when he was not able to sit.
When he grew up he started taking interest in the story and paid attention to the story again.
This is the reason the child remembers the story very well.
Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes' Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?a) the splitting of waterb) the absorption of light energy by chlorophyllc) the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem Id) the synthesis of ATP
Answer:
D) the synthesis of ATP
Explanation:
The chloroplast possesses the thylakoids and stroma in which the thylakoid is associated with the light reaction and ATP synthesis and the stroma is associated with the Calvin cycle.
The membrane of the thylakoid is involved in maintaining the membrane potential in which ATP synthase are embedded. The F1 unit of the ATP synthase or rotor rotates when the Hydrogen moves from the thylakoid membrane to the stroma.
If the membrane is punctured then it will disrupt the proton flow and process of ATP synthesis is disrupted.
Thus, Option-D is correct.
Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that
Explanation:
The given statement implies that arthropods had more time to co-evolve with land plants than vertebrates
Co-evolution is a type of evolution in which two species reciprocally affect each others evolution in a way that they both evolve togetherFossil evidence gives the progressive interaction between arthropods and land plants through the later Paleozoic and Mesozoic eraEvidence includes the evolution of chemical defense strategy by plants along with the evolution of different mouthpart design in new insect groupsLeaf galls became common in Cretaceous coinciding with the evolution of several new insect groups and plantsData from coprolites(trace fossils) suggest that spore feeding preceded leaf feeding,experiments have indicated that some spores remain viable after passing through the gut and hence this feeding habit might have been advantageous to some early plants for propagule formationInterestingly, even though hemophilia in the royal families began in England, they were actually the only one of these four families to NOT be affected by it. If Alice's daughter Alix had accepted a marriage proposal from George V, this may have changed history greatly. If we were to rewrite history, pairing Alix and George V together, what is the probability any of their offspring would have hemophilia?
Answer:
Alice's daughter Alix =X X* George V= XY Progeny are;XX, XY, X*X, X*Y 50 % males would be infected 50% male normal50% female normal, 50 female carrier.Explanation:
Hemophilia is an inherited disease and it follows an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes for hemophilia disease are located on the X chromosome. In males one mutated copy of the chromosome X is sufficient to cause the condition, because male contain only one gene. Female contain XX chromosome, so both the chromosome must have mutated for causing this disease.
According to study of Queen Victoria (1891-1901) of England, Alice's daughter Alix was X linked carrier and George V was normal male,
so if they got married, their children would be
parents genotype X X* XY
progeny
XX, XY, X*X, X*Y
50% males would be infected
50% male normal
50% female normal,
50 female carrier.
The correct probability that any of the offspring of Alix and George V would have hemophilia is [tex]$\frac{1}{2}$[/tex].
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. This means that the gene for hemophilia is located on the X chromosome, and a male will have hemophilia if he inherits a single copy of the hemophilia allele (since males have only one X chromosome), while a female will have hemophilia only if she inherits two copies of the hemophilia allele (one from each parent).
Queen Victoria was a carrier of hemophilia, and she passed the gene to some of her descendants. If Alix, who was a carrier (as her mother Alice was a daughter of Queen Victoria), had married George V, their children's chances of inheriting hemophilia would depend on the sex of the child:
- Male offspring (XY) have a 50% chance of inheriting the hemophilia gene from their mother (since they inherit their single X chromosome from their mother). Therefore, male offspring have a 50% chance of having hemophilia.
- Female offspring (XX) have a 50% chance of inheriting the hemophilia gene from their mother. However, they would only have hemophilia if they also inherited a hemophilia gene from their father, which is not mentioned in the question. Assuming George V was not a carrier, the female offspring would not have hemophilia but would have a 50% chance of being carriers.
A nurse and a nursing student are discussing the plan of care for a patient with schizophrenia. The patient, who has been taking a high-potency FGA for 2 months, has become restless and constantly needs to be in motion. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?
a. "Anticholinergic medications may help control these symptoms."
b. "Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA."
c. "The provider may try a low-potency FGA instead of the high-potency FGA."
d. "This patient may need to take a benzodiazepine or a beta blocker."
Answer:
Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA.
Explanation:
Schizophrenia may be defined as the medical condition in which the individual is not able to understand the reality and interpret the reality in the different ways.
FGA (First-generation antipsychotics) is the treatment used for the patients suffering from schizophrenia. This medication is quite reasonable and cheap. Even after the failure of FGA, the patient needs to go for the different treatment. The further increase of FGA doses might affect the individual health.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
A significant body of research indicates ____ for exam stress; large scale disasters; loss of a spouse; response to viral challenge including herpes simplex, Epstein Barr, HIV, and cold virus; and long-term caregiving by loved ones of persons with dementia. immune system growth immune system suppression increased growth of phagocytes immune dysregulation
Answer:
immune system suppression
Explanation:
Research indicated suppression of the immune system can have many causes like stress during exam releases corticosteroid which is a stress hormone that reduce the function of the immune cell thereby suppress the immune system.
Emotional stress like loss of a spouse or loved ones suppresses the immune system of a person and makes a person vulnerable to disease. Viral challenges especially those that attack the immune system suppress our immune system.
Research suggests that Dementia caregivers are at increased risk of lower immunity, cardiovascular disease and lower immune response towards vaccine.
Dimitri has been married before and has two biological children. He has just married Natasha, who has also been married before and has a biological son. Their family is an example of a _____ family.
Membranous channel extending inward from muscle fiber membrane
Answer:
The correct answer is- transverse tubules.
Explanation:
Transverse tubules are the membranous channel that extends inward from the muscle cell, these are the actually the addition or extensions of the cell membrane that invade into the center of muscles cells except smooth muscles.
The role of the transverse tubules is to generating the stimulus or signals from the sarcolemma to down in the cell. Sarcolemma are the surface of the cells in muscles.
Thus, the correct answer is - transverse tubules.
The T-tubule is the membranous channel that extends inward from the muscle fiber membrane, allowing the action potential to trigger the release of calcium ions from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum, which initiates muscle contraction.
Explanation:The membranous channel extending inward from the muscle fiber membrane that you are asking about is known as the T-tubule (transverse tubule). These are periodic invaginations of the sarcolemma that ensure the action potential can travel into the interior of the cell. When an action potential propagates along the sarcolemma, it enters the T-tubules and triggers the opening of calcium channels in the membrane of the adjacent Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR). This results in the diffusion of calcium ions (Ca++) into the sarcoplasm, which is key in initiating the contraction of the muscle fiber's contractile units, known as sarcomeres.
Sustainable use of forests in the united states would likely be encouraged by
Answer:
recycling
Explanation:
Match the definitions with their vocabulary terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ______process in which organisms with extreme expressions of a trait are removed.b. ______process in which shift of a population toward an extreme version of a beneficial trait.c. ______process in which individuals with average traits are removed, creating two populations with extreme traits
Answer:
1. Stabilizing selection
2. Directional selection
3. Disruptive selection
Explanation:
Natural selection is a process that is considered the mechanism of evolution. The natural selection selects the species in one of the three ways: directional, stabilizing and disruptive selection.
1. Stabilizing selection- occurs when nature favors the average phenotype of the species and the extreme phenotype of the traits is not favored.
2. Directional selection-takes place when one of the extreme traits of a population of a species favored the most and the allele frequency sifts to that direction.
3. Disruptive selection-occurs when both the extreme traits are favored by nature and the population evolves into two separate populations.
When an analyst discovers that a set of classes have a similar set of attributes and methods, it may make sense to _____ out the similarities into a separate class.
Answer:
Factor
Explanation:
Factoring out involves noting the similar attributes between the classes. It’s such information that helps in the formation of a new class according to the distinct similarities between them after several tests and observation may have been conducted.
What events occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?
Answer:
In prokaryotes nucleus is not present so replication transcription and translation takes place in the cytoplasm in the prokaryotes while in eukaryotes replication and translation takes place in the nucleus.
In prokaryotes, transcription and translation are coupled but in eukaryotes, transcription and translation are separated by nucleus and post-transcriptional modification takes place in eukaryotes, not in prokaryotes.
In prokaryotes, ATP synthesis takes place in cell membranes because they do not have mitochondria. Eukaryotes contain mitochondria where ATP synthesis takes place in them.
The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
Answer:
A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Explanation:
Since animals have nerve and muscle tissue and plants do not, which of the following events in earth’s history would be associated with adaptive radiation of many groups of animals, and not particularly that of plants?
A. increase in atmospheric O2
B. great increase in land mass area
C. changes in global ocean temperatures
D. meteorite impacts and volcanic eruptions
E. earthquake activity causing increased barrier formation
Answer:
The correct option is A) increase in atmospheric O2
Explanation:
The nerve cells and the muscle cells suggest that the the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere was an adaptive radiation which brought the existence of different animals. The conditions became favorable for different animals to survive on Earth only when the availability of oxygen improved in the atmosphere. As animal cells like the muscle cells require a constant supply of oxygen, we can hence say that increase in atmospheric oxygen was the adaptive radiation for supporting many group of animals.
PLZZZZZZ HELPPPPPPP ASAPPPP!!! 4
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Question 14.- T pairs A A pairs T G pairs C C pairs G
Original strand TAC TAA GCA
New strand ATG ATT CGT (Third choice)
Question 15.-
Correct choices
a. Guanine base pairs with cytosine
c. Nucleotides with adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine are the monomers.
f. Thymine base pairs with adenine
Inputs and outputs of the light reactions
From the following choices, identify those that are the inputs and outputs of the light reactions. (Recall that inputs to chemical reactions are modified over the course of the reaction as they are converted into products. In other words, if something is required for a reaction to occur, and it does not remain in its original form when the reaction is complete, it is an input.)
Drag each item to the appropriate bin. If the item is not an input to or an output from the light reactions, drag it to the "not input or output" bin.
Input: NADP+, ADP, water, light
Output: ATP, NADPH, O2
Not input or output: CO2, G3P, glucose
Answer:
Input: NADP+, ADP, water, light
Output: ATP, NADPH, O2
Not input or output: CO2, G3P, glucose
Explanation:
Photosynthetic process is a unique process undergone by autotrophs like plants in their Chloroplast. It involves two major stages viz: light stage and light-independent stage. The light stage is the stage that requires energy from sunlight in order to occur. It occurs when photons of light (input) from the sun strikes Chlorophyll pigments in the Chloroplast. This ignites the Chlorophyll molecule and makes it excited. The excited state of the chlorophyll molecule releases electrons that split water molecules (input) in a process called PHOTOLYSIS OF WATER, into hydrogen ions, electrons and oxygen.
The hydrogen ions is accepted by the NADP+ (input) molecule and reduces it to NADPH (output). Also, the electron generated creates a proton pump in the thylakoid membrane that powers the phosphorylation of ADP (input) into ATP (output). During the light reaction, specifically, PHOTOLYSIS OF WATER, oxygen gas (output) is given off.
Note that C02, G3P and glucose are neither inputs nor outputs of the light stage. They are rather involved in the next stage of the photosynthetic process, which is light-independent stage or Calvin Cycle.
NADP+, ADP, water, and light all serve as inputs to the light reactions. The light processes produce ATP, NADPH, and oxygen as byproducts. CO2, G3P, and glucose are not input or output in the light processes.
Thus, NADP+, ADP, water, and light are the ingredients for the light reactions. Water serves as an electron source, NADP+ serves as an electron acceptor, ADP is a necessary step in the production of ATP, and light powers the processes.
Chemical energy in the form of ATP, high-energy electron carrier NADPH, and oxygen, a consequence of water splitting, are all products of the light processes. The ensuing dark processes, such the Calvin cycle, which uses ATP and NADPH to turn carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose, depend on these outputs.
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Which of the following statements about meiofauna is FALSE?
a.Meiofauna feed primarily on bacteria removed from the surface of sediment particles.
b.Meiofauna are found only in the supratidal (spray) zone.
c.Meiofauna are found from the intertidal zone to deepest ocean trenches.
d.Meiofauna live in the tiny spaces between sediment particles.
e.Meiofauna are very small organisms, generally only 0.1 to 2 millimeters (0.004 to 0.08 inch) long.
Answer:
Option-(E): Meiofauna are very small organisms, generally only 0.1 to 2 millimeters (0.004 to 0.08 inch) long.
Explanation:
The are very minute in size and live inside the benthic region of the seabed. Along, with that they are also found to be living in both fresh and sea water, which makes it able to have more nutritional.But, they are however much smaller in body size as compared to other bacterial life inside the environment.
Foods contain ________, compounds that confer color, taste, and other characteristics of foods. Foods that have been around a long time, such as , vegetables, fruit, and meats, are _________ foods, while _________ are foods that may have been subjected to milling, texture alterations, or cooking. Rice, Potatoes, or corn are _________ that provide a foundations for a healthful diet.
Answer:
Phytochemical, Whole Foods, Processed foods, Staple foodsExplanation:
Phytochemical are compounds that confer color, taste, and other characteristics of foods, are produced by plants through primary or secondary metabolism.
Whole Foods :Foods that have been around a long time, such as , vegetables, fruit, and meats, are Whole Food foods.
Processed foods: are those food that has been cooked, canned, or changed in nutritional composition and other characteristics with preserving or preparing in lots of different ways.
Staple foods :that provide a foundations for a healthful diet.
example: Rice, Potatoes, or corn.
Foods contain vitamins, minerals, and fiber. Whole foods are natural and unprocessed, while processed foods have undergone alterations. Rice, potatoes, and corn are staple foods for a healthful diet.
Explanation:Foods contain vitamins, minerals, and fiber, which are compounds that confer color, taste, and other characteristics of foods. Foods that have been around a long time, such as vegetables, fruit, and meats, are whole foods, while processed foods are foods that may have been subjected to milling, texture alterations, or cooking. Rice, potatoes, or corn are staple foods that provide a foundation for a healthful diet.
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True or False? The pharynx and larynx are generally not coordinated during swallowing in an unresponsive person, making them more prone to choking.
Explanation:
True. During swallowing, the pharynx changes from airway to a food channel channel.During mastication, the food bolus aggregates in the pharynx before swallow commencement. The structures in the oral pit, pharynx and larynx serve various capacities in breathing, talking, rumination and swallowing, Unsourced material might be tested and removed. The nasal cavity, The pharynx is the piece of the throat behind the mouth and larynx the cylinders going down to the lungs and stomach .Nourishment and fluid pass in reverse into the throat on their way to the stomach. Air pass out through the larynx and into the trachea.Eukaryotes have their DNA arranged in numerous double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins; these structures are called ___________
Answer:
In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes
Explain what a haploid cell is as if you were talking to an 8-10-year-old. (Please help, I'm working on a storybook about meiosis for children. Let's learn about how you came to be, children-os!)
Answer:
A haploid cell can be described as a type of cell which comprises of only a complete set of chromosome. Haploid cells are present in the gamete cells or sex cells. A sperm cell and an egg is haploid.
Diploid cells can be described as a type of cell which comprises of two sets of chromosomes. A zygote is diploid. All somatic cells of the body are diploid.
Answer:
chromosomes
Explanation:
Speciation occurs when populations of a species become so different over time that they can no longer interbreed. Which of the
following best describes the relationship between speciation and biodiversity?
A.
An increase in biodiversity generally results in a decrease in speciation rate.
B. Ecosystems with low biodiversity always have a low rate of speciation.
C.
Speciation results in an increase in overall biodiversity.
D.
Speciation can only occur in ecosystems with low biodiversity
Reset
Submit
Answer: C
Explanation:
speciation results iIn more species, therefore a greater biodiversity
Speciation results in an increase in overall biodiversity. The correct option is C.
What is speciation?The process by which populations develop into different species is known as speciation.
In contrast to anagenesis, which refers to phyletic evolution within lineages, cladogenesis, the separation of lineages, was first described by the scientist Orator F. Cook in 1906.
Rivers change their courses, mountains rise, continents drift, organisms migrate, and what was once a continuous population is split into two or more smaller populations.
According to scientists, who believe that geographic isolation is a common method for the process of speciation to start.
The most frequent type of speciation, allopatric speciation, takes place when populations of a species become geographically isolated. Gene flow between populations stops when they are divided.
The amount of biodiversity as a whole rises as a result of speciation.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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