When compared to viral and bacterial stis, ectoparasitic infections like crabs and scabies are considered minor in terms of their effect on the body and prevalence.
a.true?

Answers

Answer 1
The statement above is TRUE.
Viral and bacteria STIs are usually acquired through sexual contact with an infected person. These infections have serious devastating effects on the affected and death usually result if the infection is not treated promptly. Some of these infections are still without drugs that can cure them, especially the viral STIS. 
Ectoparasitic infections are those infections that are caused by tiny parasitic organisms. They are usually transmitted by close physical contact. The parasite usually affect skin or hair and typically cause itching. The effects of these infections are mild compare to that of viral and bacterial STIs.

Related Questions

Which plant cell organelle contains its own dna and ribosomes

Answers

The answer you are looking for is the Mitochondria! :)

The plant cell organelle that contains its own DNA and ribosomes is the chloroplast.

Chloroplasts are specialized organelles found in plant cells and some algae. They are the primary sites for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Chloroplasts have their own circular DNA and ribosomes, which are similar to those in prokaryotic cells, like bacteria. This is a significant piece of evidence supporting the endosymbiotic theory, which suggests that chloroplasts were once free-living cyanobacteria that were engulfed by early eukaryotic cells.

This symbiotic relationship evolved, and the chloroplasts became integrated into the host cell as a vital organelle responsible for producing glucose and other organic molecules through photosynthesis. Chloroplasts play a crucial role in providing energy to the plant and are responsible for the green color in leaves due to their chlorophyll pigments.

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The throat leads to two separate paths one path goes to the stomach this path is called the

Answers

The path leading to the stomach is the esophagus 
Final answer:

The path from the throat that leads to the stomach is called the esophagus. It's a muscular tube where food travels from the mouth to the stomach, enabled by a process called peristalsis. Another path from the pharynx, called the trachea, leads to the lungs and it's sealed off by the epiglottis during swallowing.

Explanation:

The part of the throat that leads to the stomach is called the esophagus. The esophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx (throat) to the stomach. After the food has been sufficiently chewed and softened in the mouth, it travels down the esophagus to the stomach. The esophagus is approximately 25.4 cm (10 in) in length and penetrates the diaphragm through an opening called the esophageal hiatus to enter the abdomen. The movement of food from the mouth to the stomach is facilitated by wave-like muscle contractions in the esophagus, known as peristalsis. This process is an involuntary reflex triggered by the act of swallowing.

The pharynx has two other paths; one leading to the lungs, which is called the trachea. To prevent food and drink from entering the trachea during swallowing, a cartilaginous flap called the epiglottis closes over the trachea. This structure ensures that food or drink is directed into the esophagus and not the trachea.

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The nurse is caring for a very anxious child whose pain has not been manageable. the parents stay in the child's room, crying and yelling at each other. grandparents and other family members are also constantly in attendance. to effectively help the child with pain management, which action should be a priority for the nurse?

Answers

I think the nurse should not allow the parents to do their crying and yelling or exclude them until the anxious child has calmed down as the child cannot deal with her/his  pain as long she/he is stressed out by the parents behaviour. 

The caregiver of an infant keeps removing the pulse oximetry sensor claiming it is too tight and hurting her baby. which response should the nurse prioritize in addressing this situation?

Answers

The nurse should try to find an oximetry sensor that is not so tight so that the baby will not feel discomfort and thus respond in that way to the caregiver's concerns and alleviate the problem by taking these appropriate measures.

What causes the ocean's surface water to be warmer than water in the mixed zone or deep zone? A. Salty water is denser than freshwater. B. Icebergs melt near the ocean floor. C. The sun's rays hit the surface directly. D. Upwelling pushes warm water to the surface.

Answers

C. the sun's rays hit the surface directly

A major feature of the mediterranean diet is liberal intake of

Answers

The answer to this question would be: Olive oil

In Mediterranean diet, you need to exchange the butter (since it contains unhealthy fat) with olive oil or canola oil. Saturated fat is also unhealthy so you need to exchange it. Lean meat is good but the consumption must be limited.

What term is defined as all the living material inside a cell

Answers

protoplasm is what the living material inside a cell called

Which metal comes first, the bronze star or the purple heart?

Answers

The medal which comes first is the Purple Heart.
The Purple Heart Medal is awarded to those who suffered wounds in combat. The Bronze Star is a higher level medal, awarded 'for heroism in combat zone or Meritorious service.' The medal of highest level is Medal of Honor.

What first aid should be given to a victim with a penetrating eye injury?

Answers

The first aid given with an individual with penetrating eye injury is to have the eye be shielded with a cloth that is sterile such as a gauze pad, after that—the victim should be in lying position in a way that the fluid from the eye won’t be drained out and be in still with the eye and lastly, it is best to call medical help as it requires medical attention.

Final answer:

Do not apply pressure or attempt to remove an object from a penetrating eye injury. Shield the eye and seek immediate medical aid.

Explanation:

For victims with a penetrating eye injury, it's important to offer quick and accurate first aid. Avoid applying pressure or trying to remove any object lodged in the eye. Instead, shield the injured eye using a pad or thick cloth to protect it from further injury until professional help arrives. It is crucial to avoid rubbing the eye, which can exacerbate the injury. If possible, ask the victim to avoid moving their eyes vastly as this may aggravate the injury too. Always seek immediate medical attention for penetrating eye injuries.

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If a parent cell has 54 chromosomes how many will the daughter cell have after meiosis

Answers

54÷2=27 chromosomes .

If a parent cell has 54 chromosomes, after meiosis there are 27 daughter cells.

What is meiosis ?

In sexually reproducing organisms, meiosis is a unique type of cell division of germ cells that results in the production of gametes, such as sperm or egg cells. Two rounds of division are necessary, and the end product is four cells with just one copy of each chromosome.

Because the number of chromosomes in daughter cells is decreased to half that of the parent cell during meiosis, the process is known as reduction division. For instance, while a human cell has 46 chromosomes, the egg and sperm cells created by meiotic division only have 23.

Meiosis, also known as "reduced division," involves cutting the number of chromosomes in half, ensuring that the newborn will have the right number of chromosomes when the sperm and egg fuse.

Thus, If a parent cell has 54 chromosomes, after meiosis there are 27 daughter cells.

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A woman has come to the clinic to seek help with a substance abuse problem. she admits to using cocaine just before arriving. which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to find when examining this woman?

Answers

When examining this woman the nurse would likely find dilated pupils, pacing, and psychomotor agitation. A cocaine user's appearance includes pupillary dilation, tachycardia or bradycardia, elevated or lowered blood pressure, sweating, chills, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss. The person's behavior includes euphoria, talkativeness, hypervigilance, pacing, psychomotor agitation, impaired social or occupational functioning, fighting, grandiosity, and visual or tactile hallucinations.

why might a geographic barrier such as a large ruler cause the formation of a new species of small rodents but not a new species of birds

Answers

Because the birds would just fly right over the barrier, while the small rodents would not be able to cross it.

The middle coat of the eyeball that contains pigment which prevents light from scattering in the eyeball is the:

Answers

CHOROID is the right answer CHOROID prevents light from scattering in the eyeball.

Q 5.9: older skin tends to be dry and broken because

Answers

sebaceous glands shrink in size :) hope that's you out

The most common process through which plant remains are preserved and enter the archaeological record is through

Answers

The answer is paleoethnobotany. This is a common process in which the remains of the plants are reserved as they are being studied and in the same time, they will be recorded or will be placed under the archaeological records.

Describe the gram stain microscopic morphology and catalase reaction of staphylococcus aureus and staphylococcus epidermidis.

Answers

Staphylococcus aureus and staphylococcus epidermidis are both gram positive cocci that generally grow in clusters. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase positive, while staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase negative.
Final answer:

Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are gram-positive bacteria with coccal morphology that form clusters. They also both have a positive catalase reaction, indicating their ability to break down hydrogen peroxide.

Explanation:

The Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are observed as gram-positive, meaning they carry a thick peptidoglycan wall which retains the gram stain. This results in them appearing purple under a microscope. They both display coccal (spherical) morphology and typically, these two species form clusters in their cellular arrangements.

Further, in terms of catalase reaction, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are catalase-positive.

This means they are capable of using the enzyme catalase to break down hydrogen peroxide, which distinguishes them from the gram-positive Streptococcus species, which are catalase-negative.

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What structure joins the cells in heart tissue together, so that the cells work in a coordinated fashion?

Answers

The anchoring junctions

Which part of cellular respiration produces the greatest amount of atp?

Answers

Electron Transport because its the last stage and can produce up to 36 ATP molecules

If you wanted to show the 3-dimensional shape of a protein, including all of the atoms composing it, you should use
a. 2. if you wanted to show the general shape of a protein, along with some important functional details such as folds and coils, you should use
a. 3. if you wanted to show the 3-dimensional shape of a protein, including the backbone structure, folds, and coils, you should use
a. 4. if you wanted to show a generalized protein in which the focus is on the protein's function rather than its structure, you should use
a. 5. if you wanted to show the 3-dimensional shape of a protein by showing the amino acid side chains and their interactions, you should use
a.

Answers

If you wanted to show the 3-dimensional shape of a protein, including all of the atoms composing it, you should use a space-filling model.

2. If you wanted to show the general shape of a protein, along with some important functional details such as folds and coils, you should use a simplified diagram.

3. If you wanted to show the 3-dimensional shape of a protein, including the backbone structure, folds, and coils, you should use a ribbon model.

4. If you wanted to show a generalized protein in which the focus is on the protein's function rather than its structure, you should use a simple shape.

5. If you wanted to show the 3-dimensional shape of a protein by showing the amino acid side chains and their interactions, you should use a wireframe model.

Answer:

1. The space-filling model is used when one wants to show the three-dimensional shape of a protein, comprising all of the atoms constituting it.  

2. A simplified diagram is used when one desires to show the general shape of a protein, along with certain essential functional details like coils and folds.  

3. A ribbon model is used when one desires to demonstrate the three-dimensional shape of a protein, comprising the backbone composition, coils, and folds.  

4. A simple shape is used when one desires to demonstrate a generalized protein in which the focus is on the function of the protein in spite of its structure.  

5. A wireframe model is used if one wants to demonstrate the three-dimensional shape of a protein by showing the amino acid side chains and their associations.  

Which statement best explains why there are 64 possible codons in the genetic code and only 20 amino acids that make proteins of living organisms on Earth?


A) Several codons code for the same amino acid.

B) Each codon can code for several amino acids.

C) Many other amino acids are made but do not form proteins.

D) Stop codons make up many of the remaining base sequences.

Answers

Final answer:

Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid, which explains the redundancy in the genetic code with 64 codons for only 20 amino acids. Stop codons account for some of the total, signaling the end of protein synthesis rather than coding for an amino acid.

Explanation:

The statement that best explains why there are 64 possible codons in the genetic code and only 20 amino acids that make proteins of living organisms on Earth is A) Several codons code for the same amino acid.

This is due to the redundancy and unambiguous nature of the genetic code. While 61 of the 64 codons specify the addition of a specific amino acid to a polypeptide chain, three codons are designated as stop codons, which do not code for an amino acid but instead signal the termination of protein synthesis.

For example, the amino acid threonine is coded by the codons ACU, ACC, ACA, and ACG, illustrating the redundancy aspect. The genetic code is also unambiguous, meaning each codon codes for only one amino acid or function (start or stop).

Final answer:

The genetic code consists of 64 possible codons due to combinations of three nucleotides, but only 20 amino acids due to the redundancy of the code, with several codons often coding for the same amino acid and 3 stop codons signaling the end of protein synthesis.

Explanation:

There are 64 possible codons in the genetic code because each codon is made up of three nucleotides, and there are four possible nucleotides. This leads to 43 (4x4x4), or 64, different combinations. However, there are only 20 common amino acids that make up proteins. The reason for this is that the genetic code is redundant, meaning that several codons code for the same amino acid. For instance, the amino acid leucine is coded by six different codons. Furthermore, only 61 codons are used to specify amino acids, as the remaining three are stop codons which signal the termination of protein synthesis. The redundancy of the genetic code helps to minimize the impact of mutations; if one nucleotide changes, it often still codes for the same amino acid or one with similar properties.

Sharks and their relatives are the first group of animals with jaws.why are jaws a significant evoluntionary development

Answers

The development was significant because the animals were no longer forced into one type of food supply. The ability to tear, chew and crush allowed them to gain access to a variety of new food resources.

Which term refers to water that is drinkable without being treated for bacteria, mineral deposits, and poisonous contaminants?

Answers

The answer is portable water, this is a the type of water that is being drink by an individual without having it to be tested or even being treated with things like contaminants, mineral deposits and even bacteria.  They are considered to be safe when in terms of drinking and even for food preparations.

The amount of protein generally consumed daily by strength athletes is:

Answers

Proteins are large bio-molecules that contains one or more long chains of amino acid remains. Its source is meat, poultry, seafood and such; the amount of protein that is recommended for the endurance of athletes on a relative basic is 1.2-1.4 grams per day.

Asexual reproduction is used by all organisms including humans.
a. true
b. false

Answers

This statement is true

The nurse observes dimpling in an adult female client's breasts. the nurse should explain to the client that dimpling of the breast may indicate a

Answers

Dimpling of the breast may indicate breast cancer

A congenital heart defect in which there is an opening between the two atria is abbreviated as a (n)

Answers

That is known as PDA. PDA - Patent ducts arteriosus. PDA is a condition in which the ducts arteriosus does not close. The word "patent" means open. The ducts arteriosus is a blood vessel that allows blood to go around the baby's lungs before birth.

A congenital heart defect with an opening between the two atria is a patent foramen ovale (PFO), which is a failure of the foramen ovale to close after birth.

A congenital heart defect in which there is an opening between the two atria is known as a patent foramen ovale, or PFO. This condition is characterized by the failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth. Normally, the foramen ovale is a temporary opening between the right and left atria of the fetal heart that allows blood to bypass the pulmonary (lung) circulation until the fetus starts breathing air after birth. If the foramen ovale does not close, it can allow the mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood within the heart, which can lead to various health issues.

​routine formulas for full-term infants provide _____ calories/ounce when prepared as directed.

Answers

When infant formula is prepared as directed by the manufacturers each full-term infant gets 20 calories per oz. Infants can be breastfed or given formula in either powdered form or by liquid form. Many parents that use formula, prefer to use the powdered form because they can make the formula as needed. With the liquid formula, it must be used within 24 hours of opening. 

Dna replication produces two identical dna molecules, called sister chromatid(s), which separate during mitosis.

Answers

is this a question? i dont understand what you mean but here is what i think you need.

Meiosis - 1 DNA replication produces two identical DNA molecules called sister chromatid(s which separate during mitosis 2 After chromosomes condense.

Final answer:

DNA replication produces two identical copies of the DNA molecule, known as sister chromatids, which are held together until they separate during mitosis. This ensures that each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the DNA.

Explanation:

DNA replication is a process that occurs during the synthesis phase (S phase) of the cell cycle, before the cell enters mitosis. It produces two identical copies of the DNA molecule, known as sister chromatids, which are held together at the centromere by cohesin proteins. These sister chromatids eventually separate during mitosis, ensuring that each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the DNA. The replicated DNA forms chromosomes made up of two linked sister chromatids.

Characteristics of the cell wall include which of the following? Select all that apply. cellulose phospholipids and protein increased strength to the cell selective membrane

Answers

I know that some plant cells are made from cellulose, and one of the main goals of the cell wall is to strengthen and support the cell. So, I think, the answer(s) are: cellulose and increased strength to the cell
cellulose and increase strength to a cell

In healthy, spontaneously breathing patients, an occasional increase in tidal volume to three or four times the normal level, which normally occurs about six to ten times each hour, is the definition of a:

Answers

In healthy, spontaneously breathing patients, an occasional increase in tidal volume to three or four times the normal level, which normally occurs about six to ten times each hour, is the definition of sigh breathing.

What do you mean by Tidal volume?

Tidal volume may be defined as the amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle.

The sigh breathing is a superficial breathing technique that utilizes a long exhale with sound when the air leaves the body.

Therefore, the above definition described the process of sigh breathing.

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