Which characteristic is shared by both cnidarians and flatworms?

A) dorsoventrally flattened bodies
B) flame cells
C) radial symmetry
D) a digestive system with a single opening
E) both A and D

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: The answer is D: a digestive system with a single opening.

Cnidarians and flatworms have a digestive system with a single opening.

Explanation: Cnidarians are species of aquatic animals. They are mostly marine organisms that live in both marine and freshwater where they get food. Their respiration and digestion takes place through one orifice and a body cavity.

Flatworms are simple soft-bodied invertebrate animals. Their bodies are not divided into segments.  Flatworms depend on a large surface in order to allow oxygen and nutrition to diffuse into their bodies. They have a digestive system with a single opening. Their habitation are  in marine, freshwater, and damp terrestrial environments.

Answer 2

Flatworms and cnidarians both have a digestive system with a single opening, hence option D is correct.

Aquatic animal species include cnidarians. They are mostly marine species that feed on both freshwater and saltwater. Through one orifice and a bodily cavity, they breathe and digest food.

Simple soft-bodied invertebrates with flat bodies are flatworms. There are no separate parts to their bodies.  For oxygen and food to permeate into the bodies of flatworms, a sizable surface is necessary.

They have a single entrance in their digestive system. They live in areas with saltwater, freshwater, and moist land.

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Related Questions

What are the mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused? What are the mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused? The principal cause of aneuploidy is chromosome nondisjunction during mitosis or meiosis. Polyploidy in nature can result either from the duplication of euploid chromosome sets from a single species or from the combining of chromosome sets from different species. The principal cause of aneuploidy is paternal chromosome nondisjunction during meiosis. Polyploidy in nature results from the combining of chromosome sets from different species. The principal cause of aneuploidy is chromosome nondisjunction during mitosis. Polyploidy in nature can result from the deletion of one chromosome set during meiosis or during the first mitotic division. The principal cause of aneuploidy is maternal chromosome nondisjunction during meiosis. Polyploidy in nature results from the deletion of one chromosome set in somatic cells.

Answers

Final answer:

Aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused by errors during meiosis or mitosis. Aneuploidy occurs due to chromosome nondisjunction, resulting in an unequal number of chromosomes in the daughter cells. Polyploidy happens when there are more than the normal sets of chromosomes in a cell or organism, due to either chromosome duplication or a combination of different species.

Explanation:

The principal mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused involve errors during meiosis or mitosis. Aneuploidy is primarily caused by chromosome nondisjunction during these processes, an error in which the chromosomes do not separate properly, resulting in an imbalance in the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells.

Polyploidy, on the other hand, occurs when there are more than the normal sets of chromosomes in a cell or organism. This can result from the duplication of euploid chromosome sets from a single species (autopolyploidy), or the combining of chromosome sets from different species. Polyploidy is more common in the plant kingdom, where polyploid plants tend to be larger and more robust than euploids of their species. In contrast, polyploid animals are extremely rare and are usually sterile as meiosis cannot proceed normally, leading to aneuploid daughter cells.

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d. Why are both the gene of interest and the plasmid cut with the same restriction enzyme? e. What is the role of DNA ligase in this process? 11. Why is the DNA sample to be separated by gel electrophoresis always loaded at the cathode or negative end of the power source? 12. Explain why shorter DNA molecules travel farther down the gel than larger molecules. 13. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a Nobel Prize–winning idea that is used by scientists to amplify DNA, particularly when the quantity of DNA is very small or contaminated. Explain the three initial steps that occur in cycle 1 of PCR.

Answers

D. So that they produce a complimentary sticky end to each other

E. Dna ligase is used for linking together the plasmid with the desired gene

11. Because DNA contain phosphate group which is a negative recharge, so it will attracted to the anode.

12. Because shorter DNA molecules means less Mr so the shortest length of DNA move faster

13. Denaturing the DNA into 2 single stranded of DNA at 95°, then add primer after cooling it at 65°, after that DNA polymerase is added so that the DNA polymerase will add extra basses across the dna strand.

4. This type of body symmetry gives an animal a dorsal and ventral side, a left and right side, and an anterior and posterior end: A) Asymmetry B) Bilateral symmetry C) Radial symmetry D) Planar symmetry

Answers

An animal having symmetry showing a head and tail, dorsal and ventral side, and a left and a right side would be bilateral.

Final answer:

Bilateral symmetry is the body plan that gives an animal a top (dorsal) and bottom (ventral) side, a left and right side, and a front (anterior) and back (posterior) end, supporting advanced mobility and behaviors.

Explanation:

The type of body symmetry that gives an animal a dorsal and ventral side, along with a left and right side, and an anterior and posterior end is bilateral symmetry. This body plan involves a division through a sagittal plane, resulting in two mirror-image halves of the body. Animals like humans, crabs, and butterflies are examples of organisms with bilateral symmetry. This type of symmetry is associated with an organized nervous system at the animal's anterior end, a phenomenon known as cephalization. In contrast to radial symmetry, suitable for stationary or limited-motion lifestyles, bilateral symmetry facilitates streamlined and directional motion, promoting active mobility and advanced predator-prey and resource-seeking behaviors.

Actin-binding proteins influence which of the following activities?A. the disassembly of actin filamentsB. the interactions of actin filaments with each other and other cellular organellesC. the physical properties of actin filamentsD. all of these answers are correct

Answers

Answer:

D. all of these answers are correct

Explanation:

Actin binding proteins are responsible for the regulation of cytoskeletal microfilaments.

Actin binding proteins have the function to

1. Maintain the population of actin monomers,

2. regulate the polymerization of filaments

3. bind to and block the growing ends of actin filaments

4. assembly actin

5. bind to the sides of actin filaments

7. cross-link actin filaments

In eukaryotic cells, how do transcription factors act to control gene expression?

A. They remove introns from pre-mRNA.
B. They bind to regulatory regions of DNA near the genes.
C. They insert themselves into DNA near the beginning of a gene.
D. They code for the synthesis of RNA polymerase.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

They can inhibit or promote RNA polymerase depending on whether it is a repressor or activator respectively.  They bind in the regulatory region on DNA, therefore, this means they will have a DNA-binding domain (DBD). They can physically block the polymerase from transcription or catalyze the acetylation or deacetylation of histone proteins.

Final answer:

Transcription factors in eukaryotic cells control gene expression by binding to regulatory regions of DNA near the genes.

Explanation:

In eukaryotic cells, transcription factors act by binding to regulatory regions of DNA near the genes. The promoter region, which is immediately upstream of the coding sequence, is the main site where transcription factors bind. These transcription factors recruit RNA polymerase to the promoter region, allowing transcription to begin.

A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?

Answers

The correct answer is: neutrophils.

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cells (granulocytes), part of innate immune response with the role of phagocyte. They appear first during the acute phase of inflammation which is a result of bacterial infection and are first recruited to the site of injury.

What is the process by which the concentration of a substance increases in the tissues of organisms as it travels up the food web called?

Answers

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It is known as biomagnification or bioamplification.

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______ is a source of genetic variation that refers to a random error in the genetic code.

Answers

Mutation is a source of genetic variation

Kathleen, age 7, holds the small ball in both hands in front of her before swinging forward, then backward, with one hand and balancing on well-separated feet. as her arm swings forward and across her body, she rotates and leans into the throw. she moves her foot from the back to a forward position as she follows through the body movement and maintains her balance. what word best describes this movement

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is bilateral.

Explanation:

The tendency to use the left and the right sides of the body together at a similar time or with alternating movements is known as bilateral-coordination. For example, the movement of the body of a striker while playing a baseball game. The tendency to coordinate both the body sides together is an essential skill for various motor skills. The gross motor skills like climbing stairs, walking, skipping, jump rope, and many others need the skills of bilateral coordination.

Do you think mouse offspring will always look like their parents? ______________________



Explain: __________________________________________________________________

Answers

Not always because there could be birth defects, mutations, or other variables.

No, children of identical parents don't always resemble their parents because each child inherits both dominant and recessive features from both parents. Recessive features, however, can skip generations and don't always manifest.

What is genetic recombination?

The exchange of genetic material between distinct species, or genetic recombination, produces offspring with features that are different from those of either parent.

DNA fragments are broken and recombined during the recombination process to create novel allele combinations.

The genetic variety that results from this recombination process at the gene level reflects variations in the DNA sequences of various species.

Because each youngster receives both dominant and recessive traits from both parents, the mouse offspring will not always resemble their parents, just as children of identical parents do not always look like their parents. However, recessive traits can skip generations and aren't always present.

Thus, it can be concluded that the offspring will not be alike the parent.

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Why reason best illustrates why Hershey and Chase chose to use viruses in their experiments?

Answers

Hershey and Chase used bacteriophages for their experiments to demonstrate that DNA is the genetic material because bacteriophages inject only their genetic material into cells, unlike animal viruses. This allowed them to label DNA and proteins separately and track only the genetic material essential for virus replication.

The reason Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase chose to use bacteriophages in their experiments is that bacteriophages inject only their genetic material into host cells, whereas animal viruses enter host cells completely.

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, the researchers used the T2 bacteriophage, which infects E. coli bacteria, to demonstrate that DNA is the genetic material. The T2 bacteriophage attaches to the surface of a bacterial cell and then injects its nucleic acids inside. The fact that bacteriophages inject only nucleic acids was crucial because it allowed Hershey and Chase to distinguish between DNA and proteins as the material of heredity.

By labeling the DNA with radioactive phosphorus (32P) and the proteins with radioactive sulfur (35S), they were able to track which component actually entered the E. coli cells.

Their results showed that only the 32P-labeled DNA entered the cells, thereby proving that it was DNA, not protein, which carried the genetic instructions for new virus production.

Which layer of the alimentary canal is constructed from either stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelium?A) muscularis externaB) mucosaC) submucosaD) serosa

Answers

It is it B because a mucosa         B.B.    

Mucosa layer of the alimentary canal is constructed from either stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelium.

What is alimentary canal?

A muscular tube that runs from the mouth to the anus called the alimentary canal.

What is mucosa?

the soft, inner lining that is found in several bodily cavities and organs (such as the nose, mouth, lungs, and stomach).

Function of mucosa:

The mucosa, which is the innermost layer, performs

secretion absorption processes.

What is squamous?

Squamous cells, which are tiny, flat cells that resemble fish scales, are present in the tissue that makes up the skin's surface, the lining of the body's hollow organs, and the lining of the digestive and respiratory systems.

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A student observes a worm-like organism crawling about on dead organic matter. later, the organism sheds its outer covering. one possibility is that the organism is a larval insect (like a maggot). on the other hand, it might be a member of which phylum, and one way to distinguish between the two possibilities is by looking for the presence of

Answers

Nematode and a circulatory system.

Negative reinforcers ________ the rate of operant responding, and punishments ________ the rate of operant responding. have no effect on; decrease decrease; decrease increase; decrease decrease; increase

Answers

The answer would be

increases; decreases

Final answer:

Negative reinforcers increase the rate of operant responding by removing an unpleasant stimulus to promote a desired behavior. Punishments decrease the rate of operant responding, usually by introducing an unwanted stimulus to discourage an undesired behavior.

Explanation:

In the context of operant conditioning, negative reinforcers increase the rate of operant responding, while punishments decrease the rate of operant responding. This is because negative reinforcement involves removing an unpleasant stimulus to increase a behavior while punishment involves introducing or removing a stimulus to decrease behavior.

For instance, when a persistent beep sound in a car (unpleasant stimulus) stops when you fasten your seatbelt (desired behavior), it's an example of negative reinforcement. The removal of the annoying beep increases the likelihood of the seatbelt being fastened in the future.

On the other hand, a punishment could be something like receiving a fine for not wearing a seatbelt. That would decrease the likelihood of not wearing the seatbelt.

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In module 1 you identify which species of lizards were most similar to one another based on

Answers

Relative limb length and toe pad size. In this module, you determined which lizards are more similar to one another based on what type of information?

I determined which lizards are more similar based on the DNA sequence analysis.

If a stack of rock layers has not been disturbed since it formed, the layers are toward the bottom and the layers are toward the top.

Answers

The layers are older towards the bottom and you get towards the top

Answer:

If a stack of rock layers has not been disturbed since it formed, the older

layers are toward the bottom and the younger layers are toward the top.

Explanation:

The table above summarizes traits for two parents and their child The patterns evident in this data demonstrate that A genetic information is passed from neither mothers nor fathers to offspring B. genetic information is passed only from mothers to offspring C. genetic information is passed only from fathers to offspring D. genetic information is passed from both parents to offspring

Answers

the correct answer is D. genetic information is passed from both parents to offspring

Answer:

its B and D

Explanation:

Since they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the ____

Answers

Since they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the sandwich generation.

The sandwich generation is a generation of people that provide care for both their own children and their aging parents. The sandwich generation are usually in their 30s or 40s and they provide both emotional and financial support. According to Carol Abaya; an aging and elder care expert, the sandwich generation is divided into three groups based on their roles. They include; traditional, club sandwich and open faced sandwich generation.

the economy of a pastoral society is based on which of these activities

a) farming
b) foraging
c) raising livestock
d) manufacturing

Answers

C- would be the answer to the question above (pastoral) aka (posturing) is a number word for a group of animals. Livestock is a group of animals being raised for food.

Answer: C: raising livestock

Explanation:  

The economy of a pastoral society is based on raising livestock.

Pastoral farming refers to a form of farming which involves producing or raising livestock instead of growing crops. The livestock feed on natural grown grass and vegetation. Examples are raising beef cattle, raising wool for sheep, diary farming and so on. Some pastoral farmers grow crops for feeding the livestock.  It is also known as livestock farming. Pastoral farmers are called graziers.

Fill in the blank with the best possible choice: The GFP gene ___________. Key points are underlined.

Answers

hello sir i have no idea what the answer is i just want points

Use the principle of original horizontality to identify the two rocks that are nearly the same age.

Answers

The correct answer is - C and D.

The principle of original horizontality means that the rock layers have been order by age, with the layers at the top being the youngest, while the layers at the bottom being the oldest.

In this picture it is little hard to tell which rocks belong to the same layer from first look because there are multiple twists and turns, an uneven surface, caused by pressure on the crust.

By carefully examining the image though, we can trace the layers more properly and see which ones are younger, which older, and which have the same relative age. In this case, we can see that the markings C and D are actually on the same layer of rocks, thus being a good indication that they have the same relative age.

Answer:

C and D

Explanation:

I got it right on my quiz

An individual complains of a sudden severe headache and blurred vision in one eye. he also has difficulty speaking and experiences weakness, numbness, and paralysis on one side of his body. according to these signs and symptoms, this person probably had a:

Answers

An idividual expressing these complaints could be having a stroke. A stroke is caused due to poor blood flow to the brain and results in the brain shutting down slowly.

Answer: Stroke

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Final answer:

The individual is likely experiencing symptoms of a stroke, which is a medical emergency. These symptoms include sudden severe headache, blurred vision in one eye, difficulty speaking, and weakness and paralysis on one side of the body. Seeking immediate medical attention is crucial.

Explanation:

The individual is experiencing symptoms that are consistent with a stroke. A stroke occurs when there is a disruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in damage to brain cells and the symptoms described. Sudden severe headache, blurred vision in one eye, difficulty speaking, and weakness and paralysis on one side of the body are all common signs of a stroke. It is important for this person to seek immediate medical attention as stroke is a medical emergency.

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What is the primary function of a fruit?


to enable fertilization


to carry out photosynthesis


to provide nutrition for the seed


to disperse seeds

Answers

To disperse seeds should be correct

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

A) be replicating.
B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.
C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.
D) be very active in translation.
E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.

Answers

The correct answer is: C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription

There are many types of gene expression regulation in eukaryotes and DNA methylation is one of them. DNA methylation is an epigenetic tool that cells use to lock genes for the transcription (make them in the "off" position).

It is a process by which methyl groups are added to the DNA molecule and thus, activity of a DNA  is changed without changing the sequence.

DNA methylation also has role in chromosome stability, embryonic development, genomic imprinting, X-chromosome inactivation..

Final answer:

Methylated DNA is usually a sign that the gene expression is being silenced as this epigenetic modification leads to a chromatin structure that prevents transcription factors from initiating transcription.

Explanation:

If one were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, one would expect it to have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. Methylation of DNA is a common epigenetic signaling tool that cells use to lock genes in the "off" position. In particular, the methylation of cytosine bases in DNA can lead to the recruitment of proteins that bind to methylated DNA and change the chromatin structure to a more closed conformation. This prevents transcription factors from accessing the DNA and thereby reduces the expression of genes.

For instance, the addition of methyl groups to the DNA base cytosine is typically associated with transcriptional repression. DNA methylation can also recruit proteins that can further modify histones to a state that is not permissive for transcription. In summary, the presence of highly methylated DNA regions with deacetylated histones tends to indicate a tightly coiled chromatin structure that is transcriptionally inactive.

The principles of probability can be used to?

A. Predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses.

B. Determine which species should be used in genetic crosses.

C. Determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.

D. Decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.

Answers

A. Predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses.

Final answer:

The principles of probability in biology is mainly used to predict the traits of offspring in genetic crosses, which is consistent with Mendelian laws of inheritance. Correct option is A.

Explanation:

The principles of probability can be primarily used to predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses (Option A). This is based on the laws of inheritance outlined by Gregor Mendel, often applied in Punnett squares. However, they can't be used to determine which species should be used in genetic crosses (Option B), the actual outcomes of genetic crosses (Option C), or decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses (Option D). Those decisions require additional biological knowledge beyond probability alone.

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When a person is in a state of fear, the hormone epinephrine is released. this hormone stimulates the activation of energy-generating catabolic pathways in order to provide the body with enough energy to respond to the element that is inducing the fear. how would that be helpful to a person who unexpectedly finds themselves in close proximity to a lion?

Answers

Well the chemical released can be called adrenaline, adrenaline has been known to cause strength or speed or even quicker reflexes which helps people when they r facing danger
Final answer:

In fear-inducing situations like unexpectedly coming across a lion, the body activates the fight-or-flight response releasing epinephrine. This hormone promotes energy generation and physiological changes to prepare the body for a quick and effective response to the threat.

Explanation:

In response to sudden fear or stress, such as unexpectedly encountering a lion, the body reacts by activating the fight-or-flight response. This is a physiological reaction mediated by the adrenal glands, resulting in the secretion of the hormone epinephrine (also known as adrenaline).

This hormone promotes several changes in the body to prepare it for a sudden burst of energy. It increases heart and respiratory rate, temporarily suppresses non-urgent bodily functions like digestion and immunity, and enhances the body's ability to transport oxygen to the brain and muscles. This ensures that the body is geared up for either combating the danger (fight) or those situations where quick escape is the best option (flight).

The activation of catabolic pathways, which break down energy stores in the body, is a critical part of this response. This mobilizes a quick supply of energy for all the muscular and mental work required in the ensuing danger.

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4. removes excess water, salts, uric acids, and chemicals from the blood pulmonary circulation

Answers

The Kidneys removes excess water, salts, uric acids, and chemicals from the blood.

PLEASE HELP, BIOLOGY!!!!
Will the effects of genetic drift on the gene pool differ with sample size?

Answers

Unlike natural selection, genetic drift does not depend on an allele’s beneficial or harmful effects. Instead, drift changes allele frequencies purely by chance, as random subsets of individuals (and the gametes of those individuals) are sampled to produce the next generation.

Every population experiences genetic drift, but small populations feel its effects more strongly. Genetic drift does not take into account an allele’s adaptive value to a population, and it may result in loss of a beneficial allele or fixation (rise to 100\%100%100, percent frequency) of a harmful allele in a population.

The founder effect and the bottleneck effect are cases in which a small population is formed from a larger population. These “sampled” populations often do not represent the genetic diversity of the original population, and their small size means they may experience strong drift for generations.

The effects of genetic drift on the gene pool will differ with sample size, which is true as genetic drift is a random process that leads to changes in the frequency of alleles in the ecosystem.

What is the significance of the genetic drift in the gene pool?

The effects of genetic drift on the gene pool can differ with sample size, as in a large population, the loss of an allele due to genetic drift may have a small effect on the overall frequency, but in a small population, the loss of the same allele may result in a much larger change, which can result in the loss of genetic variation in small populations.

Hence, the effects of genetic drift on the gene pool will differ with sample size, which is true as genetic drift is a random process that leads to changes in the frequency of alleles in the ecosystem.

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What kind of nutrients does the lymphatic system carry to the bloodstream?
a. proteins and carbohydrates b. essential minerals c. fats and fat - soluble vitamins d. water and water - soluble vitamins e. dietary fiber

Answers

The correct answer is:  c. fats and fat - soluble vitamins  

Lymph vessels called lacteals are responsible for the transport of large fats from the digestive tract. Those vessels are located at the beginning of the gastrointestinal tract, predominantly in the small intestine. Fats and fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed from the digestive system and then transported to the venous circulation. The lymph in the lacteals is called chyle.

Final answer:

The lymphatic system carries fats and fat-soluble vitamins from the digestive system to the bloodstream. These nutrients are first encapsulated into chylomicrons in the small intestines before being transported to the lymphatic system and then the bloodstream.

Explanation:

The lymphatic system plays a significant role in the body's absorption and transportation process particularly with regard to fats and fat-soluble vitamins. This is due to the fact that when fats and fat-soluble vitamins are ingested they are first absorbed into the small intestines. They are then encapsulated into structures called chylomicrons, which are transported into a lacteal a lymphatic capillary in the small intestine, and thus into the lymph system. This fatty lymph or chyle eventually drains into the bloodstream. So the lymphatic system carries fats and fat-soluble vitamins to the bloodstream.

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Which type of motion in a lipid bilayer is extremely slow?

Answers

The lipids occasionally flip from one face of the membrane bilayer to the other and attach and detach from the surface of the bilayer at very slow but measurable rates. (polar membrane)

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