The H zone is incorrectly matched with containing only thick filaments.
Explanation:The pair that is not correctly matched is c. H zone - contains only thick filaments sarcomere. The H zone actually contains both thick and thin filaments. The correct pairing for the other options are:
a. I band - contains only thin filamentsb. Z disc - marks the each end of the sarcomered. A band - light central region of sarcomereLearn more about sarcomere structure here:https://brainly.com/question/34217035
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The pair that is not correctly matched is 'd. A band - light central region of sarcomere', as the A band is actually a region that overlaps the thin and thick filaments and is generally a darker region.
Explanation:The question asks which of the provided pairs, related to muscle structure, is not correctly matched. The correct answer is d. A band - light central region of sarcomere. Sarcomeres, the fundamental units of muscle contraction, have various components: the I band contains only thin filaments, the Z disc marks each end of a sarcomere, and the H zone has only thick filaments.
However, the A band is not the light central region of the sarcomere; rather, it is a region that overlaps the thin and thick filaments and is generally a darker region.
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These cells do not function as antigen presenting cells (APCs)?
a. Macrophages and Langerhans cells
b. B cells and Langerhans cells
c. B cells and macrophages
d. Helper T cells and CD8 T cells
e. B cells and dendritic cells
Answer:
Birds feathers are modified scales. true or false
Explanation:
These vessels transport blood to the right and left lungs.
A. aorta
B. right atrium
C. pulmonary trunk.
D. pulmonary arteries
E. pulmonary veins
Answer: D. Pulmonary Arteries
Explanation: The pulmonary artery channels oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle into the lungs, where oxygen enters the bloodstream.
Please tell me if I did the answer incorrectly.
Why are the cartilage rings in the trachea important? What do you think would happen if they were not there?
Answer:
The trachea, commonly known as the windpipe, is a most important organ as it allows the passage of air into the lungs. Because the trachea has a soft tissue tubular formation, it needs a base of stronger, yet flexible stuff that will give it support, protect it, and still allow the passage of air into the lungs.
This is precisely the task of the tracheal rings, or cartilage rings in the trachea. These rings are made out of cartilaginous tissue, which is much stronger than the soft tissue of the tubule, but are still flexible enough to not close down the tube when air is flowing in. Thus, the tracheal rings have two tasks: one, provide support and protection for the much softer and more vunerable tube of soft tissue through which the air passes, and two, provide flexibility so that air can flow easily.
If these tracheal rings did not exist, if they are crushed, or removed, a person´s trachea would simply collapse and the person would die as air would not be able to flow through to the lungs.
The cartilage rings in the trachea are crucial as they prevent the airway from collapsing and ensure smooth flow of air into the lungs. Without them, the trachea could collapse causing serious breathing issues.
Explanation:The cartilage rings in the trachea are incredibly important for our respiratory system. Their primary function is to keep the airway open by preventing the trachea from collapsing, while still allowing it to flex and move as we breathe and swallow. Essentially, these rings provide rigidity but also flexibility, which allows air to flow smoothly into our lungs.
If those rings were not there, the trachea may collapse when the surrounding muscles contract during breathing. This could potentially lead to serious health issues including difficulty breathing or complete obstruction of the airway. This is why the structural integrity of the trachea provided by the cartilage rings is essential for normal respiratory function.
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One of the most common spontaneous lesions that occurs in DNA under physiological conditions is the hydrolysis of the amino group of cytosine, converting the cytosine to uracil. What would be the effect on DNA structure of a uracil group replacing cytosine?
What region of the brain is known as the "relay center" for ALL sensory information
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Corpus collosum
e. Cerebral peduncles
The answer is A, Thalamus.
Which of the following is the functional unit of a myofibril?
a. sarcomere
b. myofilament
c. sarcolemma
d. endomysium
Answer:
Sarcomere
Explanation:
Myofibril is the unit of the muscle cell. The myofibril is rod like in structure and developed by the process of myogenesis in embryo.
Sarcomere is the basic structural unit of the skeletal muscles and shows striations under the microscope. Sarcomere consists of thick and thin filaments of actin and myosin. Different bands like A- band , H-Band, I-Band and Z- line is visible in the sarcomere.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
What is found inside synaptic vesicles?
a. calcium
b. acetylcholine
c. receptor proteins
d. acetylcholinesterase
Hello There!
Inside synaptic vesicles, you can find Acetylcholine which is an acetic acid.
Which of the following is/are true of pericytes?
A) They can generate new capillaries
B) They are contractile stem cells associated with capillaries
C) They stabilize capillary walls
D) All of these statements are true
Answer:
D
Explanation:
all of these statement are true.they are multi functional mular cell of microcirculation.
Vascular mural cells buried in the basement membrane of blood microvessels are known as pericytes. They are present at intervals along the walls of blood capillaries.
They play role in the development of blood vessels, the maintenance of the blood-brain barrier, and the control of cerebral blood flow.They play role in the regulation of immune cell entry the CNS.They stabilize capillary walls.Pericytes are contractile cells associated with capillaries. Contractile properties of pericytes help in the regulation of blood flow through the capillary.So, the correct answer is option D) All of these statements are true.
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Which is not a normal component of lymph?
A) water
B) plasma proteins
C) red blood cells
D) ions
Answer:
Red blood cells
Explanation:
Lymph is a colorless fluid that flows in the lymphatic system of an organism. Lymph transport proteins and interstitial fluid back into the circulation.
Lymph consists of proteins, ions, water and lymphocytes. Lymph donot contain red blood cells and hence the fluid is white in appearance. Lymph mixes with blood in subclavian veins.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Red blood cells are not a component of lymph. Lymph is a fluid that consists of primarily white blood cells, water, plasma proteins, and ions.
Explanation:The component that is not a normal part of lymph is red blood cells (option C). Lymph is a clear, colorless fluid that is part of the body's immune system. It primarily consists of white blood cells (specifically lymphocytes), as well as water, plasma proteins, and ions. However, it does not contain red blood cells, which are confined to the bloodstream and not the lymphatic system.
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Which of the following are materials or equipment used in this lab to extract DNA?
Mark ALL responses that apply.
a. centrifuge and sample tubes
b. centrifuges and micro pipettes
c. centrifuge, micro pipettes, warm water bath
d. liquid chemical solutions and cheek swab
e. inoculating loop and flame
Answer:
centrifuges and micro pipettes are used to extract DNA..
Centrifuges and micro pipettes are materials or equipment used in this lab to extract DNA .
What steps does DNA extraction involve?There are five basic steps of DNA extraction:
Breaking cells open to release the DNA. Separating DNA from proteins and other cellular debris.Precipitating the DNA with an alcohol. Cleaning the DNA.Confirming the presence and quality of the DNA.Hence , B is correct option
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What region is the main control center for autonomic functions
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Pons
e. Medulla oblongata
Answer:
b,
Explanation:
the hypothalamus, just above the brain stem
Which organs are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation?
Answer:
Liver and spleen is primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation.
Explanation:
Red blood cells that are old, tear and worn out requires the removal of these cells from the circulation. Spleen removes the old and worn cells by the process of phagocytosis. Macrophages present in the spleen phagocytose the worn RBCs and old RBCs are recycled by the spleen.
Liver also removes the old and worn RBCs from the circulation and recycles iron present in the red blood cells. Liver rely on the buffer system that consume worn RBCs and has the ability of recycling iron.
The spleen and liver are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells, helped by macrophages in those organs and the bone marrow. These organs ensure the continual renewal of healthy RBCs in circulation.
Explanation:The organs that are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells (RBCs) from circulation are the spleen, liver, and to some extent, the bone marrow. RBCs have a lifespan of approximately 120 days, after which they become old or damaged. These worn-out cells are then phagocytized by a type of myeloid phagocytic cell called a macrophage. Macrophages located within the spleen, liver, and bone marrow perform this task efficiently. The spleen acts as a blood filter and also serves as a reservoir for immune factors, whereas the liver processes the components of the degraded erythrocytes' hemoglobin, turning them into bile pigments for excretion.
The kidneys also play a vital role in the circulatory system by filtering the blood, removing waste products and excessive or free hemoglobin, especially during hemolysis, where RBCs are broken down and their hemoglobin is released into the bloodstream, but the primary role in the removal of old RBCs lies with the spleen and liver.
41) When blood pressure receptors sense a loss of blood pressure, they ________ their firing rate.A) increaseB) decrease
A I believe because the blood pressure always increases when you are stressed or something like that
Which statement about the knee is INCORRECT?
a.) The deep cups created by the tibial condyles help to stabilize the joint.
b.) Several bursae secrete synovial fluid to lubricate the knee.
c.) The knee is vulnerable to lateral forces that can cause injury.
d.) Several ligaments cross the knee to stabilize the knee in several directions.
Answer:
a.) The deep cups created by the tibial condyles help to stabilize the joint.
Explanation:
The incorrect statement about the knee is 'The deep cups created by the tibial condyles help to stabilize the joint.' The knee is primarily stabilized by ligaments and muscles, not by the tibial condyles.
Explanation:The incorrect statement about the knee is the first option (a). The tibial condyles do form part of the knee joint, but they do not create deep cups to stabilize the joint. Instead, the knee joint is stabilized by other structures such as ligaments and muscles. The tibial condyles articulate with the femoral condyles to form the knee joint.
In contrast, options (b), (c), and (d) are all correct. Bursae in the knee do secrete synovial fluid to lubricate the joint and reduce friction. The knee is indeed vulnerable to lateral forces that can cause injury. And several ligaments do cross the knee to stabilize the joint in several directions.
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Which cranial nerve is responsible for shoulder shrugging?
Answer: I believe it is the accessory nerve
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is?
A) secretion of acids and ammonia
B) filtration
C) adjusting urine volume
D) secretion of drugs
E) re-absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water
A) secretion of acids and ammonia
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is re-absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water. Therefore, option (E) is correct.
The PCT is essential to the nephron, which filters and processes blood to generate urine. The PCT re-absorbs chemicals from the filtrate into the bloodstream after the glomerulus.
The glomerulus filters ions, organic compounds, vitamins, and water into the tubule. The PCT actively re-absorbs a large part of these chemicals, returning them to the bloodstream for body retention. Re-absorption prevents urine loss of important chemicals. Therefore, option (E) is correct.
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What is Inflammation?
A. Is a tissue response to injury
B. Is characterized by redness, swelling, heat and pain
C. Is the body’s first and foremost defense against infection
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B and C are correct
Answer:
A, B and C are correct
Explanation:
Inflammation may be defined as one of the process of immune system that defend the individual's body from harmful pathogens.
Inflammation generally occurs in a tissue and response against an injury. This is the first defense of an individual's body against an infection. The tissue or particular area of body may get swell, red and an individual feels pain and heat.
Thus, the correct answer is option (E).
Inflammation is the body's immediate response to tissue injury or infection, marked by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. It aims to restore homeostasis and is crucial for body defense, involving the innate immune system. The correct comprehensive answer to the provided question would be that inflammation includes all the described aspects, making option E the correct choice.
Explanation:Inflammation is fundamentally a tissue response to injury, which can be due to invading pathogens or simple physical damage. This response is a critical aspect of the body's first line of defense and aims to restore and maintain homeostasis following injury. When inflammation occurs, there are several hallmark signs, including redness, swelling, heat, and pain, which are caused by increased blood flow and the influx of immune cells and chemicals to the affected area. Additionally, inflammation serves as the method for immune elements within the blood to exit the bloodstream and access the tissue around the site that is injured or infected.
Inflammation can be categorized as either acute or chronic. Acute inflammation is generally short-lived and localized, whereas chronic inflammation may persist over a longer period and can lead to tissue damage and diseases such as tuberculosis and hepatitis C. It's important to note that while inflammation is part of the innate immune system's response to infection, it can also be triggered by non-infectious tissue injuries.
The correct answer to the student's question would be option E, as all statements A, B, and C correctly describe aspects of inflammation. It serves as a tissue response, has characteristic symptoms, and is the body's primary defense against infection.
Which diagnostic test is the most preferred to detect liver cancer?
Answer:
A CT scan with contrast is what dr.s order first
Explanation:
This method is more cost effective for patients. the contrast that is injested makes the organs more detailed and visible, if there are any suspicions, the dr will order further testing.
A spindle apparatus is associated with
a. compact bone
b. metaphase
c. syndesmoses
d. spongy bone
Answer: b. metaphase
Explanation:
In cell biology, the spindle apparatus can be define as a cytoskeletal structure can be found in the eukaryotic cells that actually develops during the process of cell division which can be used to separate sister chromatids so as to distribute them equally in the daughter cells. Metaphase is the phase of mitotic division where spindle apparatus can be seen for the distribution of the sister chromatids to the daughter cells.
Discuss briefly, the different factors that can affect the rates of chemical reactions in our body.
Answer:
Factors that can affect the rate the rates of chemical reactions in the body are temperature, substrate concentration and presence and absence of enzymes.
Explanation:
Rate of a reaction may be defined as the speed of the reaction or the rate at which reactants are converted into products.
Increase or decrease in the range of temperature can affect the rate of a chemical reactions of the body. With increase in the temperature the rate of a reaction increases as the effective collision between the substrate increases and then decreases.
Enzymes are the biocatalyst that can increase the rate of a chemical reaction. The absence of the enzymes decreases the rate of a reaction.
The increase in the concentration of substrate increases the rate of a chemical reaction of the body.
Muscle that adducts the thigh
a. Adductor longus
b. Gastrocnemius
Final answer:
The Adductor longus is the muscle that adducts the thigh, moving it toward the body's midline. It also medially rotates and flexes the thigh.
Explanation:
The muscle that adducts the thigh is responsible for moving the thigh towards the midline of the body. Among the options provided, a. Adductor longus is the muscle that performs this function. The adductor longus muscle not only adducts the thigh but also medially rotates and flexes it. It is important to differentiate it from the gastrocnemius, which is primarily involved in plantar flexing the ankle and does not adduct the thigh. The adductor magnus is another muscle in the medial compartment that has an anterior fascicle which adducts, medially rotates, and flexes the thigh, and a posterior fascicle that helps in extending the thigh.
In the cardiac cycle,
A. the right atrium and the right ventricle contract simultaneously.
B. the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract.
C. the left atrium contracts before the right atrium.
D. all four chambers of the heart contract at the same time.
E. all four chambers of the heart are in systole at the same time.
Final answer:
The correct answer is B, where the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract. This represents the ventricular systole phase of the cardiac cycle, in which the ventricles contract to pump blood while the atria are relaxed, filling with blood.
Explanation:
The cardiac cycle consists of a period of relaxation known as diastole followed by a period of contraction called systole. During diastole, the heart muscle is relaxed and blood flows into the heart. At this time, the right and left atria are relaxed and the right and left ventricles are also relaxed, allowing blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles through open atrioventricular valves. At the end of diastole, the atria contract (atrial systole), enhancing the filling of the ventricles. Following this, the ventricles contract (ventricular systole), which forces blood out of the heart to the lungs and the rest of the body. This sequence is carefully regulated to ensure efficient blood pumping.
Given the choices in the question and the facts presented, the correct answer is B. The two atria relax while the two ventricles contract. This phase corresponds to ventricular systole, where the right and left ventricles contract to pump blood into the pulmonary artery and aorta, respectively, while the atria are in their diastole (relaxing) phase to receive blood from the body and the lungs.
What type of tissue shortens to perform its function?
Answer:
The muscle tissue shortens to performs it's function which we know as muscle contraction
What is the term for the muscles of the mouth?
Answer: Im pretty sure it's the orbicularis oris muscle.
Which of the following is true of valves in veins?
A) They are associated with venous sinuses
B) They are most abundant in limbs
C) They contract to propel blood forward
D) They prevent blood pressure in veins from dipping below that of arteries
Answer:
A
Explanation:
they are associated with venous sinuses.this valve open one way flow of direction of the heart.
Some problems with use of DNA analysis for forensic evidence may occur because of
identical twins.
not enough of a sample.
contaminated samples.
degraded samples.
All of the above.
Answer: Option D " all of the above "
Explanation: DNA can be a great source of information when used as a forensic evidence. This technique has many advantages and disadvantages when used as a source of information in case of crime.
Identical twins: There are some common fragments of DNA that is same in identical twins so it can be a difficulty in deciding the criminal.
Not enough of a sample: DNA should be present in a detectable amount to be used an sample for evidence, less than this detectable amount is a waste and cannot be used as a sample for evidence.
Contaminated and degraded sample: If the sample of DNA is contaminated or degraded then the result might be incorrect and might not be used as a sample for forensic evidence.
Hence, the correct answers are all of the above.
If there are 4 molecules of glucose, how many ATP molecules would you produce in aerobic cell respiration?
A) 152
B) 8-10
C) 400
D) 25
Answer:
Option A, 152
Explanation:
One glucose molecule undergoes the following three process in one complete chain of aerobic cell respiration -
a) Glycolysis - 2 ATP molecules are produced
b) Kerb cycle - 2 ATP molecules are produced
c) Electron transport chain - 34 ATP molecules are produced
Hence one glucose molecule can produce 38 ATP molecule
Therefore 4 glucose molecule produce
[tex]38 * 4\\= 152[/tex] ATP molecules
Hence, option A is correct.
Answer:
A) 152
Explanation:
Aerobic respiration involves the breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water and energy in the form of ATP.
Theoretically, 38 molecules of ATP is yielded from one molecule of glucose during aerobic cellular respiration.
Hence, if 1 molecule of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP;
4 molecules of glucose will produce: 4 x 38 = 152 molecules ATP
The correct option is A.
Follicular dendritic cells reside primarily in which of the following tissue/organ?
Question 9 options:
A)
the bone marrow
B)
the thymus
C)
primary lymphoid tissues
D)
secondary lymphoid tissues
E)
none of these
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D-secondary lymphoid tissues.
Explanation:
Follicular dendritic cells or FDCs are non-migratory dendrite cells found in the follicles of B cell areas of any secondary lymphoid organs and belong to the stromal cells of these lymphoid organs.
They help in providing immunity by shaping the responses of B in the chronic inflammatory response and auto-immune disease. These cell help in the selection of memory B cells by presenting antigens to potential memory cells to which only B cell with B cell receptors can bind.
Thus, option D-secondary lymphoid tissues is the correct answer.
g In pea plants, the allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over the one for green seeds (y) and the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant over the one for wrinkled seeds (r). A homozygous yellow, round seed is crossed with a homozygous green, wrinkled seed. The offspring of this cross are then crossed. What is the probability that an offspring of the second generation will be yellow and wrinkled? (Express your answer as the simplest fraction.)
Answer:
3/16
Explanation:
The P generation is said to gave homozygous yellow and round seeds; homozygous green and wrinkled seeds. Homozygous means that they have the same alleles for the trait.
For the P generation the cross would be:
YYRR x yyrr
This means that all offsprings in the first generation (F1) would have a genotype of:
YyRr
16/16
(Look at the Punnett attached to see this cross.)
The cross in the F1 generation would then be:
YyRr x YyRr
Now for yellow and wrinkled seeds to come out, the genotype should have at least one Y allele and a pair of r alleles. So the following genotypes is what you need to look out for:
Yyrr
YYrr
So if you will count it you will find:
Yyrr = 2/16
YYrr = 1/16
Just add them up to get the probability:
3/16
The probability that an F₂ generation offspring will be yellow and wrinkled is 3/16, considering that the genes for color and texture sort independently.
Explanation:In this question, you're considering the probability of an offspring being yellow and wrinkled from the F₂ generation in a dihybrid cross. Considering only seed color, we know that three-quarters (3/4) of the offspring would be yellow. Likewise, considering only seed texture, we'd expect one-quarter (1/4) of the offspring to be wrinkled. Because these are independent events, we use the product rule to find the probability of both events happening together. This gives us a probability of (3/4) × (1/4), or 3/16. Therefore, the probability of an F₂ generation offspring being yellow and wrinkled is 3/16.
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In regards to a patient who is hypoxic, what is the minimum number we look for in a patient's oxygen saturation?
a) 85%
b) 88%
c) 91%
d) 94%
Answer: the correct answer is c) 91%
Values under 60 mm Hg usually indicate the need for supplemental oxygen. Normal pulse oximeter readings usually range from 95 to 100 percent.
As stated above, a reading of 94 to 99 percent or higher indicates normal oxygen saturation, and anything below 90 percent is considered to be low blood oxygen, also known as hypoxemia.
Explanation:
Hypoxemia occurs when oxygen levels in the blood become so low that tissues and organs in the body don't get the oxygen they need. This happens because COPD damages the air sacs, which means the lungs cannot transfer the available oxygen to the bloodstream.