Answer:concentration
Explanation:
A multipara client who had a cesarean delivery states that whenever she breastfeeds her baby, she experiences uterine cramping at a pain level of 6-7. The appropriate nursing action will teach the client that:__________
a. oxytocin, which causes the uterus to contract, is released when the baby suckles at the breast.
b. the cramps will diminish if she massages her uterus before nursing her baby.
c. she has cramps because she had a cesarean delivery.
d. the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated when the baby breastfeeds.
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation
Oxytocin hormone is released during labour which helps contract the uterus after the delivery. The oxytocin hormone thus helps the labour process and healing of the body as it reduces the blood loss.
The oxytocin hormone is also released when the newborn baby or infant suckles at mothers nipples which help the milk to let down for the baby and promotes child bonding but it also causes menstrual-like cramps in the uterus.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
Many of the top ten leading causes of death in the United States have a strong correlation to what a person decides to eat or not eat during his or her lifespan. What are the top two leading causes of death in the United States?
Answer:
Coronary disease and cancer
Explanation:
According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), the top two leading causes of death in the USA in 2019. were coronary disease and cancer, accounting for around 45% of all deaths.
Most common risk factors for coronary disease are: diabetes, food rich in fats, unhealthy diet, smoking cigarettes, stress, physical inactivity, genetic factors, alcohol abuse etc
Most common risk factors for cancer are: cigarette smoking, industrial food, environmental factors, diet low in fruit, vegetables and fibers, genetic factors etc
We can see that common denominators for these two causes of death are unhealthy lifestyles and genetic factors.
Since one can't change its genetics, it is essential to have a healthy diet, avoid cigarettes and alcohol, be physically active etc.
With respect to permissions for uses and disclosures, HIPAA divides health information into three categories. Into which category do discussions with family members go?
Answer:
Uses or disclosures that require generally oral agreement only.
Discussions with family members about a patient's health information fall into the category of disclosures for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations under HIPAA.
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, healthcare providers and plans are permitted to share relevant health information with family members or friends involved in the patient's care or payment for their care, as long as the patient does not object. This permission can be given explicitly by the patient or inferred if the patient is not present and the provider determines sharing the information is in the patient's best interest.For instance, if a patient is unconscious or in an emergency, medical personnel may inform the patient's family about their condition and the care being administered. Additionally, if a family member helps with picking up prescriptions or managing the patient's healthcare, they can receive pertinent information required to complete these tasks.However, healthcare providers must ensure that they share only the necessary information and observe any restrictions imposed by the patient.When a conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus, a resulting decrease in the conditioned response is called?
Answer:
Extinction
Explanation:
For example, your dog will naturally salivate at he sight of food, but if you train your dog to salivate when you ring a bell when presenting food to it, the dog overtime associates the bell with food, and would salivate anytime you ring a bell even without presenting its food.
The salivation that is stimulated by the ringing of the bell even in the absence of food is the conditioned response.
The ringing of the bell is the conditioned stimulus, while the food that naturally initiates salivation is the unconditioned stimulus.
Overtime, if you keep ringing the bell (conditioned stimulus) only without presenting food (unconditioned stimulus), your dog would gradually stop salivating without sighting food. This reduction or decrease in the conditioned response (salivating) is what is referred to as extinction.
A pregnant client tells her nurse that she is interested in arranging a home birth. After educating the client on the advantages and disadvantages, which statement would indicate that the client understood the information?A. "I like having the privacy, but it might be too expensive for me to set up in my home."B. "I want to have more control, but I am concerned if an emergency would arise."C. "It is the safest method for giving birth because there are no interferences."D. "The midwife is trained to resolve any emergency, and she can bring any pain meds."
Answer:
"B. "I want to have more control, but I am concerned if an emergency would arise."
Explanation:
Planned home birth which entails a pregnant client opting to give birth at home rather than in a clinic or hospital often comes with its advantages and disadvantages. An healthcare provider or a certified midwife always assists during labor and delivery at home.
The statement which best indicates that the pregnant client understood the pros and cons of home birth is statement B, "I want to have more control, but I am concerned if an emergency would arise." One of the advantages of home birth is that the pregnant client in her convenient setting that looks familiar, exercise more control over the experience. The pregnant client can decide to take any birthing position she likes, take warm showers, use aromatherapy etc.
Statement A, C, and D don’t indicate a better understanding because of the following:
1. Home birth is less expensive compared to giving birth in hospitals.
2. Complications might arise during birth, and it is more risky compared to giving birth at the hospital.
3. A certified midwife can handle the delivery process, but in case of any emergency, the pregnant client would be transferred to a nearby hospital for proper handling of the emergency.
The Family and Medical Leave Act, described in Chapter 1, is an example of the interaction between the state, the market, and family life. What does this law require large companies to do
The correct answer is; Employees can get twelve weeks of unpaid leave and their job is protected. They also require health care to be continued for workers and any dependents with a serious health issue.
Further Explanation:
The Family and Medical Leave Act is federal law made to protect families in the workplace. This helps employees keep their job position safe when they can't be at work. A doctor will need to fill out some forms for the employer and the employer will decide if the employee is covered by this law. This only takes a few days at the most.
Some of the things that the Family and Medical Leave Act covers are;
Having a new baby in the home.Care of a child within the first year of life.Placement of a child by adoption.Care for an employee's husband, child, or family member that is seriously ill.The employee has a health issue that does not let the employee perform their job requirements. Covers an issue of a family member that is in the service.Learn more about the Family Medical Leave Act at https://brainly.com/question/2418314
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A state of mental balance in which people are not confused because they can use their existing thought processes to understand current experiences and ideas is called _________.
Answer: Cognitive equilibrium
Explanation: Cognitive equilibrium is a state of mental balance between an individual and its environment. People are not confused because they can use their existing thought activities (stored in their memory house) to understand current situations and ideas.
Previous occasions are considered to understand and predicts a series of results of present events encountered.
What are some early pregnancy symptoms?
Early pregnancy symptoms include changes in the digestive and urinary system, such as nausea, vomiting, heartburn, frequent urination, and weight gain in the abdominal and breast regions. There are dramatic enlargements of the abdominal region, increased blood volume, increased melanin production and possible appearance of skin stretch marks during this period.
Explanation:Early pregnancy symptoms can be noticed primarily due to changes in the digestive and urinary system. Common symptoms include nausea and vomiting, often triggered by an increased sensitivity to odors. This is generally referred to as “morning sickness” but can persist all day. Additionally, decreased intestinal peristalsis may also contribute to this feeling of nausea.
Other noticeable changes include weight gain primarily in the breasts and abdominal region, heartburn, and frequent urination. Pregnancy leads to increases in maternal blood volume and respiratory minute volume, and skin may develop stretch marks and increased melanin production.
In the second and third trimesters, there is a dramatic enlargement of the abdominal region due to the growing fetus and the enlarged uterus, amniotic fluid, and placenta. This period is also marked by increased weight gain due to additional breast tissue and increased blood volume
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B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, ________ suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.A. Edward C. Tolman
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. Little Albert
D. Rosalie Rayner
B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.
A. Edward C. TolmanExplanation:
Latent learning indicated that there was a subjective segment of discovering that was not identified with molding. Edward C. Tolman first proposed the hypothesis of inert learning in 1930, when his investigations with rodents demonstrated that learning was occurring even without the prompt nearness of a prize. Watson advanced an adjustment in brain science through his location Psychology as the Behaviorist Views it, which was given at Columbia University in 1913.
Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning, contrasting with strict behaviorists like B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson who did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning.
Explanation:Strict behaviorists such as B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson were of the belief that learning could be fully accounted for by the processes of conditioning. They argued that cognition, including thoughts and expectations, had no role in the learning process. Skinner even viewed the mind as a "black box" that could not be understood or studied. Contrasting with this behaviorist perspective, Edward C. Tolman proposed a cognitive aspect to learning. Tolman's experiments with rats showcased that organisms could learn without immediate reinforcement, which implied that some form of mental processes played a part in learning. This idea pointed towards latent learning, where knowledge can be acquired without any obvious reinforcement and later influence behavior when needed.
Alendronate sodium is prescribed for an older adult client. which statement by the client to the nurse indicates that teaching about the medication is successful?
Answer: 2)."I will sit and read a book for half an hour after I take it."
Explanation:
Alendronate sodium is a medication which inhibits bone resorption. Its mode of administration is as followed; I). it should be taken on awakening and on an empty stomach for at least thirty (30) minutes before the first food, beverage or other medication of the day is taken. II). It should be taken with a full glass of plain water (8 oz) to rinse the esophagus.
iii). The patient must remain uprightly seated for at least thirty (30) minutes in order to facilitate absorption of the medication and alse decrease esophageal irritation.
A group of nursing students is role playing situations to practice using therapeutic communication techniques. What would the students identify as verbal communication?
Answer: the patients' underlying emotion.
Explanation:
Therapeutic communication techniques are the techniques or methods used in communicate and gain the patients' trust. It is a face-to-face or say, physical process of interactions. Therapeutic communication techniques are used mostly by Nurses(although other profession is health sector do use it as well, but, nurses do have more interactions with their patients that others).
Theerapeutic communication techniques includes (but not limited to) the following;
===> The professionals trying to put the patients' emotions into words.
====> Encouraging comparision.
===> Acknowledgement.
===> Making observations.
Therefore, from the question we can deduce that the students will identify the PATIENTS' UNDERLYING EMOTIONS as verbal communication.
Verbal communication, in the scenario given, would include interactions making use of spoken or written words. Such activities may include asking patients questions, giving orders, or explaining procedures. This form of communication is vital in nursing because it fosters understanding and trust.
Explanation:In the context that is given, the nursing students would identify verbal communication as any interaction that makes use of spoken or written words. This would encompass things such as asking questions, giving orders, and explaining procedures which all require verbal exchange. For example, a nurse explaining to a patient what kind of care their wound requires involves spoken words, thus it is considered verbal communication. On the other hand, a nurse writing a report about a patient’s health status also involves using words, hence it also falls under the category of verbal communication. Verbal communication is crucial in nursing as it helps promote understanding and establish trust between the nurse and the patient.
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Piaget believed that the __________ fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the __________ stage.
Piaget theorized that children's intelligence fully exists within the Concrete Operational stage of cognitive development. This stage, occurring from ages 7 to 11, involves children understanding concepts through direct physical manipulation and observation. Abstract or hypothetical understanding develops later, in the final stage.
Explanation:Jean Piaget, a Swiss developmental psychologist, proposed a theory of cognitive development that consists of four major stages. According to him, the child's intelligence fits entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the Concrete Operational stage. This stage typically lasts from ages 7 to 11 and is characterized by the development of logical thought. Children at this stage start to understand concepts like conservation, reversibility, and causality, but their understanding is limited to concrete objects and situations they can physically manipulate and observe. They still struggle with abstract or hypothetical concepts, which Piaget believed come later in the final stage of cognitive development, the Formal Operational stage.
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Piaget believed that the stages of cognitive development fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development
Explanation:Piaget believed that the stages of cognitive development fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational stage. According to Piaget, each stage represents a distinct shift in how we think and reason as we progress from infancy to adulthood.
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What are nutrients?
Answer:
A nutrient is a substance used by an organism to survive, grow, and reproduce. The requirement for dietary nutrient intake applies to animals, plants, fungi, and protists.
Explanation:
Hope this helped :( ?
Answer:
nutrients is a substance that provides nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life
Explanation:
What is the term that Thomas and Chess used to describe babies who have negative moods, are slow to adapt to new situations, and tend to withdraw when confronted with a new situation?a) slow-to-warm babies
b) easy babies
c) difficult babies
d) low intensity babies
Answer:
a) slow to warm babies
Explanation:
Estimation by Thomas and Chess shows that slow to warm babies tends to have difficult temperament which lead to negative mood swings, they are usually slow to adapt to new environment or situations,, their reactions are usually heightened up with intense rate and due to their irregular routines as part of their characteristics tend to withdrawn when they are confronted with a new situation.
To be eligible under HIPAA regulations, for how long should an individual converting to an individual health plan have been covered under the previous group plan?
Answer:
18 months
Explanation:
According to HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), the individual must have had 18 months of continuous creditable health insurance before applying for individual health coverage. Moreover, you should apply for the individual health coverage within 63 days of losing your previous creditable healthcare coverage under the group plan.
WILL MARK BRILLIANT
Which of the five essential domains is second-largest in the Head Start curriculum?
A approaches to learning
B physical development and health
C social and emotional development
D language and literacy development
Answer:
The correct answer to this question is option C- Social and emotional development
Explanation:
Social and emotional development is one of the major needs of a growing child and it must be inculcated in them from a very young age. It basically means how young children start to understand themselves and their surroundings. It is essential that they develop interpersonal skills and socializing skills among themselves from the beginning of school. That is when they are meeting new people and learning new ways to interact.
sellers of weight loss supplements often clain that products help you lose weight by blocking the absorption of protein from foods___________
Answer:
sellers of weight loss supplements often claim that products help you lose weight by blocking the absorption of protein from foods "false"
Explanation:
The weight loss supplements are those that makes it difficult for the dietary fats to get absorbed in the body and also it decreases the appetite of a person. But is has nothing to do with the protein, which has been asked in the question.They can also have various side effects as well. There are various natural weight loss supplements available in the market which are safe as it do not have any side effect. few of them are like, green tea extract, guar gum, Hoodie etc.
Weight loss supplements may use substances that block protein absorption, leading to energy dissipation as heat and thereby causing weight loss. This operates similarly to a substance known as DNP.
Explanation:The sellers of weight loss supplements are likely referring to a process in which certain substances can block the absorption of proteins and cause weight loss, often similar to the effect caused by a substance known as DNP (Dinitrophenol). DNP works by blocking the movement of protons through ATP synthase, effectively putting a stop to ATP production. When ATP production is stopped, stored energy is released. Instead of being used for normal metabolic processes, this energy is dissipated as heat. This breakdown of the body's normal metabolic process can lead to weight loss as the body essentially burns more energy than it is taking in through food.
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Which of the following has the highest relative protein requirement expressed in grams of good protein per kg body weight per day?a. 2-year old childb. adult manc. teenagerd. all have the same protein requirement
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Protein requirement is depend on the body of an individual body weight however according to the RDA for protein the requirement is 0.8 gm per kg. However relatively it is more in the 2 year child has highest than other as their development process is faster than others.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
The greatest barrier that impedes pregnant women from receiving early prenatal care in Vermont is the lack of accessibility to health insurance, not the lack of education.True/false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The rate of women who are pregnant and are receiving pre-natal care in Vermont was about 80 to 85 percent from year 2000 to 2010. This is below the set target by the Department of Health in Vermont for 90% of women to receive prenatal care. It was thought that lack of education was the main cause of these women not accessing prenatal healthcare, but after assessing Vermont healthcare current state, it is clearly seen that a lack of accessibility to health insurance is the major barrier for these women.
Match the terms to their definition.
1. chromosome
a genetic characteristic of an individual
2. eukaryote
a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry hereditary traits
3. gene
a cell whose nucleus is not bound by a membrane
4. prokaryote
a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus
5. trait
tight coils of DNA
Answer/Explanation:
1. chromosome - tight coils of DNA
Before the cell is ready to divide, it replicates the DNA and then condenses the DNA to form structures called chromosomes. These X shaped, tightly coiled structures are divided between two daughter cells, so that each cell has identical genetic information to the parent cell after it has been divided. The human genome is organised into pairs of 23 chromosomes (46 total).
2. eukaryote - a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus
Eukaryotes are distinct from prokaryotes because their DNA is housed in a membrane-bound organelle called a nucleus. Humans are examples of eukaryotes. Eukaryotes are usually much more complicated organisms than prokaryotes, which is why their DNA requires physical separation from other cell components. Eukaryotes also possess other membrane-bound organelles that are present in a prokaryote.
3. gene - a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry hereditary traits
DNA can (mostly) be divided up into functional units called genes. These genes specify proteins that play important functions in the cell. Variation in the DNA at genes can mean that the structure and function of the protein is affected, producing different traits for different individuals.
4. prokaryote - a cell whose nucleus is not bound by a membrane
Unlikely eukaryotes as described in question 2, prokaryotes lack a membrane bound nucleus. Instead, their DNA is housed in a region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid. Prokaryotes tend to have much less DNA and it is much less complex. It is usually organised into a single circular molecule
5. trait - a genetic characteristic of an individual
Traits describe a characteristic that is determined by a gene or several genes working together, and can also be influenced by the environment (depending on what the trait is). Phenotypes describe a trait. For example, the pea plant height is a trait, but tall or short is the phenotype.
Answer: DNA traits is one of the best of the best of the best of the bestest of the bestestest and of the bestestestestestestesty
Explanation: no clue
The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states which?
Answer:
The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states "I can call my therapist when I'm hallucinating so I can talk about my feelings & plans & not hurt anyone."
Explanation:
The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states "I can call my therapist when I'm hallucinating so I can talk about my feelings & plans & not hurt anyone."
What program was established by New Jersey to guarantee access to health coverage for individuals and small employers, regardless of health status, age, claims history, or other risk factors?'
Answer:
Health insurance programs.
Explanation:
The health insurance may be defined as the insurance that provides medical benefits and covers the medical expenses of the client. The health insurance is provided by both the government and private sectors.
The idea of the health insurance program was first started in the New Jersey. The main aim of this insurance is to provide health benefit to the employers and individuals that cannot cover the medical expenses. The health related risk factors are also covered in the insurance.
Thus, the answer is health insurance programs.
Teresa would like to begin eating healthier and she has created a plan of action to help reach that goal. Her study group meets at a fast food restaurant twice a week, and she has asked them to meet at the library instead. Teresa understands that to meet her goal, she needs to __________
Answer: not walk in expecting it to be easy.
Explanation:
Of course we all want that beautiful body that all of the models have. But I am not going to try and sugar coat it... most of us get told that we are beautiful but often don’t feel that way. Have her Try eating before she goes to the restraint that way she will feel less tempted to eat the greasy poison.
_____ health refers to both the emotional and mental states of a person-that is, to feelings and thoughts.
Explanation:
Psychological is the correct answer!
Psychological
hope this helps
What is NOT a recognized swimming stoke?
A. Dog paddle
B. Butterfly
C. Breast stoke
D. Backstroke
Answer:
Dog paddle isn't a stroke technically in swimming, though it is used if you don't know how to properly swim.
Answer:
A. dog paddle is not recognized as a swimming stroke
Explanation:
is not recognized as a swimming stroke
When evaluating a family health tree, a family member who has a heart attack at age 70 raises more genetic concerns than a relative who develops colon cancer at age 28. True or false?
Answer: False.
Explanation:
If a person has a family history of colon cancer, his or her risk of developing the disease is nearly double. The risk further increases if other close relatives have also developed colon cancer or if a first-degree relative was diagnosed at a younger age like 28years old.
A person who develop colon cancer at 28years of age raises more genetic concern.
The nurse manger is discussing self- awareness during a staff meeting. Which statement(s) by the staff nurse best depicts self-awareness? Select all that apply.
A- I'm tired and hungry. I need to take a break and get something to eat.
B- I asked to be transferred because the nurses on this unit are critical and make me feel inadequate when I work with them.
Answer:
A- I'm tired and hungry. I need to take a break and get something to eat.
B- I asked to be transferred because the nurses on this unit are critical and make me feel inadequate when I work with them.
Explanation:
Both the statements depict self-awareness and consciousness of the nurse manager. The nurse staff is very well aware of her physical and mental needs. She feels that taking care of her diet and eating first while hungry is a self-awareness of her physical needs. Second statement shows that she is self-aware of her potential as a nurse and wants a positive working environment to protect her mental peace. Therefore, she asked for transfer because she feels inadequate professionally due to over-critical nature of fellow nurses in her unit.
A nurse teaches the warning signs that should be reported throughout pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the prenatal instructions?
Answer:
1) "I'll call the clinic if I have abdominal pain."
Explanation:
The presence of abdominal pain in prenatal period is a warning sign because it may be a kind of menstrual cramp and stretching of ligaments; may cause abortion. Hence, the pregnant mother should see a doctor if the pain is persistent and unbearable. Other signs such as ankle swelling, irregular contractions without pain, and vaginal discharge known as Leucorrhea are common complaints by pregnant mothers and not serious.
At which stage of sensorimotor intelligence do we see babies engaging in actions to produce novel reactions?
Between 12-18 months
Explanation:
In this stage the infants are considered to be in their tertiary circular reaction stage and the baby will start to explore the objects and they will try the new ways in exploring them and they will start to try to reach out the objects
There are many stages of sensorimotor which will lasts still 24 months and there are also six sub stages in which all the primary the secondary and the tertiary reactions will be coordinated
A child with a few vesicular lesions on her face is brought to the emergency room. She is diagnosed with chickenpox. To prevent transmission of chickenpox through direct contact, the LPN initiates contact precautions. Which of the following should also be initiated to isolate this illness?
a. Reverse isolation
b. Airborne precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. Droplet precautions
Answer:
The correct answer is b. Airborne precaution
Explanation:
Chickenpox is a very contagious disease which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It can be spread to healthy individual by coming in direct contact with the blister fluid or respiratory secretion of an infected person. Transmission through sneezing and coughing is also possible which comes under airborne transmission.
So as chickenpox virus can spread through direct contact and air therefore with contact precaution, airborne precaution should also be initiated to isolate this illness. So the right answer is b.