Answer: the correct option is A (2 tablespoons of mashed banana and 1/2 cup of whole milk).
Explanation: A toddler is a child that is between between 12 to 36 months of age.Toddlers should be feeding themselves, so think simple, finger-friendly, bite-size foods like mashed banana and a half cup of whole milk would serve as a snack for a toddler who needs to maintain stable calories for proper growth and development.
This meat eater often gets meat from animals that have died by accident or illness, or were killed by other animals. Select one: a. scavenger b. omnivore c. carnivore d. parasite
Answer:
A. Scavenger
Explanation:
A scavenger is a meat eater that obtains its meat from dead animals
Answer:
Scavenger
Explanation:
E.g. vulture
According to the textbook, why did diseases such as smallpox and measles produce epidemics that ravaged or completely wiped out native populations in the Americas after contact with Europeans in the late fifteenth century?
a. The native peoples lacked resistance to these diseases.
b. Europeans refused to share their medicines with the native peoples.
c. Europeans forced the native peoples to abandon their traditional medicines, which had kept the diseases largely at bay before contact.
d. Europeans forced the native peoples to relocate to massive urban centers, where the bacteria easily spread.
Answer:
According to the textbook, the diseases such as smallpox and measles produce epidemics that ravaged or completely wiped out native populations in the Americas after contact with Europeans in the late fifteenth century because (A) The native Americans lacked the immune system to fight diseases like measles and smallpox.
Explanation:
With the arrival of the Europeans in native America in the 15th century many diseases were brought. These diseases took the form of epidemics and almost wiped away the population of native Americans. This happened because the Americans had no contacts before with the European culture and lifestyle thus they didn't develop the necessary immune system internally to fight diseases like measles, smallpox, cholera etc. They also lacked the medicines to prevent or fight these diseases.
What maternal behavior during pregnancy was related to behavior problems in adolescence?
Answer:
Maternal behavior like non communication with the baby, non affective bond and problems with acceptance the pregnancy could be factors that trigger disorders in the child in the future, like personality issues, mental disorders and socialize problems.
Explanation:
The affective relationship with the unborn baby is fundamental for the formation and strengthening of the maternal bond. Studies show that the first six years are decisive in one's life, especially due to brain development. The formation of the baby, however, has begun before its birth. The recognition that all the baby's senses already work even before birth has been scientifically proven. The way the mother reacts to pregnancy and how does she deal with the baby during pregnancy is fundamental to the child's formation, which will impact in adolescence. Therefore, communication with the baby is very important.
Depressed maternal behavior, like unable to communicate with her baby may have negative surprises in the future. The absence of this bridge with the child will make bond formation difficult. Consequently, the baby will have a compromised formation without attachment, and may develop personality issues, neuroses, psychoses and problems in socialize in the future (adolescence or adult life).
An 8-week-old infant presents to her primary care provider for a well-baby check. Physical exam reveals a murmur, and an echocardiogram shows a large ventricular septal defect. If left untreated, what condition should the nurse discuss with the parents?
Answer:
Down syndrome
Explanation:
Some of the conditions that occur more often in people with this syndrome include:
Heart defects
vision problems
hearing loss
infections
hypothyroidism
Blood disorders
hypotonia
Which is most likely responsible for the recent increase in type 2 diabetes in the population:
(A) an increase in prevalence of obesity genetic changes(B) an increase in consumption of high-fructose corn syrup(C) an increase in gestational diabetes(D) an increase in allergies and autoimmune diseases
Answer:A. Increase in prevalence of obesity and genetic changes
Explanation:
The most likely answer from the options that has led to the increase in type 2 diabetes is an increase in prevalence of obesity and genetic changes and this is because both obesity and genetics are very strong risk factors for developing type 2 diabetes.
The second option which is an increase in consumption of high fructose corn syrup is a little off because when your pancreas is functioning very well and insulin is being secreted properly, the body will definitely take care of the fructose meal without leading to type 2 diabetes.
The third option which is an increase in gestational diabetes is usually a temporary increase in blood sugar that is related to pregnancy and usually resolves soon after given birth.
The last option which involves increase in allergies and autoimmune disease is not really implicated in type 2 diabetes but instead autoimmune diseases is directly linked to type 1 diabetes and not type 2.
Answer:
an increase in prevalence of obesity genetic changes
Seventy-five percent of employees rank work as the number one cause of high stress in their lives.a. Trueb. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The work or occupational stress can be considered as the number one cause of high stress in one's life. The 75% or more number of people are expected to be affected by the work stress. The stress is associated with the development of medical conditions like heart attack, hypertension, neurological disorders and others.
True/False
A female age 34 who completes the 1.5 run in 15:27 is considered to have a cardiorespiratory fitness rating of fair.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
To recover from a __________ skid, gradually ease up on the accelerator and steer toward your intended path.
A: sideways
B: curving
C: cornering
D: blowout
Answer:
I believe the answer is A
Explanation:
To recover from a sideway skid, gradually ease up on the accelerator and steer toward your intended path. The correct option is A.
What is a sideway skid?Skids happen when you lose control of your steering, causing your vehicle to lose traction and slide sideways on the road.
To retrieve from a sideways skid the person should steadily alleviate off the accelerator and steer in the direction you want to go.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Points of Dispensing (POD) centers are generally established to: Select one: a. distribute medications or vaccinations b. provide information via phone banks and hotlines c. coordinate the activities of community outreach teams d. provide a variety of community services and referrals in a central location e. do all of the above
Answer:
Correct answer is ''a'' distribute medications or vaccinations
Explanation:
During and after large health emergencies that puts in risk the human lives of thousands, for example the one lived in 2009 when there was an emergency because the virus H1N1. The POD centers are opened and used as safe places to get supplies, medications, and vaccines. The PODs can be placed on schools, stadiums, park community centers or other places available to attend the emergencies when they rise.
Some pathogens are spread directly from one person to another. This can happen when people come into direct contact or share items, such as drinking glasses. What do you think might affect how quickly a pathogen is spread from person to person? _________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________
Answer:
Explanation:
Pathogens which are transfered from one person to another cause communicable diseases. These pathogen may be transferred from biological fluids like saliva, urine, feces, semen and sweat. These can cause common cold, measles, chicken pox and even sexually transmitted diseases.
A 28 y/o female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the past 24 hour to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:
Answer:
As she is not controlling the blood sugar and has been urinating excessively, she probaly is in hyperglycemia crisis.
Explanation:
Diabetes is a chronic disease where the increase does not produce enough insulin or when the body cannot use it effectively. An insulin or hormone that regulates blood glucose and is critical to maintaining the body's well-being, which needs its energy to function.
Type 1 Diabetes: the cause of this type of diabetes is still unknown and the best way to prevent it is through healthy living practices (eating, physical activity and avoiding alcohol, tobacco and other drugs). People with type 1 diabetes should administer insulin daily to regulate the amount of glucose in their blood.
Hyperglycemia is characterized by the presence of high blood sugar (glucose), which may be caused by overeating, lack of exercise or, for diabetics, lack of insulin and may progress over the course of a day or several days. The main symptoms of high sugar in a diabetic people are: increased urination, thirst and hunger. Fatigue, restlessness and weight loss may also be less common symptoms. Although these symptoms do not always mean that you have hyperglycemia.
Of the following nutrient needs, which is considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy, often because of low body stores?
A. IronB. ProteinC. Vitamin DD. Vitamin B6
Vitamin D nutrient considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy there is less vitamin D accessible to the body since a large portion of it is stored in body fat, hence option C is correct.
What are important nutrient needs during pregnancy?Eating a balanced diet is vital at all times, but it's more crucial when pregnant because your food is the major source of nutrients for the developing fetus.
Iron, folate, calcium, vitamin D, and protein are nevertheless nutrients that many women do not consume enough of.
The growth of your unborn child throughout pregnancy depends on protein. excellent sources Great sources of protein include eggs, chicken, shellfish, and lean meat.
Therefore, melanin, which is found in abundance in those with darker skin, serves as a natural sunscreen and lowers the skin's production of vitamin D.
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You find J.F.'s body in the lower 75% of the bed and her left upper leg at an exaggerated angle (more than 45 degrees). The knot at the end of the bed is caught in the pulley and the 20-pound weight is dangling just above the floor. What are you going to do?
Answer:
Follow the following process in the explanation
Explanation:
What you have to do:
You get adequate help to lift J.F to the head of bedTell one person to slightly pull up on the 20-pound traction weight and have another person slightly lift up the 5-pond suspension weight in order for the group to be able to move J.F toward the head of bedHave both lifters to gently and gradually release their weight simulataneously and observe the left upper leg return to a 45-degree angle.Make sure to check the traction mechanics after each position change.Which of the following is the most appropriate response action if your animal has been exposed to radiation?
a) Wash the animals and the areas where they sleep.b) Create a distance between the animal and the source of radiation.c) Seek medical attention from a veterinarian before handling the animal.d) Feed the animal barium tablets
Answer:
Seek medical attention from a veterinarian before handling the animal.
Explanation:
Veterinarian science may be defined as the field of the science that mainly deals with the well being and the health of the animals. The animals doctors are important for the proper care of the animals.
Animals have always been used for the humans to obtain food and market product. They need proper veterinarian checkup regularly and may also get injured or diseased. If the animals has exposed to the radiation, the animal cannot be treated directly and requires the medical attention.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Final answer:
Option b and c are correct. The correct response action when an animal has been exposed to radiation is to create a distance between the animal and the source of radiation and to seek medical attention from a veterinarian for further guidance.
Explanation:
When an animal has been exposed to radiation, the most appropriate initial steps are laid out in principles of radiation protection. These steps include minimizing time spent near the source of radiation, increasing distance from the source, and providing adequate shielding. Among the given options, the correct option for an immediate response would be to create a distance between the animal and the source of radiation. This reduces the intensity of exposure to radiation as it decreases inversely with the square of the distance.
It is equally important to seek medical attention from a veterinarian for professional advice on how to handle the situation. The veterinarian can provide specific instructions based on the type and amount of radiation exposure. Washing the animals and the areas where they sleep may also be a recommended step, but this would generally follow a professional assessment. Feeding the animal barium tablets without a veterinary recommendation is not advised, as this does not directly address radiation exposure.
B's policy had a $1,000 annual premium. B has not paid it for 2 years and wants to put the policy back in force. The insurer charges 10% interest on overdue premiums. What does B have to pay in order to reinstate their policy?
Answer:
$2200
Explanation:
B pays $1000 annually meaning in the 2 years of not paying he now owes $2000.
10% of $2000 = $200, therefore, with that interest added B now owes $2200.
Therefore, in order to re-instate his policy, he will have to pay $2200
He may also need to pay an additional $1000 for that upcoming year depending on when the re-instating is occuring in the year
Final answer:
B must pay the overdue premiums of $2,000 plus the interest of $200, making the total amount due $2,200 to reinstate their insurance policy.
Explanation:
To reinstate B's insurance policy, we need to calculate the total amount due, including the unpaid premiums and the interest charged on those premiums. B's annual premium is $1,000, and B has missed two years of payments. This means the overdue premiums amount to $2,000 ($1,000 per year for two years).
The insurer charges 10% interest on overdue premiums. To calculate the interest for one year, we multiply the annual premium by the interest rate: $1,000 × 0.10 = $100. Since the payment was due for two years, the total interest is $100 per year for two years, which is $200.
Therefore, to reinstate the policy, B must pay the overdue premiums of $2,000 plus the interest of $200, making the total amount due $2,200.
What are the first signs of ADHD?
Explanation:
there are many symptoms for ADHD, having a friend who suffers from it.
they include:
emotional breakdownsfailures in simple things lack of concentration and attentionfailing to get themselves to complete their work Restlessness fails to control their stresslack of patience, etcADHD's initial signs, noticeable in childhood, involve behaviors related to inattention (difficulty focusing, following instructions, disorganization) and hyperactivity (excessive movement, inability to sit still). Excessive exposure to technology might mimic symptoms of inattention, but actual ADHD behaviors should be pervasive, disruptive, and beyond the normal developmental stage.
Explanation:The first signs of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) involve behaviors related to inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. Inattention can manifest as difficulty with tasks requiring sustained attention, incompetence in following instructions, disorganization, lack of attention to detail, distractibility, and forgetfulness. Hyperactivity often depicts through exaggerated movements such as fidgeting, leaving assigned seats, running or climbing excessively, inability to stay still, and blurting out responses impulsively.
Moreover, signs of ADHD can also encompass issues with memory, impaired moral judgment, and similar symptoms to ADHD exhibited due to overuse of technology, although these should not be solely relied upon for diagnosis. It's essential to remember that these behaviors should be continuous, disruptive and beyond the normal developmental stage for the child's age, which may result in academic and social challenges.
In the early 21st century, with increased acknowledgement of ADHD, it's important to abstain from hastily diagnosing children with ADHD influenced by key symptoms. Misinterpretation driven by excessive exposure to technology and comparative shorter attention spans might lead to over-diagnosis.
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The relationship between multiple factors ranging from sexual behaviors, attitudes, societal factors, and biological factors such as genetic predisposition is best described as_________.
Answer:
Sexual health.
Explanation:
Sexual health may be defined as the state of the mental, social and physical well being of the with the terms of the sexuality. Every sex deserves an equal sex respect in the society.
The sexual health might requires the attentive and the positive approach to the sexual relationship. Sexuality or sexual health might being possibly the pleasurable and quite safe sex experience that must be free from the violence, discrimination and coercion.
Thus, the answer is sexual health.
What should you do if you suddenly feel ill and/or develop a headache during a scuba dive?
Answer:
You should come back immediately, but not fast, to the surface and get fresh air.
Explanation:
Scuba diving is the practice of diving that consists of partial or total submersion in the water, using for this purpose, a self-contained breathing apparatus, also known as diving equipment.
During scuba dive, a lot of problems can happen because of the depth and compression of the air, so in any case of feeling ill, you need to come back to surface.
In scuba diving, the diver is assisted by equipment that he carries with him and allows him to breathe underwater. Although physical activity is healthy even for those with a basic respiratory disease, diving is a sport that requires redoubled care. When the individual dives, the gases in the diving cylinder dissolve in the blood because of pressure greater than atmospheric pressure. The phenomenon becomes more intense depending on the depth and gases used. Compressed air gas is the most common used in recreational diving. At greater depths, gas mixtures such as helium and oxygen or helium, oxygen and nitrogen are used.
The main problem is not the dive itself, but the risk of decompression when the individual rises too quickly to the surface. Residual nitrogen is the nitrogen remaining in the body after a dive, whose delay time to be eliminated depends on the dive time and depth reached. If the elimination of residual nitrogen is deficient (due to health or external factors such as a very rapid climb), nitrogen bubbles that cannot be eliminated from the human body can become trapped in tissues or in the bloodstream. This occurrence is called decompression sickness. When this occurs, gas bubbles form in the circulation that can cause myocardial infarction (heart attack) or stroke (stroke).
What are Chief Joseph’s complaints about the treatment of his people?
Answer:
Killing of Indians
Explanation:
He says they are treated as outlaws with the shooting of his people at any opportunity by the Americans.
The "white men" do not think living in peace with the Indians as an option, since they think they are too different to live side by side with them.
Chief Joseph's complaints revolved around the mistreatment and displacement of the Nez Perce tribe, the violation of their rights, and the breaking of treaties. The Nez Perce faced a grueling trek and battles, futile attempts at alliance, and were captured before reaching Canada, resulting in their relocation to Oklahoma.
Chief Joseph's Complaints About the Treatment of the Nez Perce
Chief Joseph was the leader of the Nez Perce tribe during a period of great turmoil as the U.S. government forcibly relocated Native American tribes from their ancestral lands. His main complaints concerned the unjust and harsh treatment his people received at the hands of the U.S. government, including the theft of their land and the violation of their rights. The famous statement attributed to Chief Joseph, reflecting his decision to 'fight no more forever', underscores his grievances. Forced from the Wallowa River Valley in Oregon, the Nez Perce were subjected to a daunting journey and battles, with hopes of forming an alliance to resist U.S. forces or fleeing to Canada for freedom.
Throughout their plight, they faced the humiliation of their leaders, unjust ultimatums, broken treaties, and the eventual surrender when they were mere miles from the border of Canada. Their subsequent exile to Oklahoma was a far cry from the promised return to their native Pacific Northwest. Chief Joseph voiced these injustices, appealing for 'equal protection of the law' during his speech at Lincoln Hall in Washington, D.C., which held national attention and highlighted the wrongs against the Nez Perce.
a clients head protrudes during a pulling assessment. which of the following muscles should be stretched?
sternocleidomastoid
Answer:
The missing options are:
A. Longus coli
B. Longus capitis
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Supraspinatus
The answer is C. Sternocleidomastoid.
Explanation:
The sternocleidomastoid is the muscle that should be stretched because it is the one that was affected due to an inappropriate position while performing the pulling. The sternocleidomastoid produces cervical rotation, cervical flexion, the elevation of the sternum, and assists in forced inhalation, none of these actions should be done during the pulling assesment if they are done the client's head will probably protrude.
Which of the following statements about disability etiquette is FALSE: A. ALWAYS…Ask before you act! B. Think before you speak. C. Respond graciously to requests. D. It’s ok to pet a service dog if he doesn’t look busy.
Answer:
D. It’s ok to pet a service dog if he doesn’t look busy.
Explanation:
Service dogs are trained to increase the quality of life of People with Disabilities, offer independence and the opportunity to live without the need for constant help from professionals or family members. Service dogs are easy and cute, but cannot treat the same way as other dogs.
When you find a service dog and he is using the disability tag, it means he is working, so you should not touch or pet him, let alone play with him, even if he is "unoccupied" as he may be distracted and cause an accident to its owner.
Typical training load for Level ___ clients will be 15-20 hours a week or more.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of the above
Answer: Typical training load for Level D. (NONE OF THE ABOVE) clients will be 15-20 hours a week or more.
Explanation: None of these options match up with the signified time of 15-20 hours or more a week of training for a Level.
6. Why is the orientation of the muscles in the stomach wall important?
Answer: The orientation of the muscles in the abdominal wall is important to enclose and protect abdominal contents.
Explanation: The anterolateral musculoaponeurotic walls are suspended between and supported by two bony rings; thoracic skeleton superiorly and pelvic girdle inferiorly, which are linked by a semirigid lumbar vertebral column in the posterior abdominal wall. This orientation enables the abdomen to enclose and protect abdominal contents while providing the flexibility required by posture, locomotion and respiration.
The muscles in the stomach wall, particularly the inner oblique layer, are crucial for the vigorous churning and mixing of food, facilitating digestion. Similarly, the arrangement of abdominal muscles supports movement, balance, and protection of internal organs.
Explanation:Importance of Muscle Orientation in the Stomach Wall
The orientation of the muscles in the stomach wall is critically important for the organ to perform its functions effectively. The stomach has four major regions; the cardia, fundus, body, and pylorus. Each of these areas has muscle layers that are necessary for the process of digestion. The muscularis of the stomach wall contains an inner oblique smooth muscle layer in addition to the typical circular and longitudinal layers. This unique muscle structure allows the stomach to not only move food through the alimentary canal but also to vigorously churn and mix food. The mechanical breakdown of food into smaller particles aids in more efficient digestion and nutrient absorption.
Furthermore, the abdominal wall is comprised of several muscles including the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis. These are flat skeletal muscles that have different orientations, which allow for a variety of movements and rotations of the trunk. This arrangement of muscles is similar to the structure in the stomach and is critical in maintaining posture, balance, and protecting the internal organs. The ability to contract and relax these muscle groups helps avoid fatigue and is vital for strong postural support.
Some synthetic drugs are illegally made in laboratories. Which one of the selections below is a synthetic drug? A. K-2/Spice B. Bath Salts C. Fentanyl D. MDMA (Molly, or Ecstasy) E. All of the above
Answer:
The answer is E. All of the above.
All of these drugs are often made illegally in laboratories.
According to the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), up to what percentage of your daily Calories should be provided by carbohydrates?
a. 35%
b. 65%
c. 70%
d. 75%
Answer:
B. 65%
Explanation:
According to AMDR, up to 65% of my daily Calories should be provided by carbohydrates
When Neron turned 21, his friends took him out for his first drink. He ended up drinking far more than he planned that night, and he was badly hung over the next day. Neron enjoys spending time with his friends when they go out, but he doesn't want to feel sick the next day. Which strategy will help Neron reduce the harmful effects of alcohol the next time he goes out?
Eating before drinking can help him reduce the harmful effects of alcohol the next day.
Why fats and proteins are better before drinking?People usually believe that eating an excess amount of carbohydrates before drinking will help as it would act as a sponge to soak up the alcohol. This is usually not true as carbohydrates digest easily and are consumed during cellular respiration. thus it will digest quickly and will not be much effective in preventing the effects of alcohol.
A better thing to do would be to consume a rich nutritious meal with a high amount of proteins and healthy fats. These do not break up that easily and therefore will be effective in case of alcohol consumption for a longer time.
The best options for a healthy diet before alcohol consumption are eggs, rich in protein, and fruits like bananas and avocadoes which are rich in potassium and healthy fat.
Therefore, proteins and fats are better because they digest slowly compared to carbohydrates and therefore would be better to reduce the effects of alcohol.
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To mitigate the harmful effects of alcohol and prevent hangovers, Neron should drink in moderation, stay hydrated, eat before drinking, space out alcoholic drinks, and set a consumption limit. It's crucial to be aware of the effects of alcohol on the excretory system, including potential liver and kidney damage from heavy drinking.
Explanation:To reduce the harmful effects of alcohol, Neron should consider several strategies. First and foremost, alcohol should be consumed in moderation, defined as up to two drinks per day for men, and only by adults of legal drinking age. It's important to give the liver enough time to fully metabolize the ingested alcohol to avoid alcohol toxicity. Furthermore, since alcohol consumption can inhibit a hormone that helps the body retain water, leading to dehydration, it's essential to drink plenty of water before, during, and after drinking alcohol. Thus, staying hydrated is key in preventing a hangover.
In addition, eating a substantial meal before drinking can help slow the absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream. Spacing out alcoholic drinks throughout the night, alternating with non-alcoholic beverages, and avoiding mixing different types of alcohol can also help manage the immediate effects of alcohol which depend on the drinker's blood alcohol concentration (BAC). Acknowledging the long-term effects on the excretory system, especially the liver and kidneys, is critical as well. Heavy consumption can lead to serious health consequences such as liver and kidney disease.
To minimize negative social repercussions, setting a limit before going out and sticking to it can prevent overconsumption. Lastly, understanding individual responses to alcohol, which can be affected by factors like age, sex, and pre-existing health conditions, can guide Neron in consuming alcohol safely when socializing with friends.
Every Long-Term Care policy must provide a ______-day free look period from the date the policy is delivered.
Answer:
Every Long-Term Care policy must provide a 30-day free look period from the date the policy is delivered.
Explanation:Long-term care insurance is an insurance policy that cover home care, assisted living, adult daycare, respite care, hospice care, nursing home, Alzheimer's facilities, and home modification to accommodate disabilities. During this period, you are free to terminate your contract without paying any surrender charges and you will receive a refund for the amount you paid. The "free look" period is a time for you to continue to ask questions so that you understand the variable annuity and are sure that it is right for you.
During a disaster, survivors and helpers may experience disaster-related stress. Measures that CERT members can take to protect themselves from vicarious trauma include recognizing signs of trauma in themselves and taking breaks. Which of the following is another measure that CERT members can take to prevent vicarious trauma? A. Don't speak with survivors about their feelings of loss. B. Don't remain at the scene for longer than 30 minutes. C. Don't over-identify with the survivors of the incident. D. Don't respond to disasters that you have personally endured.
Answer:
Don't speak with survivors about their feelings of loss.
Answer:
C: Don't over-identify with the survivors of the incident
Explanation:
When assisting in a disaster it is important to not over-identify with the survivors of the incident. This could be traumatic for both the person assisting and for the survivors.
Option B is incorrect because you should assist wherever is needed, unless it is too dangerous without other rescue services.
Options A is incorrect because you should let the survivors have someone to talk to, it is important that they feel a sense of safety after this traumatic event.
Option D is recommended if you have been diagnosed with PTSD (Post Traumatic Stress Disorder) in which case it might be even more traumatic for you. However in a normal case, this option is incorrect.
Which small change in healthy eating for weigh loss is easy to accomplish and will most likely be acceptable?
Answer:
To start eating vegetables.
Explanation:
The hardest part to healthy eating is quiting the junk food and food with a lot of fat.The small change that is easier is to start eating vegetables (especially the green ones) because they fill the eprson a little bit and by that way that person won´t have the need to be eating junk food.
Also, vegetables provide the fiber needed for a good digestion.
Assessment of learning disabilitiesA.usually occurs in mental health clinics and hospitals.B.usually occurs by preschool age.C.requires a battery of tests to evaluate general intelligence and specific academic skills and achievements.D.typically has placed the most emphasis on evaluating the child's motivation and social environment
Answer:
requires a battery of tests to evaluate general intelligence and specific academic skills and achievements.
Explanation:
There are numerous tests that are used in order to determine whether is someone suffering from learning disabilities or not. Some of them might be various intelligence tests. There are also achievement tests. Certain tests that are used in order to determine language testing. There is also visual-motor integration, etc, etc.