Answer:
27%
Explanation:
Wild-type E. coli grow best at 37 but can grow efficiently up to 42 . An E. coli strain has a mutation of the sigma subunit that results in an RNA polymerase holoenzyme that is stable and transcribes at wild-type levels at 37 . The mutant holoenzyme is progressively destabilized as the temperature is raised, and it completely denatures and ceases to carry out transcription at 42 . Relative to wild-type growth, characterize the ability of the mutant strain to carry out transcription at: 37 degrees A. organism does not transcribe gene, B. organism transcribes slowly,C. organism transcribes a wild type, D. organism transcribes faster than a wild type What term best characterizes the type of mutation exhibited by the mutant bacterial strain?
Answer:Temperature- Sensitive Mutation, C
Explanation:
AT 37°C , The organism transcribe a wild type--C.
The type of mutation exhibited by the mutant bacterial strain is a Temperature- Sensitive Mutation. This is because at different temperatures, the organism transcribes differently ie transcribes at wild-type levels at 37°C and completely denatures and ceases to carry out transcription at 42°C .
Which mutation would most likely have the least effect on an organism's survival? A. a mutation that causes a change in a protein that influences the eye color B. a mutation that causes a change in a protein found in the red blood cells C. a mutation that causes a change in a protein that helps the heart to beat D. a mutation that causes a change in a protein that allows digestion to happen
Answer:
I believe answer choice A is correct.
Explanation:
It's just a color of it's EYES. Can't be that noticable if it's trying to be camouflaged.
Final answer:
A mutation causing a change in eye color protein would likely have the least effect on an organism's survival, as eye color is not a vital physiological trait affecting survival like red blood cell function or heart operation.
Explanation:
Which mutation would most likely have the least effect on an organism's survival? Out of the four options provided, a mutation that causes a change in a protein that influences eye color (Option A) would most likely have the least effect on an organism's survival. This is because eye color is generally not a trait that directly affects the physiological functions necessary for survival such as breathing, circulation, or digestion. In contrast, mutations affecting proteins involved in vital functions such as those found in red blood cells (Option B), that help the heart to beat (Option C), or that allow digestion to happen (Option D) are more likely to be detrimental to the organism's fitness and survival.
Mutations can lead to a change in the structure and function of proteins. When mutations occur in genes that encode for essential proteins, the resultant protein might not function correctly, potentially leading to serious health issues. For instance, sickle cell disease is caused by a mutation that alters the hemoglobin protein, impacting red blood cell function. Conversely, mutations like the change in eye color protein tend to be neutral mutations, as they generally do not affect an organism's fitness or ability to survive and reproduce.
The episome in an Hfr strain is inserted near the trp (tryptophan operon) locus. This Hfr strain is grown with an F- Trp- strain. From this mating, we isolate an F+ Trp+ strain that can readily impart the Trp+ phenotype to F- Trp- strains, but no other traits are ever transferred. (When the original Hfr strain is mated with F? strains, traits other than Trp+ can be transferred, although at lower frequency than Trp+.) What most likely has happened?
Answer:
It is a typical Hfr mating, as trp gene is very closed to F plasmid, the Hfr bacteria donates its trp gene along with F plasmid and then process is disturbed.
Explanation:
"The most likely scenario is that a recombination event has occurred between the episome of the Hfr strain and the bacterial chromosome of the F- Trp- strain, resulting in the integration of the trp (tryptophan operon) locus into the F factor, creating an F' (prime) plasmid.
This F' plasmid carries the trp+ gene, which confers the ability to synthesize tryptophan, and can be transferred to other F- Trp- strains through conjugation.
Here's the explanation and logic behind this
1. The Hfr strain has an episome (a type of F factor) inserted near the trp locus on its chromosome. This allows for the transfer of chromosomal genes, including trp, to an F- strain during conjugation.
2. When the Hfr strain mates with an F- Trp- strain, the trp+ gene can be transferred to the recipient strain via conjugation. Since the trp locus is near the origin of transfer on the Hfr strain's chromosome, it is transferred first and with higher frequency.
3. The F' plasmid is formed when the trp+ gene from the Hfr strain is incorporated into the F factor through a recombination event. This F' plasmid can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome and carries the trp+ gene.
4. The F' plasmid can then be transferred to other F- Trp- strains through conjugation, imparting the Trp+ phenotype. Since the F' plasmid is smaller than the entire bacterial chromosome, it is transferred more efficiently than the larger segment of the chromosome that would be transferred by the Hfr strain.
5. The fact that no other traits are ever transferred along with the Trp+ phenotype suggests that the F' plasmid does not carry any other chromosomal genes from the original Hfr strain. This is consistent with the observation that the trp locus is the only gene that is consistently transferred at a high frequency.
6. The original Hfr strain can still transfer other traits to F- strains, but these traits are located further from the origin of transfer on the chromosome and are therefore transferred at a lower frequency. This is because the further away a gene is from the origin of transfer, the less likely it is to be completely transferred before the mating pair separates.
In summary, the formation of an F' plasmid carrying the trp+ gene through recombination best explains the observed results of the mating experiments. The F' plasmid can efficiently transfer the Trp+ phenotype to F- Trp- strains without transferring other chromosomal traits."
What is the best description of the geology of Mars?
Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun. The planet appears asymmetric with highlands and large volcanoes.
What is Geology of Mars?Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun with a dusty, cold, desert world with a very thin atmosphere. Mars is also a dynamic planet with different seasons such as, polar ice caps, canyons, extinct volcanoes, and evidence which it was even more active in the past.
Mars has heavily cratered highlands in the southern hemisphere, however younger, lower volcanic plains over much of its northern half. The Tharsis bulge, is as big as the North America, and this includes several huge volcanoes whereas the Olympus Mons is more than 20 kilometers high and 500 kilometers in diameter.
Mars appears asymmetric. Most of the southern hemisphere is heavily cratered and this resembles the moon's highlands. In contrast, the northern hemisphere of the planet is sparsely cratered and has many large volcanoes.
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You are studying a population of sparrows in which phenotype is determined by a single locus. Only two alleles for that locus are known for this population which are distinguished by the codes 'A' and 'a'. Distribution of phenotypes in the population indicates that 49% of the population is 'AA' homozygous, 42% are heterozygous, and 9% 'aa' homozygous. How do you determine the allele frequency for 'A' and 'a' based on these observations?
Answer:
allelic frequency a = 30%
allelic frequency A = 70%
Explanation:
You are studying a population of sparrows in which the phenotype is determined by a single locus. Only two alleles for this locus are known for this population, which are distinguished by the codes 'A' and 'a'. The distribution of phenotypes in the population indicates that 49% of the population is homozygous 'AA', 42% is heterozygous and 9% 'aa' homozygous. How is the allele frequency for 'A' and 'a' determined based on these observations?
According to the case, the allelic frequency for A and a will be searched with the data:
homozygotes AA = 49%
heterozygotes Aa = 42%
homozygous aa = 9%
Frequency of homozygotes 'aa'
(q 2) = 9/100 = 0.09
we can obtain the allelic frequency of a through the following formula:
a (q) = √0.09
The result will be
= 0.3
we change to percentage
= 30%
we have the following formula
p + q = 1
to find the allele frequency A, represented by p
p = 1 - 0.3
we get the following result
p = 0.7
we change to percentage
= 70%
Early in your own development, a subset of diploid cells called ____________ began to develop within your pre-ectodermal tissue. These cells will eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge. Still later they will go through meiosis and give rise to primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes.
Answer:
primary germ cells or primordial germ cells
Explanation:
During the early stages of embryonic development , primary germ cell or primordial germ cells develops within the pre-ectodermal tissue. they are diploid like other somatic cells and found in the primary ectoderm (epiblast) in the second week.
Primary germ cell moves through the gut of an embryo in order to develop gonads. Further they undergo meiosis process followed by cellular differentiation and five rise to mature gametes, either sperms (primary spermatocytes) or eggs (primary oocytes).
Hence, the correct answer is primary germ cells.
During early development, oogonia cells develop within the pre-ectodermal tissue and go through meiosis to form primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes. Oogenesis involves the completion of two meiotic divisions, resulting in the production of a secondary oocyte that is released during ovulation.
Explanation:In early development, a subset of diploid cells called oogonia begin to develop within the pre-ectodermal tissue. These cells eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge and later go through meiosis to give rise to primary oocytes in females or primary spermatocytes in males.
Oogenesis begins when an oogonium with the diploid number of chromosomes undergoes mitosis, producing a diploid daughter cell called a primary oocyte. The primary oocyte then goes through the first division of meiosis.
During oogenesis, the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division and forms a secondary oocyte and a polar body. The secondary oocyte is released during ovulation and, if fertilized, continues through the second meiotic division to produce a fertilized egg.
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Edit: Use the drop-down menus to select the storm that causes each environmental hazard.
Flash flood - (options: thunderstorm, tornado, hurricane)
Storm surge - (options: thunderstorm, tornado, hurricane)
Answer:
it is actually thunderstorm and hurricane
Explanation:
Environmental hazard flash flood is due to thunderstorms and storm surge is due to hurricanes.
What is an environmental hazard?The majority of flash flooding is brought on by thunderstorms that move slowly, move over the same region repeatedly, or bring heavy rainfall from hurricanes and tropical storms.
On rare occasions, ice or floating debris may build up near a natural or artificial obstacle and impede water movement. The unexpected increase in water caused by a storm's winds is known as a storm surge.
Storm surges and powerful waves can cause significant property damage and fatalities near the shore.
Therefore storm surges and a flash flood is an environmental hazards. condition by thunderstorm hurricane.
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A county has recently evolved from under developed to developed in the birth and death rate has stabilized. This is known as
A. Zero population growth
B. Death stabilization
C. Demographic transition
D. Birth stabilization
Answer:
C. Demographic transition
Explanation:
Suppose that each β–adrenergic receptor bound to epinephrine converts 100 molecules of the G???? subunit to the GTP-bound form, G????s. If each molecule of activated adenylate cyclase produces 1000 molecules of cAMP per second, how many molecules of cAMP are produced in 10 seconds after the formation of a single complex between epinephrine and the β–adrenergic receptor? Assume the pathway is fully responsive.
Answer:
The correct answer is 10^5*10 molecules of cAMP are produced.
Explanation:
It is given that when each molecule of epinephrine combines with the adrenergic receptor the transformation of 100 molecules of G-alpha takes place into their stimulated GTP form, which further stimulates adenylate cyclase. This stimulated adenylate cyclase further give rise to 1000 molecules of cAMP per second.
Therefore, in one second the production of 100 * 1000 or 10^5 cAMP molecules is taking place.
Thus, in 10 seconds, the production of 10 * 10^5 cAMP molecules will take place.
After epinephrine binds to a single β-adrenergic receptor, it activates 100 Gαₛ units, which each activate adenylate cyclase to produce 1000 cAMP molecules per second. Over 10 seconds, this results in the production of 1,000,000 molecules of cAMP.
The question concerns the biochemical pathway by which the hormone epinephrine activates the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in cells. When epinephrine binds to the β-adrenergic receptor, it activates a G-protein, which in turn activates adenylate cyclase. This activation leads to the conversion of ATP to cAMP. According to the supplied information, each β-adrenergic receptor bound to epinephrine activates 100 Gαₛ units, and each molecule of activated adenylate cyclase produces 1000 molecules of cAMP per second.
To calculate the total cAMP produced after 10 seconds, we multiply the number of Gαₛ units activated by the cAMP production rate of adenylate cyclase, and then by the duration of 10 seconds:
100 (Gαₛ units) x 1000 (cAMP per second) x 10 (seconds) = 1,000,000 cAMP molecules
Therefore, 1,000,000 molecules of cAMP are produced in 10 seconds after the formation of a single complex between epinephrine and the β-adrenergic receptor.
Read the scenario below and answer the question that follows. There are two rival pet stores located across the street from each other. One day, the power goes out. The pet store owners discover that the power will not be restored for many days. Without power, the fish in the fish tanks at each store will die. Although either individual could afford to purchase a generator individually, they agree to split the cost of a generator because they love fish more than they dislike each other. Once the generator is connected, their stores have the power restored and the fish are saved. Is this an example of a superordinate goal? Why or why not? Choose the most accurate answer. A. It is a superordinate goal because both pet store owners helped with the task. B. It is a superordinate goal because both pet store owners wanted to accomplish the goal. C. It is not a superordinate goal because only one pet store owner was interested in completing the goal. D. It is not a superordinate goal because it did not require both pet store owners to accomplish. Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D
Answer:
D. It is not a superordinate goal because it did not require both pet store owners to accomplish.
Explanation:
In this case, both pet stores are benefited and therefore it corresponds to a superordinate goal.
Which of the following will most likely reduce the acidity of rain in an area
Answer:
produce energy without using fossil fuels.
Explanation:
People can use renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power. Renewable energy sources help reduce acid rain because they produce much less pollution.
Which of the following factors does NOT influence biodiversity?
QUESTION 10 If a short sequence of DNA reads TAACGTCCAGGCAAA, what is the complementary sequence in the other strand of DNA? (just type the letters of the nucleotides)
Answer:
ATTGCAGGTCCGTTT
Explanation:
A always goes with T
C always goes with G
(I remember this because the letters C and G look like each other)
So, if you have the strand: ATGCA
The complementary strand will look like this: TACGT
Answer:
ATTGCAGGTCCGTTT
Explanation:
A goes to T and G goes to C and vise versa
Which marked location on the map above would you expect to have greatest biodiversity?
A. Taiga
B. Temperate forest
C. Desert
D. Tropical rain forest
The answer would be D. Tropical Rainforest, this would be due to the abundance of rain which creates plenty of vegetation and then, more herbivores will live in the rainforest, and the more herbivores there are, the more carnivores will come to the rainforest. The canopy of the tall trees also provide shelter for countless of thousands of species of birds.
Answer:
The answer is D. tropical rainforest, this is because of the immense vegetation which provides food to many species of animals, who also happen to be food for other animals
Explanation:
3. ¿Cuáles son las dos técnicas utilizadas para restaurar la biodiversidad?
Answer:
Las dos técnicas utilizadas para restaurar la biodiversidad son la biorremediación y el aumento biológico.
Explanation:
Why do you think the complementary base pairing between the two strands helps cells to detect and
repair errors in their DNA?
Answer: answer is.......
Explanation: Strands are complementary to each other, its mean that if one strand contain Adenine, Gunine and cytosine so on the other strand there will Thymine bond with Adenine, Cytosine with Gunanine and Gunanine with Cytosine. DNA molecules have an antiparallel structure - that is, the two strands of the helix run in ... Replication relies on complementary base pairing, that is the principle explained ... DNA replication occurs through the help of several enzymes.
Answer:
Strands are complementary to each other, strand contain Adenine, Thymine Gunine and cytosine the other strand will also have this just in a different pattern. They have an antiparallel structure, a complementary strand is needed in order for replication to occur, along with the help of many enzymes.
Describe the career of an agricultural extension agent, with a brief summary of the responsibilities, education/training, and benefits.
Answer:
agricultural extension agent are train expert that acts as a middle man between the farmers and research institute or organisation. they are saddled with the responsibilities of bringing new innovations, technologies, knowledge e.t.c concerning agriculture to farmers and they in turn takes farmers concerns, complains and outcry to research institute.
they help to teach farmers on how too use modern farm tools and technologies. the extension agent use different methods to arouse or captivate the farmers and they are agent of change in that they help people form their own organizations in order to be able to tackle their problems.
they pass through different training and workshops and belong to a professional body before they can be certified an agricultural extension agent.Agricultural extension trainning/programmes cover a broad area including improved crop varieties, better livestock control, improved water management, and the control of weeds, pests or plant diseases. they are well paid and derive maximum satisfaction when helping farmers and proffering solutions to their problems.
Explanation:
The type of muscle without obvious sarcomeres is
Final answer:
Smooth muscle is the type of muscle without obvious sarcomeres. It lacks the sarcomere morphology found in skeletal muscle and contraction is achieved by the sliding of actin and myosin filaments.
Explanation:
The type of muscle without obvious sarcomeres is smooth muscle. Smooth muscle tissue is not striated and lacks the sarcomere morphology found in skeletal muscle. Instead of sarcomeres, the actin and myosin filaments in smooth muscle slide past each other to cause contraction.
“Earth’s ecosystems recycle.” Is this
statement true or false? Explain your
answer.
True - well, for example in the rainforest, when leaves fall from trees, they create a layer on the ground. This waste is then broken down, and then the nutrients it contains is absorbed into the soil. The roots of plants then absorbs these nutrients. Eventually the leaves of those plants then fall, and the cycle starts again.
Earth's ecosystems recycle through various biogeochemical cycles, such as the water, carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus cycles, where substances are absorbed by living organisms and released back into the environment.
Explanation:The statement 'Earth’s ecosystems recycle' is true. Earth's ecosystems carry out the process of recycling through the biogeochemical cycles such as the water cycle, carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, phosphorus cycle, etc. In these cycles, substances are taken up by plants and animals, then released back into the environment, either directly, or indirectly after their death and decomposition. This constant transformation and reutilization make Earth’s ecosystems efficient recyclers.
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Which the following has the lowest ionization energy?
○ Br
○ Cl
○ F
○ I
Answer:A
Explanation:The answer is Br
Which advancement in technology has increased scientific knowledge of planets other than Earth?
cellular models
microscopes
probeware
rovers
I think Is Rovers they helped explore other planets such as mars
Answer: The correct answer is rovers :)
Explanation:
I got it right!
What do all protists have in common? Check all that apply.
Protists are organisms composed of one or more cells.
Protists’ cells contain a nucleus.
Protists live in dry environments.
Protists produce their own food from water.
Protists reproduce asexually or sexually.
Protists live in moist environments.
Answer: The answers are A,B,E,F
Explanation: because i listened to the wrong answers and they showed me what i had got wrong and it showed me the answers to the questions! IF YOU GUYS GET IT RIGHT LIKE THE ANSWER !! HOPE THIS HELPED!
Protists are eukaryotic organism that contains one or more cells and has a nucleus. They reproduce by both types of methods and live in moist environments. Thus, options A, B, E, and F are correct.
What are protists?Protists are one of the kingdoms along with plants, animals, and fungi. They are eukaryotic species that may contain more than one cell. They also contain a nucleus like the other eukaryotic cell and hence exhibits similar cellular processes.
They can reproduce through both modes of reproduction to produce progeny. Protists live in moist environments that are suitable places for reproduction and growth.
Therefore, the protists have a nucleus, can reproduce through both methods, and live in moist environments.
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How many amino acids must be obtained in the diet because they cannot be made by the body? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20
Answer:
The answer is 10 C.
Explanation:
Because your body can produce 10 of the 20 amino acids.
The number of amino acids that must be obtained in the diet because they cannot be made by the body is 10 amino acids. The correct option is C.
What are amino acids?Amino acids are organic substances that are made up of amino and carboxylic groups. They are building blocks of proteins. There are 20 types of amino acids. 10 are essential and 10 are non-essential amino acids.
Essential amino acids are those amino acids that are not present in the body, that's why we have to take them from food. They are histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.
Non-essential; amino acids are those that are already present in the body. They are synthesized by the cells.
Thus, the correct option is C. 10 amino acids.
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Did population B change in the way you predicted?
Population B's change is likely multifaceted, influenced by birth control, education, demographic transition, and natural disasters. Calculations based on the given growth and decline rates of two ethnic groups can predict when their population sizes will equalize. The Earth's current population is around 7 billion, with some countries experiencing negative growth rates.
The question 'Did population B change in the way you predicted?' is examining the dynamics of population growth and the various factors that can influence it, as described in the lesson. Considering improved birth control, education, and the transition seen in societies as they develop, as well as the concept of the demographic transition, population B's change can be understood. Population genetics can also contribute to changes following events like natural disasters, known as the bottleneck effect, where genetic structures may vary dramatically with each incident. Population dynamics are further complicated by factors like new births and migration. For instance, understanding a country's negative growth rate or the shift in population composition due to environmental pressures, as illustrated by the increase in dark-colored moths. It's also mentioned that once certain resource levels are reached, further increases do not significantly affect population growth, highlighting a saturation point.
In the specific example provided, two ethnic groups within a country are changing at different rates. If group A's population, making up 90% of the total, is decreasing by 1% per year, while group B's population, making up the remaining 10%, is increasing by 2% per year, then eventually, unless the rates change, these two groups will equalize in population size. This can be calculated using exponential growth and decline formulas.
The real current population of Earth, as per the given choices, is closest to option C (around 7 billion), while some countries experience negative growth rates. This shows how varied the picture of global population change can be.
The PCR primer ‘D7S820’ is used to amplify the D7S820 locus. Using this gel below, determine whether each person (M1, P1, P2, C1) is homozygous or heterozygous at this locus. Also determine the size of each person’s amplicons. Using this gel, you can determine paternity. M1 is the mother. C1 is the child. Is P1 or P2 the father of C1? Explain how you made this determination. If you were actually determining paternity, would you use one PCR primer? Why?
Answer:
1) M1 is heterozygous since it contains 2 bands, which means that it contains one recessive and one dominant allele
P1 is homozygous for this locus, since it contains a single band or is known to be homozygous for the locus or gene.
P2 is hetozygous for this locus because two bands appear in which each band represents one allele for the gene.
ChildC contains two gel bands, representing two alleles and is therefore heterozygous
P1 is the father of the child C1, if we look at the gel, each father shows a similar band, one coinciding with the mother and the second with the father p1
As for the paternity study, the PCR test is not useful, since it provides asymmetric results, thus only one strand information will be provided, and because the DNA is double-stranded, a more complete study is required.:
In your research on gene regulation in E. coli, you produce 2 mutant strains with the same phenotype: they can grow on lactose but not on glucose. To investigate these 2 mutants further, you perform a complementation test using them and discover that the diploid combination strain can grow on glucose or lactose. From this, you can deduce that:_______. A) Both mutants have a mutation in the same gene
B) The 2 mutants have mutations in different genes
C) Glucose and lactose metabolic pathways in E. coli utilize at least one shared gene in common
D) At least 2 different genes are required for glucose metabolism in E. coli
E) B and D.
Answer:
E) B and D.
Explanation:
A test that is used to determine if two mutations that are associated with a specific phenotype are allelic or non allelic is known as a complementation test. If the mutation is allelic then the combination does not complement, but if complementation occurs it shows that the combination is not allelic.In the given case, the mutants cannot grow on glucose, however a combination of two strains were able to grow on glucose, this means they are able to complement each other.If they complement each other this means that mutations lie on different genes and since, they are affecting the growth on glucose it also confirms that the atleast 2 different genes are required for glucose metabolism in E.coli.Use the drop-down menus to complete the statements. All of the chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell during . The nuclear membrane disappears during . DNA condenses to form chromosomes during .
Answer:
metaphase
prophase
prophase
Explanation:
True or false:
Mutations can only happen during mitosis, but not meiosis _________________________
Mutations are the only way that single-celled organisms can evolve ____________________
Mutations that occur in body cells can be passed on to offspring _________________________
Variations are necessary for natural selection to take place ___________________________
Sexual reproduction is the ultimate source of variation on this planet __________________________
A mutation can be passed on to other cells through mitosis ___________________________
In sexual reproduction, the offspring receives most of its DNA from one parent _______________________
Bacteria can reproduce sexually or asexually ______________________
Genetic recombination takes place during mitosis ________________________
Mutations can occur randomly during DNA replication of cell division _________________________
Fertilization joins genes from both parents to create the genetic code of an offspring _____________________
In populations made by sexual reproduction, each organism is unique _______________________
Mutations can occur during mitosis or meiosis. A mutation is not the only that single-celled organisms can evolve.
Which statements are true or false?Mutations can only happen during mitosis, but not meiosis- False.Mutations are the only way that single-celled organisms can evolve - False.Mutations that occur in body cells can be passed on to offspring - False.Variations are necessary for natural selection to take place - TrueSexual reproduction is the ultimate source of variation on this planet - True.A mutation can be passed on to other cells through mitosis - FalseIn sexual reproduction, the offspring receives most of its DNA from one parent - False.Bacteria can reproduce sexually or asexually - False.Genetic recombination takes place during mitosis - False.Mutations can occur randomly during DNA replication of cell division - True.Fertilization joins genes from both parents to create the genetic code of an offspring - TrueIn populations made by sexual reproduction, each organism is unique - True.Learn more about mutations, here:
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Simon makes poor food choices and does not exercise. When Simon goes to the doctor for a checkup, his doctor
tells him he is obese What is his doctor most likely concerned he will develop?
A.diabetes
B.asthma
C.cancer
D.color blindnes
Answer:
A Diabetes
Explanation:
Explain how waves, tides, and sea level influence the physical structure of the shore
Answer:
The shoreline is affected by waves (produced by wind at sea) and tides (produced by the gravitational effect of the moon and sun). Waves are caused by wind. Wave height in the open ocean is determined by three factors. The greater the wind speed the larger the waves.Explanation:
Final answer:
Waves and tides influence the physical structure of the shore by causing erosion and deposition, resulting in distinctive coastal features. Understanding how waves, tides, and currents interact is essential in managing coastal erosion and protecting shorelines.
Explanation:
Waves play a crucial role in shaping shorelines through erosion by transporting sand on and off beaches, along beaches, and carving structures along the shore. Features formed by wave deposition include beaches, sandbars, and spits. Shorelines can be protected from wave erosion through measures like building seawalls, planting vegetation, and nourishing beaches with sand.
Tides contribute to coastal erosion and deposition as they cause the shoreline to migrate landward and seaward due to the rhythmic rise and fall of sea level. Tidal mudflat depositional environments are influenced by strong tidal currents and have specific characteristics like submerged areas during high tide and smaller particles.
The combined effect of waves, currents, and tides leads to gradational processes in the coastal zone, with abrasion being a significant factor caused by sediment carried by water scraping against shore materials, especially under the impact of breakers.