When a fixed amount of ideal gas goes through an isobaric expansion A) its internal (thermal) energy does not change.B) the gas does no work.C) no heat enters or leaves the gas. D) its temperature must increase.E) its pressure must increase.

Answers

Answer 1
Answer: its temperature must increase.

Explanation:

In an isobaric process the pressure remains constant, which means the initial pressure and the final pressure will be the same.

In addition, during this thermodynamic process, the volume of the ideal gas expands or contracts in such a way that the variation of pressure [tex]\Delta P[/tex] is neutralized.

Now, according to the First law of Thermodynamics that establishes the conservation of energy:

[tex]\Delta U=\Delta Q-\Delta W[/tex]   (1)

Where:

[tex]\Delta U[/tex] is the internal energy

[tex]\Delta Q[/tex] is the heat transferred

[tex]\Delta W[/tex] is the work

Now, for an isobaric process:

[tex]\Delta W=P\Delta V[/tex]    (2)

Where:

[tex]P[/tex] is the pressure (always positive)

[tex]\Delta V[/tex] is the volume variation of the gas

Here we have two possible results:

-If the gas expands (positive [tex]\Delta V[/tex]), the work is positive.

-If the gas compresses (negative [tex]\Delta V[/tex]), the work is negative.

In this case we are talking about the first result (work is positive).

Then, according to the above, equation (1) can be written as follows:

[tex]\Delta U=\Delta Q - P\Delta V[/tex]   (3)

Clearing [tex]\Delta Q[/tex]:

[tex]\Delta Q=\Delta U+P \Delta V[/tex]    (4)

Then, for an ideal gas in an isobaric process, part of the heat ([tex]Q[/tex]) added to the system will be used to do work (positive in this case) and the other part will increase the internal energy, hence the temperature will increase as well.

Answer 2

Final answer:

In an isobaric expansion of an ideal gas, the gas does work and if heat is added, the temperature may increase, making options A, B, C, and E incorrect. The pressure remains constant by definition.

Explanation:

When a fixed amount of ideal gas goes through an isobaric expansion, it is essential to understand that the pressure remains constant by definition. In option A, if the process was isothermal, the internal energy would indeed not change since internal energy for an ideal gas is a function of temperature, but this isn't necessarily true for an isobaric process where temperature can change. Hence, option A is incorrect. Option B states the gas does no work, which is also incorrect; during an isobaric expansion, the gas does work as it expands against a constant external pressure. Option C would describe an adiabatic process, not an isobaric one, so this is incorrect in this context. Option D suggests that the temperature must increase, which could be true because when an ideal gas expands isobarically, heat is often added to keep the pressure constant, thereby increasing the temperature. Finally, option E states that the pressure must increase, which cannot happen in an isobaric process by definition.

Considering the context and mechanisms of thermodynamics, the correct answer is not explicitly stated among the choices but can be inferred. The most accurate answer regarding an isobaric expansion of an ideal gas would be that the gas does work and if heat is added to maintain constant pressure, the temperature is likely to increase.


Related Questions

Dude what's the difference between a parallel circuit and a series circuit? Cuz idk ????

Answers

Answer:

-Parallel circuits have multiple branching pathways for electrical current.

-series circuit forms a single path.

A system dissipates 12 J of heat into the surroundings; meanwhile, 28 J of work is done on the system. What is the change of the internal energy of the system?

Answers

Answer:

+16 J

Explanation:

We can solve the problem by using the 1st law of thermodynamics:

[tex]\Delta U = Q-W[/tex]

where

[tex]\Delta U[/tex] is the change of the internal energy of the system

Q is the heat (positive if supplied to the system, negative if dissipated by the system)

W is the work done (positive if done by the system, negative if done by the surroundings on the system)

In this case we have:

Q = -12 J is the heat dissipated by the system

W = -28 J is the work done ON the system

Substituting into the equation, we find the change in internal energy of the system:

[tex]\Delta U=-12 J-(-28 J)=+16 J[/tex]

What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?

Answers

Answer: Francium

Let's start by explaining that electronegativity is a term coined by Linus Pauling and is determined by the ability of an atom of a certain element to attract electrons when chemically combined with another atom.

So, the more electronegative an element is, the more electrons it will attract.

It should be noted that this value can not be measured directly by experiments, but it can be determined indirectly by means of calculations from other atomic or molecular properties of the element. That is why the scale created by Pauling is an arbitrary scale, where the maximum value of electronegativity is 4, assigned to Fluorine (F) and the lowest is 0.7, assigned to Francium (Fr).

Final answer:

Francium is the element with the lowest electronegativity value, which is determined by factors such as atomic number, distance from the nucleus to the valence electrons, and effective nuclear charge. Fluorine, on the other hand, has the highest electronegativity value. While electron-electron repulsion and electron affinity can influence electronegativity, they are different atomic properties.

Explanation:

The element with the lowest electronegativity value is francium. Electronegativity, which describes how tightly an atom attracts electrons in a bond, is a dimensionless quantity that is calculated rather than measured. It depends on several factors, including the atomic number and the distance from the nucleus to the valence electrons.

Francium has the lowest electronegativity value mostly due to its large size and its single valence electron which is located very far from the nucleus. Hence, the electron is not strongly attracted to the nucleus, resulting in a low electronegativity. Comparably, Fluorine is given the highest electronegativity value of 4 on the Pauling scale, due to its small size and high effective nuclear charge.

Various other factors such as electron-electron repulsion, electron affinity, and formal charge can also influence electronegativity. Please remember that these factors should not be confused with electronegativity itself as they correspond to different atomic properties.

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Seyed made a chart to compare Einstein's and Newton's ideas about time and space.



Which best completes the chart?

The speed of light is absolute.
The speed of light varies.
Space is three-dimensional.
Space is four-dimensional.

Answers

Answer:

space is three dimensional

Answer: Space is three-dimensional

Explanation: For Newton, space time forms a three-dimensional universe, with the characteristic of an absolute void that determines the order of the things that compose it.

How do you do this question?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

All the bulbs with have the same resistance.

Let the resistance of the Bulbs all = R

Bulb 1 will get all of the current running through it. There will be a voltage drop of Ed1 = I * R and the voltage left over will be seen by some combination of bulbs 2,3 and 4.

The current will be divided between 2R and R. 2R will get the smaller amount of current, and R will get the larger amount. There will be 3 parts in total.

So 2 and 3 will experience 1/3 I,   while the  other bulb will get 2/3 I.

The initial voltage is E

The voltage drop seen by bulbs 2,3 and 4 is E - I*R

Bulb 4 will see the entire voltage of E - I*R

Since it sees 2/3 * I The power dissipated by 4 is P4 = (E - I*R) * (2/3)I

Each of the other bulbs see (E - IR) * (1/3 I)/2 as their power dissipation.

So here's the answer.

P1>P4 > (P2 - P3)

P2 = P3 if there is such an answer in C.

When a guitar is tuned to adjust it pitch what is it that is changed?

A) its wavelength
B) Its frequency
C) Its amplitude
D) its linear density

Answers

Answer:

B) Its frequency

Explanation:

The pitch of sound heard depends on its frequency of the sound wave. Frequency refers to how fast the sound wave is oscillating. A high frequency sound wave has a high pitch while a low frequency sound wave has a low pitch.The faster the sound wave oscillates the higher the pitch. For instance, a guitar with a big heavy string will vibrate slowly and thus create a low pitch.

When a guitar is tuned to adjust its pitch, B) its frequency is changed.

The frequency determines how high or low we perceive the sound (or pitch) to be. This adjustment is achieved by tightening or loosening the tension on the strings, which alters the rate at which the string vibrates.

Frequency is the number of vibrations per second of the string and is measured in Hertz (Hz). Higher tension on the string increases the vibration rate, leading to a higher pitch, while lower tension decreases the vibration rate, resulting in a lower pitch.

So, the frequency is key in changing the pitch of the guitar string, not the wavelength, amplitude, or linear density. The correct answer is B.

What does each item used in the experiment represent in the actual greenhouse effect on Earth? For instance, the light used in the experiment represents the Sun. What does the bottom of the box, air in the box, and plastic wrap each represent in the greenhouse effect?

Answers

The light represents the sunlight.

The bottom of the box represents the surface of the Earth.

The air in the box represents the atmosphere.

The plastic wrap represents the part of the atmosphere where the Greenhouse gases are and influence the temperature.

So we have a box, air in it, plastic wrap, and directed light on it. The bottom of the box represents the surface of the Earth. The light that is directed towards it gets partially through the plastic wrap, reaching the bottom of the box and warming it up. As it warms up, the bottom of the box starts to radiate heat and returns it upwards through the air that represents the atmosphere. Then that heat reaches the plastic wrap, but it is not able to move through it, thus the air starts to warm up more and more, giving us a nice simplified example of how this process works.

Gamma rays x rays visible light and radio waves are all types of

Answers

Answer:

Electromagnetic waves

Explanation:

Electromagnetic waves are waves that consist of oscillating electric and magnetic fields, that oscillate perpendicularly to each other and perpendicularly to the direction of propagation of the wave (for such a reason, these waves are also called transverse waves).

Electromagnetic waves always travel in a vacuum at the same speed, called speed of light:

[tex]c=3.0\cdot 10^8 m/s[/tex]

and they are classified into 7 different types, according to their frequency. From lowest to highest frequency, we have:

Radio waves

Microwaves

Infrared

Visible light

Ultraviolet

X-rays

Gamma rays

Therefore, gamma rays, x-rays, visible light and radio waves are all types of electromagnetic waves with different frequencies.

You observe two stars in the sky and measure their angular distance as 60 degrees. How many arc seconds is this angular distance?

Answers

(60 degrees) x (60 arcminutes/degree) x (60 arcseconds/arcminute) =

(60 degrees) x (3600 arcseconds/degree) =

216,000 arc seconds

(60 degrees) x (60 arcminutes/degree) x (60 arcseconds/arcminute) = (60 degrees) x (3600 arcseconds/degree) = 216,000 arc seconds.

What is Angular distance?

The angular distance is a measurement of how far apart two points appear to be from the viewpoint of the observer. From each point to the observer, straight lines extended and intersected.

The angular distance, which is commonly stated in degrees or radians, is the angle at which these two lines intersect. This angle can be used in trigonometry to determine heights and distances.

Astronomers frequently refer to the angle instead of the actual distance between celestial bodies when describing the apparent gap between them.

Therefore, (60 degrees) x (60 arcminutes/degree) x (60 arcseconds/arcminute) = (60 degrees) x (3600 arcseconds/degree) = 216,000 arc seconds.

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Two particles are 15 meters apart. Particle A has a charge of 6.0 • 10-4 C, and particle B has a charge of 5.0 • 10-4 C. The resulting Coulomb force is 12 N. At the same distance, what combination of charges would yield the same Coulomb force?

Answers

We can choose different pairs of values. Here are some examples:

[tex]q'_1 = 3.0 \times 10^{-4}[/tex] C and [tex]q'_2 = 1.0 \times 10^{-3}[/tex] C,

[tex]q'_1 = 1.0 \times 10^{-4}[/tex] C and [tex]q'_2 = 3.0 \times 10^{-3}[/tex] C,

[tex]q'_1 = 1.5 \times 10^{-4}[/tex] C and [tex]q'_2 = 2.0 \times 10^{-3}[/tex] C.

To solve this problem, we'll use Coulomb's Law, given by the formula:

[tex]F = k_e \cdot \frac{q_1 \cdot q_2}{r^2}[/tex]

where:

[tex]F[/tex] is the Coulomb force,[tex]k_e[/tex] is Coulomb's constant (
8.99 × 10^9 N m²/C²),[tex]q_1[/tex] and [tex]q_2[/tex] are the charges on the particles,[tex]r[/tex] is the distance between the charges.

Given:

Coulomb force, [tex]F = 12[/tex] N,[tex]r = 15[/tex] m,[tex]q_1 = 6.0 \times 10^{-4}[/tex] C,[tex]q_2 = 5.0 \times 10^{-4}[/tex] C.

First, we verify the given force with the given charges and distance:

[tex]F = (8.99 \times 10^9) \cdot \frac{(6.0 \times 10^{-4})(5.0 \times 10^{-4})}{(15)^2}[/tex].

Let's simplify this:

[tex]F = (8.99 \times 10^9) \cdot \frac{3.0 \times 10^{-7}}{225}[/tex].

[tex]F = (8.99 \times 10^9) \cdot 1.333 \times 10^{-9}[/tex].

[tex]F = 12[/tex] N (matches the given force).

To find a new combination of charges that yield the same force, we can use different charges, but they must still give the same numerator in the force equation.

Let new charges be [tex]q'_1[/tex] and [tex]q'_2[/tex]. The condition we'll use is:

[tex]q'_1 \cdot q'_2 = 3.0 \times 10^{-7}[/tex] C².

what is the voltage drop across the 20.0 resistor?

Answers

120.0v drop across the 20.0 resistor

Answer:

120.0v drop across the 20.0 resistor

Explanation:

Which of the following best summarizes what we mean by dark matter?Matter for which we have theoretical reason to think it exists, but no observational evidence for its existence.Matter that we have identified from its gravitational effects but that we cannot see in any wavelength of light.Matter that may inhabit dark areas of the cosmos where we see nothing at all.Matter consisting of black holes.

Answers

Answer: Matter that we have identified from its gravitational effects but that we cannot see in any wavelength of light

Dark matter is a type of matter, whose composition is unknown and which corresponds to 80% of the matter in the universe. Its name refers to the fact it does not emit or interact with any type of electromagnetic radiation, being completely transparent throughout the electromagnetic spectrum.  

However, it interacts with the known matter through gravity.  

This means that, like gravity, dark matter can not be observed directly, however its existence is inferred through the movement of the stars and the cosmic dust within the galaxies.

Answer:

5- Normal, 68-dark energy, 27 dark matter

Explanation:

What is the correct composition of the universe, based on theoretical and cosmological observations?

   dark energy

   dark matter

   normal matter

   5 percent

   arrowRight

   68 percent

   arrowRight

   27 percent

   arrowRight

How many potassium ions pass through if the ion channel opens for 1.0 ms?

Answers

answer:

1.8E-15C/1.6E-19=11,250

Explanation:

The biochemistry that takes place inside cells depends on various elements, such as sodium, potassium, and calcium, that are dissolved in water as ions. These ions enter cells through narrow pores in the cell membrane known as ion channels. Each ion channel, which is formed from a specialized protein molecule, is selective for one type of ion. Measurements with microelectrodes have shown that a 0.30-nm-diameter potassium ion ({\rm{{\rm K}}}^{\rm{ + }} ) channel carries a current of 1.8 {\rm pA}.

The number of potassium ions that will pass through the ion channel is 11250.

What are potassium ions?

Potassium ions, possibly the most often constituted electrolyte.

Calculating the number of potassium ions that passes through the ion channel

Given that the channel opens for 1.0 ms

Step1: determine the value of charge ( Q )

[tex]Q = I \times \Delta t = ( 1.8 \times 10^-^1^0 A )\times (1.0 \times 10^1^3 s ) = 1.8 \times 10^-^1^5 C[/tex]

where ; I = 1.8 × 10⁻¹² A

[tex]\Delta t = 1.0 \times 10^-^3 s[/tex]

   

Step2: determine number of K⁺ ions passing through

[tex]NK^+ = Q \times e = ( 1.8 \times 10^-^1^5 C )\times ( 1.60 \times 10^-^1^9 C) = 11250[/tex]

Thus, the potassium ions pass through the channel is 11250.

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A night lamp uses a 30 W bulb. If it is left on continuously for 8 hours, how much energy will it use?


_____ kWh


The answer was 0.24!

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

[tex] 30W * 8 h = 240 Wh = 0.240 kWh[/tex]

Answer:

0.24 kWh

Explanation:

Biological systems use free energy based on empirical data that all organisms require a constant energy input. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed. For living organisms, which of the following statements is an important consequence of this first law?

A) The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.
B) The organism must ultimately obtain all necessary energy for life from its environment.
C) The energy content of an organism is constant except for when its cells are dividing.
D) Organisms are unable to transform energy from the different states in which it can exist.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Final answer:

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, only transformed. Thus, organisms must obtain all necessary energy for life from their environment. This is because they cannot create their own energy from scratch because of this law.

Explanation:

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but only transformed. In biological systems, energy is constantly being transformed within organisms, as well as being exchanged with the environment. This principle is crucial for organisms to maintain their life processes like growth, reproduction, and movement.

In the context of the choices, statement B is the most relevant. The organism must ultimately obtain all necessary energy for life from its environment. Organisms get energy from the environment in the form of nutrients or sunlight because energy cannot be created from nothing due to the first law of thermodynamics. Whether an organism is a plant using sunlight in photosynthesis, or an animal eating food and using cellular respiration to extract energy, they are harnessing the energy originally sourced from their environment.

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Which is an example of the conversion of gravitational potential energy into kinetic energy? a sliding hockey puck an idling car a swimming fish a falling raindrop

Answers

A falling raindrop.

The reason why it's because mass of a raindrop is under influence of gravity pushing it down towards earth surface. When it hit the surface kinetic energy is released.

Answer:

a falling raindrop

Explanation:

Kinetic energy depends on the mass and the velocity of an object.

Potential energy depends on the mass of an object an how high it is.

A raindrop initially has potenial energy because of its high above the ground, when is falling it has a velocity, and having a velocity means it now has kinetic energy.

By falling, the raindrop exchange potential energy for kinetic energy, as it falls, its potential energy is lower since it is at a lower altitud.

And also when it falls it accelerates towards the ground wich makes it have grater velocity and by analogy greater kinetic energy.

A motor attached to a 120 V/60 Hz power line draws an 8.40 A current. Its average energy dissipation is 850 W. How much series capacitance needs to be added to increase the power factor to 1.0?

Answers

Final answer:

To increase the power factor to 1.0 in a motor circuit, a capacitor should be added. The capacitance value of the capacitor can be calculated by knowing the real and apparent power of the motor circuit before and after the capacitor addition. The introduction of the capacitor provides reactive power that neutralizes the inductiveness of the motor coil, making the circuit purely resistive.

Explanation:

The subject matter pertains to understanding power factor, power dissipation and the effects of adding capacitance in a motor circuit. Now, the question mentions that the motor draws 8.40 A current at 120 V giving us a power apparent = V*I = 120 * 8.40 VA. However, the average power dissipated (Real power, P) is 850 W. The power factor is the ratio of real power to apparent power. However, to achieve a power factor of 1 (i.e., make the circuit purely resistive), we must add a capacitor (reactive power component) that will counteract the inductiveness of the motor coil.

The power factor before the capacitor is added is P/S = 850/(120*8.4) =  0.84. The reactive power Q before the capacitor is added can be calculated by the formula Q = sqrt[(S^2)-(P^2)] = sqrt[((120*8.4)^2)-(850^2)] VAR. After the capacitor is added, the power factor is 1 (as per the question), which means the reactive power Q' = 0. Therefore, reactive power supplied by the capacitor C = Q - Q' = Q = sqrt[((120*8.4)^2)-(850^2)].

Using Q = sqrt[(S^2)-(P^2)], we can find the current supplied by the capacitor as Ic = Q/V. From this current, we can find the capacitance using the formula C = Ic / (2*π*f.*V) where f = frequency = 60 Hz.

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To improve the power factor of a 120 V motor that draws 8.40 A to unity, we need to add a 94.6 µF series capacitance. This helps cancel out the reactive power, thereby achieving a power factor of 1.0.

Calculating Series Capacitance to Improve Power Factor

To increase the power factor to 1.0 for a motor attached to a 120 V/60 Hz power line that draws an 8.40 A current and has an average energy dissipation of 850 W, follow these steps:

Step 1: Calculate Apparent Power (S)

we know , Apparent power S = V * I

Where:

V = 120 V

I = 8.40 A

So,

S = 120 V * 8.40 A = 1008 VA

Step 2: Calculate the Current Power Factor (pf)

The power factor is the ratio of real power (P) to apparent power (S). Therefore:

pf = P / S = 850 W / 1008 VA ≈ 0.843

Step 3: Calculate the Reactive Power (Q)

Reactive power can be determined using the Pythagorean theorem for the power triangle:

Q = √(S² - P²)

So,

Q = √(1008² - 850²) ≈ 512 VAR

Step 4: Calculate Required Capacitive Reactance (Xc)

For unity power factor, the reactive power provided by the capacitor should cancel out the Q value:

Xc = V² / Q

So,

Xc = 120² / 512 ≈ 28.125 ohms

Step 5: Calculate Series Capacitance (C)

Use the formula for capacitive reactance:

Xc = 1 / (2πfC)

Solve for C:

C = 1 / (2π * 60 Hz * 28.125 ohms) ≈ 94.6 µF

Adding a series capacitance of approximately 94.6 µF will increase the power factor to 1.0.

Please help on this one?

Answers

the object distance of both lenses are positive.

Why is the answer B for this problem?

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

This looks like a momentum question. It also looks like there is no horizontal acceleration.

Momentum before           Momentum after

m1vo                                   (m1 + m2)*vo/3           multiply through by 3

3 m1*vo                               m1* vo + m2*vo          subtract m1*vo from both sides

3m1*vo - m1*vo                   m2*vo

2m1*vo                                 m2*vo                      Divide by vo

2m1 =                                    m2

Conclusion: It takes 2 m1's to equal 1 m2.

B is the answer.

The diagram below illustrates the law of reflection.

Which is the angle of reflection?

A

B

C

D

Answers

C Is the angle of reflection. The reflected ray is consistently in the plane determined by the incident ray and perpendicular to the surface at the point of reference of the incident ray.

What is the law of reflection?

The law of reflection specifies that upon reflection from a downy surface, the slope of the reflected ray is similar to the slope of the incident ray.

When the light rays descend on the smooth surface, the angle of reflection is similar to the angle of incidence, also the incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface all lie in a similar plane.

Hence,C Is the angle of reflection.

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A spring required a force of 5.0 n to compress it 0.1 m. how much work is required to stretch the spring 0.4 m

Answers

Answer:

20N

Explanation:

The force (Hooke's Law) is proportional to the deformation. To extend the spring 4 times longer, you will need 4 times the force. In total, 20 N

The amount of work required to stretch the spring 0.4 m give the data is 4 J

How to determine the spring constant

From the question given above, the following data were obtained

Force (F) = 5 NCompression (e) = 0.1 mSpring constant (K) =?

K = F/ e

K = 5 / 0.1

K = 50 N/m

How to determine the work Spring constant (K) = 50 N/mExtention (e) = 0.4 mWork =?

W = ½Ke²

W = ½ × 50 × 0.4²

W = 25 × 0.16

W = 4 J

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A mass moves back and forth in simple harmonic motion with amplitude A and period T.(a) In terms of A, through what distance does the mass move in the time T? ?A(b) Through what distance does it move in the time 5.00T? ?A(c) In terms of T, how long does it take for the mass to move through a total distance of 2A? ?T(d) How long does it take for the mass to move through a total distance of 7A? ?T(e) If the objects undergoes simple harmonic motion with a period T. In the time 5T/2 the object moves through a total distance of 16D. In terms of D, what is the object's amplitude of motion? ?D

Answers

(a) 4A

In a simple harmonic motion:

- The amplitude (A) is the maximum displacement of the system, measured with respect to the equilibrium position

- The period (T) is the time needed for one complete oscillation, so for instance is the time the system needs to go from position x=+A back to x=+A again

Therefore, we have that in one time period (1T) the distance covered is 4A. In fact, during one period (1T), the system:

- Goes from x=+A to x=0 (equilibrium position) --> distance covered: A

- Goes from x=0 to x=-A --> distance covered: A

- Goes from x=-A to x=0 (equilibrium position) --> distance covered: A

- Goes from x=0 to x=+A --> distance covered: A

So, in total, 4A.

(b) 20A

Since the system moves through a distance of 4A in a time interval of 1T, we can set a proportion to see what is the distance covered in the time 5.00 T:

[tex]1 T : 4 A = 5T : d[/tex]

Solving for d, we find

[tex]d=\frac{(4A)(5T)}{1 T}=20A[/tex]

So, the distance covered in the time 5.00 T is 20 A.

(c) 0.5 T

Since the system moves through a distance of 4A in a time interval of 1T, we can set a proportion to see the time t that the system needs to move through a total distance of 2A:

[tex]1 T : 4 A = t : 2A[/tex]

Solving for t, we find

[tex]t=\frac{(2A)(1T)}{4 A}=0.5 T[/tex]

So, the time needed for the system to move through a total distance of 2A is 0.5T (half period).

(d) 7/4 T

As before, since the system moves through a distance of 4A in a time interval of 1T, we can set a proportion to see the time t that the system needs to move through a total distance of 7A:

[tex]1 T : 4 A = t : 7A[/tex]

Solving for t, we find

[tex]t=\frac{(7A)(1T)}{4 A}=\frac{7}{4}T[/tex]

So, the time needed for the system to move through a total distance of 2A is 7/4 T

(e) 8/5 D

In a time of [tex]\frac{5}{2}T[/tex], the distance covered is 16D.

We also now that the distance covered in 1T is 4A.

So we can find the distance covered in a time of [tex]\frac{5}{2}T[/tex] in terms of A:

[tex]1T:4A = \frac{5}{2}T:d\\d=\frac{(4A)(\frac{5}{2}T)}{1T}=10A[/tex]

And we know that this distance must correspond to 16D, so we can find a relationship between A and D:

[tex]10A=16D\\A=\frac{16}{10}D=\frac{8}{5}D[/tex]

The nucleus contains protons and neutrons. Being positively charged, the protons repel each other. The nucleus should fly apart due to the repulsive force. Yet, the nuclei of most atoms are stable - explain. (5 points)

Answers

this is due to the existence of other forces called the strong nuclear forces that overcomes the repulsion forces between the protons and keeps the nucleons holding to each other also there is a type of energy that is called the nuclear binding energy and this energy also works on binding the components of the nucleus together

Final answer:

The atomic nucleus remains stable despite the repulsion between protons due to the strong nuclear force which is much stronger than the electromagnetic force and acts within a very short range in the nucleus. Further stability is ensured by the conversion of the mass defect into binding energy, and programming of specific numbers of protons and neutrons.

Explanation:

The stability of an atomic nucleus despite the repulsion between positively charged protons is due to a force called the strong nuclear force. This force is significantly stronger than the electromagnetic force causing the repulsion, approximately 100 times stronger, and acts between nucleons (protons and neutrons) within a very short range in the nucleus. That's why protons do not just fly apart as we might expect due to their positive charges. Furthermore, a phenomenon called mass defect, according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation, E = mc², also plays into the nuclear stability. The mass of a nucleus is less than the total mass of its individual protons and neutrons, the 'missing' mass has been converted into the binding energy that holds the nucleus together.

However, not all combinations of protons and neutrons result in a stable nucleus. There are patterns to the stability: nuclei with even numbers of protons or neutrons, or those with 'magic numbers' of nucleons, are especially likely to be stable. Also, it is observed that for higher masses, stable nuclei tend to have more neutrons than protons to reduce the Columb repulsion between protons.

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Using kinetic theory explain why a tire is more likely to blow out during a trip in the summer than during one in the winter

Answers

the hotness of the ground would mostly likely make the tire blow out

A 800 J
B -800 J
C 400 J
D -400 J
??

Answers

I think it will be 800j because right absorb mean getting more

The change in internal energy of the system is 400 joules. The correct answer is: C. 400 J

To determine the change in internal energy of a system that does 200 joules of work and absorbs 600 joules of heat, we can use the first law of thermodynamics. The first law of thermodynamics states:

[tex]\[ \Delta U = Q - W \][/tex]

[tex]\(\Delta U\)[/tex] is the change in internal energy,

Q is the heat added to the system,

W is the work done by the system.

In this problem:

Q = 600 joules (heat absorbed by the system),

W = 200 joules (work done by the system).

Substituting the given values into the equation:

[tex]\[ \Delta U = 600\, \text{J} - 200\, \text{J} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \Delta U = 400\, \text{J} \][/tex]

A girl and a boy are riding on a merry go round that is turning at a constant rate. The girl is near the outer edge, and the boy is closer to the center. Who has greater tangential acceleration?Both the girl and boy have the same nonzero tangential accelerationThe boy has greater tangential accelerationBoth the girl and the boy have zero tangential accelerationThe girl has greater tangential acceleration

Answers

Answer:

The girl has greater tangential acceleration

Explanation:

The angular acceleration ([tex]\alpha[/tex]) of the merry go round is equal to the rate of the change of the angular velocity, [tex]\omega[/tex]:

[tex]\alpha = \frac{d\omega}{dt}[/tex]

Since all the points of the merry go round complete 1 circle in the same time, the angular velocity of each point of the merry go round is the same, and so all the points also have the same angular acceleration.

The tangential acceleration instead is given by

[tex]a_t = \alpha r[/tex]

where

[tex]\alpha[/tex] is the angular acceleration

r is the distance from the centre of the merry go round

Since the girl is near the outer edge and the boy is closer to the centre, the value of r for the girl is larger than for the boy, so the girl has greater tangential acceleration.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the electromagnetic spectrum?1. X rays and gamma rays have very long wavelengths and very low photon energies.2. Radio waves have wavelengths on the order of meters and very low photon energies.3. Ultraviolet radiation has long wavelengths and low photon energies.4. Visible light lies at the center of the electromagnetic spectrum.5. Infrared radiation has long wavelengths and low photon energies.

Answers

Answer:

2, 4, 5

Explanation:

The electromagnetic spectrum gives the classification of the electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength/frequency. In order from the shortest to the greatest wavelength, we have:

Gamma rays

X-rays

Ultraviolet

Visible light

Infrared

Microwaves

Radio waves

Moreover, the frequency of an electromagnetic wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength, according to:

[tex]f=\frac{c}{\lambda}[/tex]

where c is the speed of light.

Finally, the energy of a photon of an electromagnetic wave is directly proportional to the frequency, and inversely proportional to the wavelength:

[tex]E=hf = \frac{hc}{\lambda}[/tex]

where h is the Planck constant.

Keeping in mind these facts, let's now analyze each statement:

1. X rays and gamma rays have very long wavelengths and very low photon energies. --> FALSE: X-rays and gamma rays have the shortest wavelength, so they have the highest frequency and very high energy.

2. Radio waves have wavelengths on the order of meters and very low photon energies. --> TRUE. Radio wave wavelengths are on the order of meters, so very long; consequently, their frequency is very low, and so their energy is also very low.

3. Ultraviolet radiation has long wavelengths and low photon energies. --> FALSE. Ultraviolet has short wavelength, so high frequency and high photon energy.

4. Visible light lies at the center of the electromagnetic spectrum. --> TRUE: visible light photons have wavelength between 380 and 750 nm, and lie at the center of the electromagnetic spectrum.

5. Infrared radiation has long wavelengths and low photon energies. --> TRUE: infrared radiation has longer wavelengths (if compared to the visible light), and therefore lower frequency and lower energy.

Final answer:

X-rays and gamma rays have high photon energies and short wavelengths, radio waves have long wavelengths and low photon energies, visible light lies in the middle of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Explanation:

Among the statements, the correct ones regarding the electromagnetic spectrum are:

X rays and gamma rays have very high photon energies and very short wavelengths. This is because they have high frequencies and carry a lot of energy.Radio waves have long wavelengths on the order of meters and low photon energies. They have low frequencies and carry less energy compared to other types of radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum.Visible light lies at the middle of the electromagnetic spectrum. It has wavelengths that are longer than X-rays but shorter than infrared and ultraviolet radiation.

Based on the information about the characteristics and properties of electromagnetic radiation, these statements accurately reflect the nature of X-rays, gamma rays, radio waves, and visible light.

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What is linear speed called when something moves in a circle

Answers

Answer: Tangential Velocity

The tangential velocity [tex]V[/tex] is defined as the angular velocity [tex]\omega[/tex] by the radius [tex]r[/tex] of circular motion. As shown below:

[tex]V=\omega. r[/tex]

Its name is due to the fact that this linear velocity vector is always tangent to the trajectory and is the distance traveled by a body or object in a circular movement in a period of time.

Tim adds salt as he starts to heat a pot of water to cook pasta. When the water is boiling, he notices the salt has dissolved

Answers

Answer:

The salt is dissolved by the water and heat. If the pot isn't boiling, the salt wouldn't dissolve, it would stay undissolved.

Which planet is named after the roman god of the sea

Answers

The answer is: Neptune

Answer:

Explanation:

the answer is Neptune

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