Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
1. The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.
2. In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.
3. Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
4. All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.
Answers
The statement which is true is 3: adaptation is complete after five minutes of exposure to the stimulus.
What this means is that from the point when the tongue receives the stimulus, its sensation towards that stimulus begins to depreciate and in about five minutes, it is as is the stimulant is no longer present. This phenomenon is called adaptation.
Gustatory receptors are usually found on the tongue. They are responsible for the ability to detect and differentiate between one taste or flavor and another through a process called chemosensation.
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Final answer:
Gustatory receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli, can adapt to taste stimuli within one to five minutes, and have varying thresholds of activation. They can also detect both hydrophilic and hydrophobic compounds, not just hydrophobic ones. So the correct options are 1 and 3.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the characteristics of gustatory receptors, which are responsible for the sense of taste. Let's address each of the statements to clarify which is true:
The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli. This is true. Gustatory receptors are activated by chemical compounds, such as Na+ for salty and H+ for sour. Sweet, bitter, and umami tastes require the binding of molecules to G-protein coupled receptors, triggering a signal transduction pathway that ultimately leads to the depolarization of gustatory cells and an action potential.In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic. This statement is not true. Taste receptors can detect a variety of compounds, not limited to those that are hydrophobic.Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes. This is generally true. Taste receptors can adapt to taste stimuli, although the time can vary.All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation. This is not true. Different gustatory receptors have different thresholds for activation, as they are specialized for detecting different types of tastes.Related Questions
Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine are all examples of _______.A. bodily humors. B. synaptic clefts.
Answers
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
A.bodily humors. B.synaptic clefts. C.neurotransmitters. D.growth hormones.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- C
Explanation:
Neurotransmitters are the chemicals released from the neurons at the synaptic junctions which helps in the transmission of the electrical impulse from one neuron to another.
The dopamine, serotonin and nor-epinephrine are the biogenic forms of neurotransmitters which are synthesized from the precursors of the amino acids. These neurotransmitters are produced in producing different functions in the body.
Thus, option- C is the correct answer.
The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old g2, p2 client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation after delivering a dead fetus. which finding is the highest priority to report to the health care provider (hcp)?
Answers
Answer: A. activated partial thromboplastine time(ATTP) of 30 secs.
B. Haemoglobin of 11.5g/dl(115g/l)
C. urinary output of 25ml in the last 1hour
D. platelets at 149000mm3(149*109/l)
Correct option is A
Explanation:
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT or APTT ) is a blood test that characterizes coagulation of the blood.The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is often used in conjunction with another measure of how quickly blood clotting takes place called the prothrombin time (PT). The prothrombin time (PT) measures the speed of clotting by means of the extrinsic pathways
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) reflect the underlying consumption and impaired synthesis of the
coagulation cascade.
Which of these events is caused by the stapes pushing against membrane covering the oval window?A The pressure change causes the organ of Corti to vibrate horizontally.B The pressure change causes the tectorial membrane to move horizontally.C The pressure change causes the organ of Corti to vibrate vertically.D The pressure change causes the tectorial membrane to vibrate vertically.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is option C "The pressure change causes the organ of Corti to vibrate vertically".
Explanation:
The organ of Corti is an important structure for auditory perception that acts as a receptor organ for hearing. The organ of Corti is located in the mammalian cochlea and it allows for the transduction of auditory signals into nerve impulses according to the vibrations that are received from external sources. If the receiving sounds comes from the stapes pushing against membrane covering the oval window, the pressure change will causes the organ of Corti to vibrate vertically. Stimulus from membrane covering the oval window are sent to the organ of Corti, which responds by vibrating vertically.
The roots of mandibular first premolars are? A. (flattened faciolingually) and (frequently sharply curved distally) B. (flattened faciolingually), (usually free of marked distal curvature) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces) C. (broader facially than lingually) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces) only D. (broader facially than lingually), (usually free of marked distal curvature) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces)
Answers
Answer:
D. (broader facially than lingually), (usually free of marked distal curvature) and (frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces)
Explanation:
From the diagram below, we can different aspects of Mandibular first premolars. A. Buccal, B. Lingual, C. Mesial, D. Distal, E. Occlusal.
The Buccal aspect of mandibular first premolars have buccolingual measurement as a canine and has a sharp buccal cusp.The crown is inclined lingually but is broader facially than lingual, and therefore, the tip of the buccal cusp is situated on the vertical axis of the root.
The lingual cusp is smaller and shorter than buccal cusp.
The distal contact area is wider than the mesial contact area, since the contact tooth is second premolar offering it a free of marked distal curvature.
In addition, the outline is concave from the contact area is broader than the mesial contact area, thus it is frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces.
Answer:
I think the answers "D"
Explanation:
Plate tectonics is the theory explaining the structure of the earth's crust and the resulting features and processes of the interaction of the plates that move slowly over the underlying mantle. There are four boundary zones that are created by these plate interactions. What is the most common resulting process that is found in all four of the zones?
Earthquakes
Submarine mountain range
Trenches
Widening of the ocean basin
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is "Earthquakes".
Explanation:
The four boundary zones that are created by tectonic plates interactions are: divergent, convergent, transform and plate boundary zones. There are different consequences of the boundary zones, including the generation of new crust, destruction of new crust, plates sliding horizontally and unclear effects, respectively. Independently of the effect of the boundary zones, the most common resulting process of these effects is the generation of earthquakes. Earthquakes are the result of the movement of tectonic plates, which takes place at all four boundary zones.
Which is known as the most venomous spiders in north america?
Answers
Answer:
Recluse Spiders (Loxosceles) is known as the most venomous spiders in north america.
Explanation:
There are 3,000 species of spiders described in North America.
Among the spiders found in North America, only the Loxosceles and Latrodectus species are considered really dangerous and an average of 4 people die from venomous spider bites a year in the USA.
The Brown Recluse Spider's venom can cause significant cutaneous injury with tissue loss and necrosis, and can be deadly to humans. However, though it is very dangerous to people, it is not an aggressive species and it only bites when threatened.
The most venomous spider in noth America is the brown recluse
Compare and contrast elements and compounds (check all that are true): Group of answer choices Compounds are made of different types of atoms. Elements cannot be broken down by physical or chemical changes Compounds can be physically separated. Elements are made of only one type of atom. Compounds can be chemically separated. Compounds are made of the same type of atom
Answers
Answer:
Compounds are made of different types of atoms.
Elements cannot be broken down by physical or chemical changes
Elements are made of only one type of atom.
Explanation:
An Element is any one of the simplest chemical substances that CANNOT be decomposed in a chemical reaction or by any chemical means and made up of atoms all having the same number of protons. Examples are Sodium (Na), Nitrogen (N2), Aluminium (Al)
Compound is a substance formed by chemical union of two or more ingredients in definite proportions by weight. examples are NaCl (Sodium Chloride), NH3 (Ammonia)
Answer:
compounds are made if different Types of atoms. elements are made of only one type of atoms. elements cannot be broken down by physical or chemical changes
Explanation:
check all that are true and these are all true
California enacts a statute to ban advertising in "bad taste." This stat-ute would likely be held by a court to be
(A) anunconstitutional restriction of speech.
(B) constitutional under the First Amendment.
(C) justified by the need to protect individual rights.
(D)necessary to protect national interests
Answers
Answer:
Option A, an unconstitutional restriction of speech
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
Final answer:
The correct option is (A). A statute in California aimed to ban advertising in "bad taste" would likely be struck down as unconstitutional under the First Amendment, as prior case law supports the protection of speech unless it fails strict tests such as content-neutrality or imminent lawless action.
Explanation:
The correct option is (A). The question regards whether a California statute to ban advertising in "bad taste" would likely be held by a court to be constitutional or not. Based on relevant case law and First Amendment jurisprudence, such a statute would likely be deemed an unconstitutional restriction of speech. The United States Supreme Court has consistently held that statutes regulating speech must be content-neutral, not overbroad, and the least restrictive means to achieve a compelling government interest.
In cases like Stromberg v. California and Cohen v. California, the Supreme Court has protected symbolic speech and offensive language, respectively, under the First Amendment. Moreover, laws targeting obscenity or fighting words must pass strict scrutiny such as the Miller Test or be designed to prevent imminent lawless action. Broad regulations on speech based on taste are likely to be struck down as they are neither content-neutral nor narrow enough to avoid infringing on protected speech.
After suffering a brain injury by falling from a ladder, Zack's wife continues to tell the doctor that his personality has changed. He used to be fun loving and carefree, but he is now more critical and yells at his children for seemingly little reason. Zack is likely to have suffered damage to the __________ part of his cortex.
Answers
Answer:
frontal lobe
Explanation:
The cerebral cortex of the brain has four paired lobes. one of these four paired lobes is the frontal lobe and it occupies 2/3rds of the entire human brain. the frontal lobe is associated with performing tasks such as speech and language production, walking and running, classifying and identifying objects, reacting to feelings, forming memories, forming the personality of a person, and attention involving tasks. Since after the injury, Zack has an altered personality and his reaction to the situation has changed, this points out to the fact that he is most likely suffering from frontal lobe injury.Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
Answers
Answer:
A.OSHA
Explanation:
The complete question is as follows:
Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids?
A.OSHA
B.UNICEF
C.CDC
D.USMLE
OSHA is the short form for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration which is an agency of the United States Department of Labor located in Washington D.C, USA. The agency works to set and enforce standards for safe and healthy working environment for both men and women who work in private and public sectors. The employers of OSHA have the responsibility to provide a safe workplace and ensure that no serious health hazards take place in the same. Therefore the employers of emergency responders are mandated by OSHA to take measures to protect employees that are exposed to body fluids and blood.The hormone insulin, which is produced by the cells of the pancreas, is released into the surrounding extracellular fluid by an energy-requiring process called _____.
Answers
Answer: Active transport
Explanation:
Active transport can be defined as the process by which the molecules are transported against the concentration gradient by the help of energy.
The hormones like insulin are also transported by this process so that the hormone can reach to the place where it is required.
This is an energy consuming process because of sizeof molecule and the opposite of the concentration gradient.
1. Discuss why reproductive isolation is necessary for divergence in populations.
3. Identify the eight mechanisms of reproductive isolation.
4. Explain the common ways in which sympatric speciation can occur.
5. Recognize that allopatric speciation is the most common way in which new species arise.
Answers
1. Reproductive isolation is essential for population divergence. The mechanisms of reproductive isolation are essential for speciation which is the process of development of new species from preexisting species.
Due to reproductive isolation individuals of the same population will acquire different types of genetic variations and mutations such that males and females of the isolated populations cannot reproduce with each other.
3. Mechanisms of reproductive isolation are temporal isolation, behavioural isolation, gametic isolation, ecological isolation, mechanical isolation, hybrid inviability, hybrid sterility and hybrid breakdown.
4. Species populations within the same habitat become reproductively isolated in sympatric speciation. This speciation is a resultant of polyploidy where an offspring develops with twice the number of chromosomes.
5. Allopatric speciation is also called geographic isolation and it is the most common type of isolation. A geographical barrier separates individuals of a species and the separated groups develop into new species.
NAD and FAD work by loading and unloading _________ and _________ during energy transfers.
Answers
Answer:
Hydrogen and electrons
Explanation:
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) serve as reducing power during energy transfers. One NAD+ accepts one hydrogen ions and two electrons and becomes reduced into NADH. Likewise, FAD accepts two hydrogen ions and two electrons and is reduced into FADH2. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 into NAD+ and FAD respectively releases both hydrogen ions and electrons.
For example, some of the energy of glucose released during glycolysis and Kreb's cycle is temporarily stored in the form of NADH and FADH2. Oxidation of NADH and FADH2 via electron transfer chain of mitochondria releases both electrons and hydrogen ions (protons). The protons are pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane to generate the proton concentration gradient.
Given that equal amounts of the different mRNA’s were injected into fertilized frog eggs, which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the electrophoresis results?
a. B-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is a-hemoglobin mRNA
b. a-hemoglobin is present only in cells where B-hemoglobin is absent
c. a-hemoglobin mRNA is more stable than B-hemoglobin mRNA
d. Tubulin inhibits translation of hemoglobin mRNA
Answers
Answer:
Answer is A. B-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is a-hemoglobin mRNA.
Explanation:
The introduction of electric charge into a gel or fluid, causing or resulting in the movement of the charged particles in the gel or fluid, is referred to as the electrophoresis. It can also be explained as a separation method or technique which is based on the movement of particles or ions in an electric field.
The electrophoresis is used in separating DNA fragments , RNA or protein, based on their size and charge.
Species that have a capacity for a high rate of population increase are called ____.
Answers
Answer:
r-selected species
Explanation:
Species that have a capacity for a high rate of population increase are called r-selected species.
What is the diversity in the species?The species diversity index can be defined as the measure of the diversity of species. This takes into the account for the number of species present in an area, also the relative abundance of species in an area. If the species richness increases, evenness of the species also increases and the diversity of species also increases.
Biodiversity has been the variety and variability of all living organisms within a given environment. The main components that contribute to biodiversity has been given as follow:
1 - Species richness: It takes into account the number of different species present in an area. So the more species, the more richer that place is.
2 - Species evenness: It describes the relative abundance of the different species in an area. That is, the more similar the abundance (quantity) of a species, the more uniform it will be.
Therefore, Species that have a capacity for a high rate of population increase are called r-selected species.
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Nikhil asked 120 randomly chosenmoviegoers to watch a clip of an upcoming movie and choose the best title. The title "Everything" was chosen by 36 of the moviegoers as the preferred title. To the nearest percent, with a confidence level of 90% (z*-score 1.645), what is the confidence interval for the proportion of moviegoers who preferred the title "Everything"? E = z* and C = + E between 4% and 10% between 7% and 30% between 23% and 37% between 29% and 43%
Answers
Answer:
C. between 23% and 37%
Explanation:
Given:
The total viewers(n) = 120
The total number that chooses the title "Everything” = 36
Therefore,
The mean proportion is p = 36/120 = 0.3.
Let's find the standard deviation of the proportion
=√(p*(1-p)/n)
= √(0.3*0.7/120)
= 0.0418.
Next step is to multiply 0.0418 by the z-score of 1.645 to get the deviation
The confidence interval
= (0.3 - 0.0688, 0.3 + 0.0688)
=(0.2312, 0.3688).
=(23.12%, 36.88%)
Answer:C
Explanation:
Which condition would be most conducive to the evolution of sexual reproduction and recombination?
Answers
Answer:
A rapidly changing environment
Explanation:
The sexual reproduction is more advantageous to organism to survive in the harsh conditions due to the changes in the sequence of nucleotides of the genes which became a characteristic feature of the sexual mode of reproduction.
This process of changes in the sequence is known as recombination. The sexual mode or reproduction evolved in the last common ancestors of eukaryotes but it is known to occur in the prokaryotes also as they reproduce by conjugation, transformation and transduction.
The sexual mode of reproduction was evolved in the organism as a result of the change in the environment to survive and thrive in the environment.
Millicent sits up in bed several times a week, shouting and crying as if she is terrified. Her mother takes her to the pediatrician who suggests that she is having night terrors. Upon hearing this, Millicent’s father says, "This is probably just caused by nightmares. She’ll grow out of it!" Is Millicent’s father correct?
Answers
Answer:
Nightmares in children may disturb them mentally and a child can individual develop the fear against a particular thing. Children can see fearful images and unrelated pictures in their nightmares.
The Millicent father is not completely right as she does not completely have nightmares. Sleep terrors might occur during NREM ( non-rapid eye movement) sleep. The main and typical treatment is to see whether the fear or terror go away by itself or not otherwise some extra treatment must be given to the child.
Hamstrings is a collective name for the four muscles on the anterior and lateral aspects of the upper leg. Indicate whether the statement is true or false?
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Hamstring term is used to define the posterior thigh compartment. It has three parts and forms tendons at the backside of the knee. It is responsible for flexing the lower portion of the legs at the knees.
The anterior and lateral sides of the thighs are covered by Quadriceps femoris muscle. It has four major parts – one rectus femoris muscle and three vasti muscles which asre vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius
Hence, the given statement is false
The hamstrings are a collective name for muscles on the posterior thigh, and the statement is true.
True. The hamstrings are indeed a collective name for four muscles located on the posterior thigh. These muscles include the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris.
Continental rises are formed:_______
a. next to submarine canyons.
b. in association with hydrothermal vents as a result of the slow accumulation of sediments from the water column.
c. by many deep sea fans.
d. on the flank of a mid-ocean ridge.
Answers
Answer:
Answer is C. by many deep sea fans.
Explanation:
Continental rises consist of sand , silts and mud. They are regarded as the the gently inclined slope or sloping transition which are found between the continental slope and the ocean floor. It is found all around the world. And characterized by coalescence of submarine alluvial fans.
The synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produces which of the following as a byproduct?
Answers
Answer:
Water
hope it helps:)
The synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produce water as a byproduct.
DEHYDRATION SYNTHESIS:
Dehydration synthesis is a type of reaction which involves the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller molecules with the release of water. Dehydration synthesis is the reaction through which proteins or carbohydrates (polysaccharide) are formed. For example, glucose molecules will combine in a dehydration synthesis to form starch with the release of water.Hence, the synthesis of protein or carbohydrate polymers always produce water as a byproduct.
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In a bacterial cell population that is growing exponentially, if one generation has 100 cells and the following generation has 200 cells, the next generation is expected to have
Answers
Answer:
400 cells
Explanation:
Bacterial growth refers to the increase in the number of bacteria population in an exponential manner. That is, if a bacteria cell divides in a generation to give rise 2 bacteria cells, while in the next generation, we would be having a bacterial cell population of 4 cells.
So, if one generation has 100 cells and the following has 200 cells, the next generation would have a bacterial cell population of 400, showing an exponential increase in bacterial cell growth from one generation to another.
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles
a. Scalenes
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Internal oblique
d. Diaphragm
Answers
Answer:
Answer is A. Scalene.
Explanation:
Dysfunctional breathing is a breathing disorder , which is characterized by changes in breathing pattern. It can also be described as an alteration in normal breathing.
The scalene are muscles which are found at the neck, and act as accessory muscle of respiration.
What state of mind does alcohol initially produce in most adults after the first drink?
Answers
Answer:
euphoria
Explanation:
When a person takes alcohol, he/she feels relaxed and euphoric. This happens because of the release of endorphins. Endorphins are a chemical that produces the feeling of pleasure and happiness. After the first drink, the content of alcohol in blood is 0.05-0.06% which is sufficient to develop euphoric feeling.
However, some of the consumers have also claimed that it act as a depressant.
If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) bottleneck effect.
C) founder effect.
D) all three of these.
E) both the first and third of these.
Answers
Answer:
If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of
E) both the first and third of these.
Explanation:
Genetic drift was the process of changing of allele frequencies over generations in a random fashion.
Founder effect is closely linked with the genetic drift. In this case, a few individuals of the original population start a new colony isolated from the other members of the species.
A founder effect happens when a new colony started from few members of the original population. The small size of population means that the colony may have a small variation of the genes in the original population.
A founder effect event happens when a small group of individuals was separated from the rest of the population, whereas a bottleneck effect occurs when most of the population is destroyed.
The correct answer to the question is C) founder effect, which occurs when a new population is established by a subset of the original population, carrying with it an unrepresentative set of alleles. Genetic drift includes both the bottleneck and founder effects, but they occur under different conditions. The scenario described is not a bottleneck event but rather represents the founder effect.
Explanation:If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of the founder effect. The founder effect is a form of genetic drift where a few individuals establish a new population that is not genetically representative of the original population. Since this scenario involves a new population being established by a subset of the original population and carrying with it an unrepresentative set of alleles, it matches the definition of the founder effect.
Genetic drift is the effect of chance on a population's gene pool and it can manifest in special cases such as the bottleneck effect and the founder effect. The bottleneck effect occurs when a population's size is significantly reduced due to a catastrophic event, leading to a random alteration in allele frequencies that is not based on the organisms' traits. However, since the finches in question were not subjected to a catastrophe that reduced their numbers, but rather were part of a group that started a new population, the bottleneck effect is not applicable in this case.
Therefore, option C, the founder effect, is the accurate answer. It is important to note that while both bottleneck and founder effects are examples of genetic drift, they occur under different conditions and are not interchangeable terms. The correct answer is C) founder effect.
How many molecules are formed from the cleavage of glucose during the first step of glycolysis?
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is- 2 molecules with 3 carbons
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. In glycolysis, glucose is broken down in the absence of oxygen into two molecules of pyruvate which consists of three carbons.
So in glycolysis, glucose is partially oxidized into two molecules of pyruvate. Then in aerobic respiration, this glucose is fully oxidized into CO2 in kreb's cycle. Glucose is a six-carbon compound so it gives 2 molecule of 3 carbon compounds during the first step of glycolysis.
So during this partial oxidation of glucose 2 ATP and 2 NADH is produced with 2 molecule of pyruvate which is a 3 carbon compound.
Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars. These organelles are found only in plants. Which organelles are found only in animals?
Answers
Answer: centrioles and lysosome
Explanation: centrioles are found in animals and most protists.
They usually occurs in pair and the pair is collectively called centrosome.
Centrioles are microtubules organizing center.they contain microtubules which controls the separation of chromosomes during cell division.they also help to produce spindles.
Centrioles provides functional internal structure of flagella and cilia
Lysosomes are vesicles that contains enzymes capable of digestion either food or dead cells.
Brent is a White man who has been given a choice to work with Darwin or Ken. Darwin is a Black man who shares many of Brent's values and attitudes, and Ken is a White man who shares little in common with Brent. Who will Brent like and want to work with most?
A) Darwin
B) Ken
C) All else being equal,his liking will be equally high for both Darwin and Ken
D) Brent will probably choose to work alone
Answers
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Brent will opt to work with an individual who has the desired characteristics to meet the work requirement and could also go along with efficient team building. Thus, in case if both Ken and Darwin have similar characteristics, then Brent would prefer to work with both the person irrespective of their color. Physical characteristics will not impact Brent decision for choosing one amongst the two.
Hence, option C is correct
What is true about innate behavior, such as the tendency of bulldogs to want to chase larger animals or cars?
Answers
Explanation:
Behaviour is the activity of an organism when they respond to a stimulus. When we talk about an innate behavior, we refer to behaviors with and strong genetic component, this means that they are not affected by environmental factors. This innate behavior is also known as instinct.
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When alcohol intake exceeds the body's ability to metabolize it, excess alcohol __________.
Answers
Answer:
becomes accumulated in the blood
Explanation:
The processing of alcohol is constant in every individual. The rate at which alcohol stays in someone's body is determined by how much of it is consumed.
Alcohol enters the digestive system once ingested and travels to the stomach and small intestines. The amount of alcohol absorbed in the small intestine enters directly to the bloodstream. Once in the blood, alcohol is circulated with it. The liver is responsible for the metabolic elimination of most (about 95%) of ingested alcohol from the body. If an individual consumes more than this, the system becomes saturated, and the additional alcohol will accumulate in the blood and other tissues until it can be metabolized. If this happens frequently or too fast, damage to the brain and tissues of the body can occur.
Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) depends on the amount of alcohol consumed and the rate at which the individual's body metabolizes alcohol. Because the metabolism of alcohol by the body is constant, taking in alcohol at a rate higher than the rate of metabolizing it results in a cumulative effect and increase in the blood alcohol concentration.
It is important to note that, the more one drinks the longer alcohol stays in the system.