Which of the following is true about classified ad Web sites?

a. They do not allow the search to be narrowed down to a particular city.
b. They do not list local advertisers.
c. They are typically supported by ad banners of other advertisers.
d. They do not allow the search to be extended nationwide.
e. They do not offer free classified advertising opportunities.

Answer:

Setup cost per unit of PLUS= $108

Setup cost per unit of MAX= $2.7

Explanation:

Number of setups is used as the activity base for the allocation of setup cost. First of all, we need to calculate setup cost per setup and then multiply cost per setup to the number of setups required by each product to get the setup cost for each unit of product PLUS and MAX, see as follows:

Setup cost per setup = $64800÷ (20+40)

Setup cost per setup = $1080 per setup

Each batch of 10 unit of product PLUS requires 20 setups to complete so the allocated setup cost to each unit of product PLUS would be as follows;

Setup cost of batch of 10 units of product PLUS = $1080× 20

Setup cost of batch of 10 units of product PLUS = $21600

Setup cost per unit of PLUS= $21600÷ 200

Setup cost per unit of PLUS= $108

Similarly,

Each batch of 400 unit of product MAX requires 40 setups to complete so the setup cost of batch of 400 units of product MAX would be as follows;

Setup cost of batch of 400 units of product MAX = $1080× 40

Setup cost of batch of 400 units of product MAX =  $43200

Setup cost per unit of MAX= $43200÷ 16000

Setup cost per unit of MAX= $2.7

Answer:

Setup cost per unit of product: Plus-$108, Max-$2.7

Explanation:

This question falls under the activity-based costing method.

Traditional absorption costing uses volume-related bases to charge overheads to cost units. It assumes that resources used during production of products are consumed in proportion to the amount of direct labour hours, machine hours used. This is a major problem in a modern manufacturing setting where non-production activities account for a large amount of the production costs. Examples of such activities include setting up of machines, production scheduling, procurement of material e.t.c

To ensure that the overheads of these activities are accurately charged to the products, it is important that  products which benefit more from a particular activity should end up with higher cost. This is what activity-based costing(ABC) seeks to achieve.

Activity based costing allocates overheads to cost units using cost drivers. Overheads are first collected together, this is called a cost pool and then charged to the cost units using a cost driver rate. The steps below should be adopted when dealing with activity-based costing:

Step 1: identify the activities e.g procurement, setup, delivery

The activity is setup in this question

Step 2: Ascertain the cost pool. Collect and separate all the costs related to each activity

The cost pool is $64,800

Step 3: Identify the appropriate cost driver  suitable for each activity. For example, number of set ups is a suitable cost driver for setup activity cost.

cost driver:  20 +40 = 60

Step 4: calculate the cost per driver. Divide the activity overhead by the number of cost drivers

given as $1080

Step 5: charge overhead to product. This is done by multiplying the cost driver rate by the amount of cost driver consumed .

Plus; (1080*20)/200= 108

Max: (1080*40)/16000=2.7

We divided by 200 and 16000 for Plus and Max respectively to determine cost per unit

Answer:

Overhead absorption rate = Budgeted overhead

                                              Budgeted machine hours

                                            = $36,000/90,000 hrs

                                           = $0.4 per machine hour

The amount of manufacturing overhead to be allocated to the job

= $0.4 x 900 machine hours

= $360

Explanation:

There is need to calculate the overhead absorption rate which is budgeted manufacturing overhead divided by budgeted activity level.

Then, we will multiply the overhead absorption rate by the actual machine hours of 900 hours.

Answer:

$2000.

Explanation:

Please see attachment

Answer:

the correct answer is d. $11.11 per unit

Explanation:

($2,530,000 + $900,000)/(168,000 + 110,000) DLH = $12.34 per DLH

$12.34 × .90 = $11.11 per unit

To calculate the overhead assigned to each unit produced, we need to determine the total overhead cost and the total number of units produced. The plantwide overhead rate is calculated by dividing the total manufacturing overhead costs by the total direct labor hours. In this case, the overhead cost assigned to each unit produced is $11.11.

To calculate the overhead assigned to each unit produced, we need to determine the total overhead cost and the total number of units produced. The plantwide overhead rate is calculated by dividing the total manufacturing overhead costs by the total direct labor hours. In this case, the total manufacturing overhead costs are $2,530,000 for Department 1 and $900,000 for Department 2. The total direct labor hours are 168,000 DLH for Department 1 and 110,000 DLH for Department 2.

Using the given information, we can calculate the plantwide overhead rate:

Plantwide Overhead Rate = (Department 1 Overhead Costs + Department 2 Overhead Costs) / (Department 1 Direct Labor Hours + Department 2 Direct Labor Hours)

= ($2,530,000 + $900,000) / (168,000 + 110,000)

= $3,430,000 / 278,000

= $12.34 per DLH

Since each unit takes 0.90 DLH, we can multiply the plantwide overhead rate by 0.90 to find the overhead per unit:

Overhead per Unit = Plantwide Overhead Rate * Direct Labor Hours per Unit

= $12.34 * 0.90

= $11.11 per unit

Answer:

a) scenario A NPV positive 28.68, scenario B NPV Negative 16.16, scenario C NPV positive 664.92, scenario D NPV positive 889.72 (b) The scenario with the highest positive NPV is the most profitable (c) The scenario B with the interest rate of 17% has Negative NPV of 16.16 produces less investment (d) The scenario C with the highest interest rate of 20% has the positive NPV of 664.92 he scenario D with the highest interest rate of 20% has the highest positive NPV of 889.72, produces more investment

Explanation:

Calculation of Discount Factor

Effective rate for scenario C and D

Using the formula (1 + m/1 + i)∧n - 1 Where i = rate of inflation, m = cost of capital, n = numbers of years

For C since interest rate = 20% = 20÷100 = 0.2, since rate of inflation = 2% = 2÷100 = 0.02

(1 + 0.2/1 + 0.02)∧n - 1

= 1.2 /1.02 -1

=1.1764 -1

=0.1764 ×100 = 17.64%

Discount Factor for C using the formula ( 1 + r)∧-n -1/ r since n = 3 ,r = 0.1764

= ( 1 + 0.2)∧-3 - 1/ 0.1764

= (1.2)∧-3 -1/0.1764

=0.5787 -1

= 0.4213÷ 0.1764

= 2.3883

For D Effective rate

( 1 + 0.2)∧n - 1/(1 + 0.05)

= 1.2/1.05 -1

=1.1428 -1

= 0.1428 × 100 = 14.28%

DF for D

= (1 + 0.2)∧-3 -1 / 0.1428

=0.5787 -1 = 0.4213

=0.4213÷0.1428

=2.9503

DF for year 1 and 2 for C and D

Using the formula ( 1 + r) ∧-n

( 1 + 0.2)∧-1 = ( 1.2)∧-1 = 0.83

(1 + 0.2)∧-2 = (1.2)∧-2 = 0.694

DF for scenario A For year 1 -3 using ( 1+ r)∧-n

= ( 1 + 0.14)∧-1 = (1.14)∧-1 = 0.8772

= (1+0.14)∧-2 = (1.14)∧-2 = 0.7695

=(1+0.14)∧-3 = (1.14)∧-3 = 0.6750

DF for scenario B using the same formula

=( 1 + 0.17)∧-1 =(1.17)∧-1 = 0.8547

=(1+0.17)∧-2 = (1.17)∧-2 = 0.7305

=(1 + 0.17)∧-3 = (1.17)∧-3 = 0.6244

Scenario A

Year. C.F. DF PV

$ $

0. 900 1 (900)

1 400 0.8772 350.88

2 400 0.7695 307.8

3 400 0.6750 270

-----------

NPV positive 28.68

-------------

Workings = C F × DF = PV

Scenario B

Year. CF DF PV

$ $

0 900 1 (900)

1. 400 0.8547 341.88

2 400 0.7305 292.2

3. 400 0.6244 249.76

-------------

NPV Negative 16.16

------------------

Scenario C

Year CF DF PV

$ $

0 900 1 (900)

1 400 0.83 332

2 400 0.694 277.6

1-3 400 2.3883. 955.32

----- ---------

NPV positive 664.92

----------------

Scenario D

Year CF DF PV

$ $

0 900 1 (900)

1 400 0.83 332

2. 400 0.694 277.6

1-3 400 2.9503 1,180.12

---------------

NPV positive 889.72

-----------------

The company produces approximately 93.85 batches of heating elements annually, has an inventory of 1,060 units two days after production, and maintains an average inventory of 1,150 units. Furthermore, there is enough time to produce other products between batches of heating element production.

To solve this problem, we first need to understand the company's production and consumption rates of the heating elements for their hair dryers.

a. The company produces elements at a rate of 860 per day and runs 251 days per year. Thus, they produce around 215,860 elements annually. As they produce elements in batches of 2,300, the number of batches produced annually will be 215,860 divided by 2,300, which is approximately 93.85. So, the company produces about 93.85 batches of heating elements annually.

b. Two days after the production of a batch, the company will have produced 2 * 860 = 1,720 elements but used 2 * 330 = 660, thus having an inventory of 1,060 units.

c. To calculate the average inventory, we take the sum of the maximum and minimum inventory (2,300 and 0, respectively) and divide by 2, leading to an average inventory of 1,150 units.

d. The time between production of batches of heating elements is the total quantity in a batch divided by the net increase per day (860-330). This equals 2,300/(860-330) approximately 4.8 days. Given that the other product takes 3 days to make, including setup, there is enough time to produce it between batches of heating elements.

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The correct answer is Yes. The company produces approximately 36.01 batches of heating elements annually. Inventory after 2 days will be 1,060 elements. The average inventory is 1,150 elements, and there is enough time to complete another job between production batches.

Let's break down the problem step-by-step:

a. Number of batches produced annually

b. Inventory after 2 days

c. Average inventory

d. Time for other job

Answer:

700 units of work done.

Explanation:

Since all the direct materials are added at the beginning, we assume that the 200 beginning inventory was completed 100% in regards to direct materials and as such 600 - 200 = 400 units transferred were completed in respect to direct materials and 300 units in work in progress are also completed as 100% of direct materials.

So total equivalent units in respect to direct materials are 400 + 300 = 700 units of work done.

Hope that helps.

Final answer:

The number of equivalent units of work done for direct materials in the Assembly department of Zahra Technologies is 875 units for the month, calculated by adding the units completed, the beginning inventory units (since materials are added at the start), and the portion of the ending inventory that has been processed for direct materials.

Explanation:

The question seeks to determine the number of equivalent units of work done with regards to direct materials in the Assembly department of Zahra Technologies for the month, using the weighted-average process-costing method.

Since direct materials are added at the beginning of production, the equivalent units for materials will be the total number of units transferred out plus the units still in process at the end of the month. Thus, the calculation for equivalent units of direct materials is:

600 units transferred out are 100% complete with respect to direct materials.

200 units at the beginning were 100% complete since materials are added at the beginning.

For the 300 units at the end of the month, since they are 25% complete, only 300 units x 25% = 75 equivalent units of direct materials are needed for these.

Total equivalent units for direct materials would be 600 + 200 + 75 = 875 units.

Answer:

$298,206

Explanation:

The computation of the Net present value is shown below  

= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor + salvage value - initial investment  

where,  

The Initial investment is $1,500,000

All yearly cash flows would be

= Annual net operating cash inflows × PVIFA for 20 years at 17%  

= $319,522 × 5.6278

= $1,798,206

Refer to the PVIFA table

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $1,798,206 - $1,500,000

= $298,206

Answer:

See below.

Explanation:

For question 1, the aggregate demand shifts to the left as raising taxes and cutting government expenditure is a contracting fiscal policy. Raised taxes will leave people with less disposable income to spend and lees government demand will also result in reduced aggregate demand thus shifting AD curve to the left . Matched with A.

For question 2, with rise in planned investment, the aggregate demand shifts to the right. As more firms demand for capital goods the aggregate demand curve shifts to the right. In the long run the aggregate supply curve will also shift to the right due to increased production capacity. Matched with B.

For question 3, commodity prices are directly linked with aggregate demand. A fall in prices increases the quantity demanded and thus shifts the AD curve to the right. Matched with B.

For question 4, SAS curve shifts up and to the left. Since the cost of labor has stayed the same and productivity has fallen, per product manufactured is now more expensive and the aggregate supply is less due to fallen productivity. Matched with D.

For question 5, an increase in exports would mean more employment as more of the production is needed to to be sent out to foreign countries. More employment means people have more money to spend and as such they demand more goods and services thus pushing the aggregate demand curve to the right. Matched with B.

For question 6, an increase in nominal wage rate will shift the aggregate supply curve to the left as in the short run this has increased the cost of production. As such less of the goods will be supplied and at a higher price reflecting a change in costs for the producers. Matched with D.

Answer:

b.$52,000 F and $12,000 U.

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Variable overhead spending variance

= (Standard variable overhead Rate ×  Actual Hour) - (Actual Rate × Actual Hour)

= ($6 × 32,000 hours) - ($140,000)

= $192,000 - $140,000

= $52,000 favorable

The (Actual Rate × Actual Hour) is also known as Actual variable overhead

Variable overhead efficiency variance

= (Standard Rate × Standard Hour) - (Standard Rate × Actual Hour)

= ($6 × 0.75 × 40,000 hours) - ($6 × 32,000 hours)

= $180,000 - $192,000

= $12,000 unfavorable

Answer:

31st December

Dr Interest expenses                 72

Cr Interest Payable                   72

(to record interest expenses payable as at 31st December for note owed to Hyatt)

Dr Interest expenses                 200

Cr Interest Payable                   200

(to record interest expenses payable as at 31st December for note owed to the Bank)

Dr Interest expenses                 12

Cr Interest Payable                   12

(to record interest expenses payable as at 31st December for note owed to Towne)

Explanation:

The total interest expenses payable as at 31st December is calculated for each creditors as below:

- 36 days Interest expenses owed to Hyatt: 36/360 * 9% * 8,000 = $72.

- 24 days Interest expenses owed to the Bank: 24/360 x 10% x 30,000 = $200.

- 9 days Interest expenses owed to Towne: 9/360 x 4% x 12,000 = $12.

The question involves adjusting entries for interest on the loans issued by Towne Company. The calculations are based on simple interest, with each entry reflecting an interest expense and an interest payable.

This question involves calculating

simple interest

on loans due after the closing of the calendar year. For the $8000 note payable to Hyatt for example, the calculation would be as follows: $8000 * 0.09 * (36 / 360) = $72. The general journal entry would be:

Interest Expense

72,

Interest Payable

72. Similar entries would be made for the $30,000 bank note and the $12,000 Barr note, adjusting for the varying interest rates. We adjust the interest because the loans extend into the next year past the close of this year.

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Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

A. Uncollectible Expense A/c Dr $11,520

            To Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c  $11,520

(Being the uncollectible expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $1,152,000 × 1%

= $11,520

B.  Uncollectible Expense A/c Dr $12,960

            To Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c  $12,960

(Being the uncollectible expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $1,152,000 × 1.5% × 75%

= $12,960

C.  Uncollectible Expense A/c Dr $9,816

              To Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c  $9,816

(Being the uncollectible expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $12,000 - $2,184

= $9,816

Answer:

The correct answer is

(D) subgroup of the board of directors that is composed of directors who are not officers of the firm

good luck ❤

Answer:

a. investment risk

Explanation:

Risk is the potential of an action or activity (including the option not to move) to cause an undesired loss or event. The idea implies that a choice affects the outcome. The same potential losses can be called "risk".

Investment risk: We can define it as the inappropriateness between the actual and expected returns. Because on this type of risk, there may be occurrence of any losses with some probability or likelihood which will be relative the expected return.

Asset class is about the grouping process of investments which have some mutual or similar characteristics. The risk on this case is something has relative elasticity compared to another investment in the market.  Usually, there is 3 groups of asset classes: equities, bonds and money market instruments.

The market risk which is called sometimes as systematic risk. This risk consider the entire market and has effects on this scale. The investor who undertook this risk will see that the factors which affect the overall performance of the whole marketplace.

Opportunity cost is the cost when you have purchased, chose or bought  the product compared to another product. However, you will notice that if you buy another one you will get more value or consumer surplus but you have just bought and you missed chance. This is the opportunity cost

Brooke's home office deduction is $2,307.82, which represents 6.67% of her total home-related expenses, excluding repairs that don't affect the office space. After deducting this amount from her gross income of $50,000, her adjusted gross income (AGI) would be $47,692.18 for the year.

To calculate Brooke's home office deduction, we need to determine the portion of her home expenses that can be attributed to her home office. The percentage of the home used for the office is calculated by dividing the square footage of the office (300 square feet) by the total square footage of the home (4,500 square feet), which gives us 6.67% (300/4500).

The deductible home office expenses are a portion of the total home expenses that relate to the business use of the home. Calculating these expenses:

Total home office deduction:
$240.12 (taxes) + $933.80 (interest) + $333.50 (operating expenses) + $800.40 (depreciation) = $2,307.82

To calculate Brooke's Adjusted Gross Income (AGI), you subtract the home office deduction from the gross income:

Gross Income: $50,000
Home Office Deduction: -$2,307.82
Adjusted Gross Income: $47,692.18

a. Brooke's home office deduction for the current year is approximately $2,309.22.

b. Brooke's AGI for the year is approximately $47,690.78.

a. To calculate Brooke's home office deduction, we first need to determine the percentage of her home used for business. The home office represents 300/4,500 = 1/15 or 6.67% of the total square footage. Therefore, Brooke can deduct 6.67% of her home-related expenses attributable to the home office.

Home office deduction = Total home-related expenses × Percentage of home used for business

                                = ($3,600 + $14,000 + $5,000 + $12,000) × 6.67%

                                = $34,600 × 6.67%

                                ≈ $2,309.22

Brooke's home office deduction for the current year is approximately $2,309.22.

b. To calculate Brooke's AGI, we subtract her business expenses (including the home office deduction) from her gross income.

AGI = Gross income - Business expenses

       = $50,000 - $2,309.22

       ≈ $47,690.78

Therefore, Brooke's AGI for the year is approximately $47,690.78.

Answer:

E. All of the above

Explanation:

Financial swap is a treaty between the two parties, sometimes called the counterparties, to exchange the prospective cash flow between themselves.

Financial swap emerges due to the fluctuation of the exchange rate and interest rates because the exchange rate and interest rates change from time to time which might create a problem for either the buyer or the seller. The forward market does not work correctly, and some currencies are not accessible in the foreign exchange. Therefore, all the answers are valid for the emergence of a financial swap.

Financial swap markets emerged due to fluctuating exchange rates, interest rates, limitations in forward markets, and limited currency futures availability. Correct option is e. All of the above

Financial swap markets have emerged in recent years due to a combination of factors, including:

a. Exchange rates fluctuate widely:

  - Fluctuating exchange rates can expose businesses to significant risks when dealing with international transactions. Financial swaps, such as currency swaps, allow companies to hedge against these fluctuations by exchanging one currency for another at a predetermined rate, reducing exchange rate risk.

b. Interest rates fluctuate widely:

  - Interest rate swaps are a common type of financial swap that helps businesses manage interest rate risk. As interest rates fluctuate, companies can enter into these swaps to exchange variable-rate interest payments for fixed-rate payments or vice versa, depending on their risk preferences.

c. Forward markets may not function properly:

  - Sometimes, forward markets may not provide the desired financial instruments or flexibility. Financial swaps offer customized solutions that may not be available through standardized forward contracts.

d. Currency futures are available only for selected currencies:

  - Currency futures markets primarily cover major currencies, leaving smaller or less commonly traded currencies with limited hedging options. Financial swaps allow businesses to hedge exposure to a broader range of currencies.

e. All of the above:

  - Financial swap markets have gained prominence because they address the combined challenges of exchange rate volatility, interest rate fluctuations, the limitations of forward markets, and the availability of currency futures. The flexibility and customization offered by swaps make them a versatile tool for managing various financial risks.

In summary, the emergence of financial swap markets can be attributed to the multifaceted challenges that businesses face in the global financial landscape, making swaps a valuable risk management tool for a wide range of financial uncertainties.

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Answer:

Revenues in the order of 18.170,66 dollars per truck per year will break even financially the investment with a yield of 15%

for the 55 truck $999.386,66 per year

Explanation:

F0 cash disbursement 21,200

MACRS dep dep tax shield (depreciation x tax rate)

7,065.96           1,766.49

9,423.40         2,355.85

3,139.72             784.93

1,570.92             392.73

annual cost of the truck:

20,000 x 0.45 x 5% increase per year

maintenance

first year 9000

second year: 9450

third year: 9922.5

fourth year: 10418.625

net (maintenance cost less tax shield):

net

7233.51

7094.15

9137.57

10025.895

Then, we bring this to present considering the discount rate:

[tex]\frac{cash \: flow}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV[/tex]  

time: 1   7,233.51     6,290.01

time: 2   7,094.15      7,094.15

time: 3   9,137.57      9,137.57

time: 4   10,025.90   10,025.90

             Total PV            32,547.63

We know the salvage value in todays dollar is 35% of the purchase price:

21,200 x 35% = 7,420

(the inflation is already considered in the MARR)

We knwo calculate the present worth:

-21,200 - 32,547.63 + 7,420 = -38.907,63‬

Know we solve for an annuity of four year to ge t the equivalent annual cost:

[tex]PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\[/tex]

PV 38,908

time 4

rate 0.15

[tex]38907.63 \div \frac{1-(1+0.15)^{-4} }{0.15} = C\\[/tex]

C  $ 13,627.995

We have to consider taxes so:

13,628 / 0.75 = 18.170,66

Answer:

Explanation:

Your company operates a fleet of flight trucks that are used to provide contract delivery services. As the engineering and technical manager, you are analyzing the purchase of 55 new trucks as an addition to the fleet.These trucks would be used for a new contract the sales staff is trying to obtain. If purchased, the trucks would cost $21,200 each; estimated use is 20,000 miles per year per truck; estimated annual operation and maintenance and other related expenses (year-zero dollars) are $0.45per mile which is forecasted to increase at a rate of 5% per year; and estimated annual revenue (in actual $) are $20,000 per year per truck required .

The trucks are MACRS-GDS three-year property class assets.The analysis period is four years; t=38%; after-tax MARR=15% per year (after-tax; includes an inflation component) ; and the estimated MV at the end of four years (in year-zero dollars) is 35% of the purchase price of the vehicles.This estimate is expected to increase at the rate of 2% per year.

Part A: Create a spreadsheet to determine whether your company should buy the new trucks. Develop the spreadsheet for each truck (per truck).

Part B: Based on an after-tax, actual-dollar analysis, what is the annual revenue required by your company from the contract to justify these expenditures before any profit is considered?

Answer:

C) An increase in the price of tennis racquets

Explanation:

If tennis racquets become more expensive, the demand for them will decline, and people will try to supply this need with substitutes, for example, lacrosse raquets. The reason for this is that the classical supply and demand model tells us that demand and price are inversely correlated: if the price goes up, demand goes down, and viceversa.

An increase in the price of tennis racquets (Option C) is the factor that would be expected to decrease the demand for tennis racquets.

To answer the student's question regarding what would cause a decrease in the demand for tennis racquets, we must understand the factors that affect demand. Option C, 'an increase in the price of tennis racquets,' would indeed decrease demand according to the law of demand, which states that, ceteris paribus, when the price of a product rises, the quantity demanded of the product will fall.

This is because as the price goes up, the product becomes less affordable to consumers, so they will buy less of it. None of the other options provided (decrease in the price of tennis balls, increase in the supply of tennis racquets, or none of the above) are likely to decrease demand for tennis racquets. In fact, a decrease in the price of tennis balls might actually increase the demand for tennis racquets since they are complementary goods.

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Step-by-step explanation:

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

In the given demand function, the variable H can be the price of the mechanical lead pencils which are the other form of pencils apart from the wood lead pencils.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The demand function shows the relation ship between the price of the goods and the quantity demanded of the goods which are inversely related to each other and show that with the increase in the price of the good, the quantity demanded falls. The number 5000 is an autonomous demand of the pencils. This means the demand of the pencils when the price of the pencils is zero.

The variable H is the price of the the pencil which is the mechanical lead pencil. It is the second form of the pencil. The first form of the pencil is the pencil made from the wood which is shown by the variable G in the following demand function in the question.

The statement that is true with regards to the given demand function is The variable H could be price of mechanical lead pencils.

Demand functions show the functional relationship between quantity demanded and other determinants for a commodity.

The standard demand function can be represented as:

[tex]\rm Q = a - bP[/tex],   where Q is the quantity demanded, a is the autonomous demand, b is the slope and P is the price of the commodity.

The given demand function for #2 pencil is:

[tex]\rm Q= 5,000-\dfrac{1}{2}G + 2H[/tex]

On the basis of the above demand function, we can assume that the variable H represents the price of the #2 pencil.

Therefore the correct statement is C.

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Answer:

C

Explanation:

debits Difference Between Implied and Book Value

Answer:

$117

Explanation:

The computation of the interest revenue is shown below:

= Note receivable amount × rate of interest × number of months ÷ (total number of months in a year)  

= $3,900 × 9% × (4 months ÷ 12 months)

= $117

The 4 months are from 1 September 2021 to 31 December 2021 It is assumed that the books will be closed on 31 December 2021

Answer:

Explanation:

Identifiable costs by definition are expenses that can be identified directly with a specific facility, activity or function. Operating budgets deal with short term expenses and expenses to be incurred in the next one year. Therefore, in regard to operating budget, identifiable costs may generally include cost of inventory, cost of fixed assets like land and equipment, supporting group and the direct care group wages.

Final answer:

Identifiable costs in an operating budget generally consist of both fixed and variable costs. Fixed costs are initial, unchanging expenses for essential equipment, while variable costs fluctuate based on organizational activities such as personnel expenses and supplies.

Explanation:

In regard to an operating budget, identifiable costs may generally include fixed costs and variable costs. Fixed costs, such as purchases of essential equipment like vehicles and capture or recording equipment, are expenses that do not change with the level of activity within the organization and are typically incurred during the first year. These costs are important to factor into the budget for long-term planning and replacement scheduling. Variable costs, on the other hand, include items that fluctuate with the organization's activities, such as cumulative personnel expenses (salaries, benefits, and indirect costs), and expendable items like supplies that must be renewed regularly.

Budget planning and management require an understanding of both fixed and variable costs to ensure that they accurately reflect the organization's expenditure needs. It's also crucial for public managers to be aware of how cost structures and behaviors change in different performance scenarios, which aids in effective budgeting and management at the program level.

Answer:

By the time Michael is 21 years old, Uncle C has saved the most money.

Explanation:

Uncle A = $50 on Michael's first birthday, and same on each birthday

When Michael is 21 years of old, His Uncle A will save = $50 x 21 = $1,050

Uncle B = $15, and $5 more than the previous year. It means 15, 20, 25...

When Michael is 21 years of old, His Uncle B will save = $1,365

Here is the sequence = (15+20+25+30+35+...............+100+105+110+115)

Uncle C = $40, and 5% more than the previous year. It means $40 x 1.05 = $42 in the 2nd year.

When Michael is 21 years of old, His Uncle C will save = $1,428.77 (See the image below to get the proper explanation)

Uncle D = $300. It offers 2.7% interest compounded quarterly. When Michael is 21 years of old, His Uncle D will save = $527.88

Using the Future value, we can determine Uncle D's savings. Hence,

FV = PV × [tex](1 + \frac{i}{m} )^{n*m}[/tex]

FV = $300 × [tex](1 + \frac{0.027}{4} )^{21*4}[/tex]

FV = $300 × 1.7596

FV = $527.88

Answer:

$25.73

Explanation:

Apples $4.25

Oranges $5.00

Cheese $4.50

Flowers $9.99

Total Purchase Before Tax $23.74

Sales Tax @8% $1.99

Total Cost $25.73

Where Sales Tax is calculated as;

$23.74 x 0.08 = $1.99

Answer:

a) Cost of direct material used = $69,000

b) cost of goods sold for June = $119,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Raw materials purchased during June = $67,000

Cost of goods manufactured = $124,000

                               Beginning     Ending  

Raw Materials        $23,000        $21,000

Finished Goods     $32,000        $37,000

Now,

a) Cost of direct material used = Raw material available - Ending raw material

= (Beginning Raw Materials + Raw materials purchased) - Ending raw material

= $23,000 + $67,000 - $21,000

= $69,000

b) cost of goods sold for June

= Cost of goods available for sale - Ending Finished Goods

= $124,000 + $32,000 - $37,000

= $119,000

Answer: Immediately

Explanation: An Agent is a legally appointed third-party to act in the place of a person or organizations.

Whenever an agent changes employment from one dealer broker to another he has to immediately transfer his registration number, the registration number of an agent is very important as it is one of the main requirements for Government regulation of an agent.

The registration number of an agent gives the agent some level of credibility and ensures that the agent has gone through the legal and valid requirement for practice.

Answer

Consider the following calculation

Explanation

D1 = 1.15*(1+0.15) = 1.3225

D2 = 1.3225*(1+0.15) = 1.52

D3 = 1.52*(1+0.13) = 1.719

D4 = 1.719*(1+0.06) = 1.82

According to dividend discount model,

P0 = D1/(R-G)

D1 - Dividend at t =1

R - Required rate

G - Growth rate

P3 = D4/(R-g) = 1.821/(0.12-0.06) = 30.36

Find P0 by discounting the future dividends and P3

P0 = 1.3225/(1+0.12) + 1.52/(1+0.12)^2 + 1.718/(1+0.12)^3 + 30.36/(1+0.12)^3 = $25.23

Current value of stock = $25.23

b.  P1 = 1.52/(1+0.12)^1 + 1.718/(1+0.12)^2 + 30.36/(1+0.12)^2 = $26.93

P2 = 1.718/(1+0.12)^1 + 30.36/(1+0.12)^1 = $28.64

c.  Dividend yield = Dividend/Price

For year 1, Dividend yield = 1.3225/25.23 = 0.0524 = 5.24%

Capital gains yield = (P1-P0)/P0 = (26.93-25.23)/25.23 = 0.0674 = 6.74%

The value of Snyder Computer Chips Inc.'s stock can be calculated by computing the present value of dividends and the present value of sale price. The prices P1 and P2 correspond to the price of the stock in year 1 and 2, and can be computed using the dividend discount model. The dividend yield and expected capital gains yield vary based on the stock's current price and expected future prices.

To calculate the value of the Snyder Computer Chips Inc. stock, we need to compute the present value of dividends and the present value of sale price at the end of year 3. We use the formula for present value which factors in the dividend growth and the required rate of return.

a. D1 = $1.15*1.15 = $1.3225 is the expected dividend in year 1, D2 = $1.3225*1.15 = $1.52088 is the expected dividend for year 2, and D3 = $1.52088*1.13 = $1.7185924 is the expected dividend for year 3. We then compute the present value of these dividends. After that, we calculate the price of the stock in year 3 using the constant growth model P3 = D3*(1+g) / (required rate of return - g).

b. P1 = D2 / (required rate of return - growth rate) and P2 = D3 / (required rate of return - growth rate).

c. The dividend yield for any year is the expected dividend divided by the current price of the stock. The expected capital gains yield would be the expected price of the stock in the following year minus current price divided by the current price.

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Answer:No, eConnect does not need to restate financial statement prior to 2011

B. No amount would be recognized in the financial statement associated with the S25million payment on June 15, 2012 but the amount should be debited to 2011 as prior year adjustment.

Explanation:

Though the S25 million payment refers to the account year preceding 2011 and 2011 but a debit to the retained earnings of 2011 will provide the same effect as debiting to the prior years before 2011.

The S25 million payment in 2012 though a direct reduction in cash asset to be debited to bank account for the year but it will only be recognized as a prior year adjustment and no other amount will be associated with it .

eConnect does not need to restate its financial statements prior to 2011 as it did not recognize any contingent liability for the potential sales tax and related penalties. The $25 million payment made on June 15, 2012, should be recognized as an expense in the financial statements for that period.

Given the information in the question, it is not necessary for eConnect to restate its financial statements before 2011. The reasoning behind this conclusion lies in the fact that the company did not recognize any contingent liability for the potential sales tax and related penalties in those years because they estimated that the chances of detection were not probable. Therefore, no restatement of the financial statements for these previous years is required.

As for the amount to be recognized in connection with the $25 million payment on June 15, 2012, this should be recognized as an expense in the financial statements for the period in which the payment was made. Specifically, this is a liability that was incurred due to the company's past actions (i.e., sales made without collecting and remitting applicable sales tax), and it was settled during this period, so it should be reflected in the company's financial performance and position for this period.

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