Which of the following statements about the Sun is true?
A.
The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy but is much smaller than any of the other stars.
B.
The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy, many of which are very similar to the Sun.
C.
The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy but is much larger than any of the other stars.
D.
The Sun is one of only a few stars in the galaxy but is much smaller than any of the other stars.

Answers

Answer 1

B.  The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy, many of which are very similar to the Sun.

Explanation:

The sun is only one of the billions of stars in the galaxy, many of which are very similar to the sun.

The sun is the only star in the solar system which is made up the planets, their satellites and other planetary bodies.

There are several systems of stars in the universe. A cluster of stars is known as the Galaxy. The name of our Galaxy is called the Milky Way. A several groups of Galaxies makes up the universe. The sun is a star power by nuclear fusion of light atoms in its core.

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Answer 2

Answer:

B.

The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy, many of which are very similar to the Sun.

Explanation:

Our galaxy is made up of billions of stars, one of which is our Sun. These differ greatly in size, and our Sun is considered to be a medium-sized star. There are many stars similar to our Sun and many more that are either smaller or larger than our Sun.


Related Questions

How many atoms of aluminum are in the reactant side?

Answers

Answer:

there are 4 aluminium atoms on the reactants side that combines with 4 other oxygen atoms.

Explanation:

Why is earth considered an open system and a closed system?

Answers

Answer:

The earth is a closed system because only energy is naturally transferred outside the atmosphere.

Explanation:

All systems inside the Earth, on the other hand, are open systems as both energy and matter can be transferred between the systems and their surroundings.

The expansion of grasses during the Oligocene and Miocene Epochs led to

A. the extinction of mammals.
B. the expansion of tree-dwelling primates.
C. an increase in dinosaur and reptile species on land.
D. the radiation of herbivores such as grazing mammals.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is:

D. the radiation of herbivores such as grazing animals

Explanation:

Oligocene and Miocene Epochs:

The Oligocene epoch is characterized by temperate and subtropical climatic conditions which favored the expansion of grasses and reduced forest cover. The Miocene epoch, which succeeded the Oligocene era, is attributed to changes in global circulation due to global warming of the climate followed by global cooling towards the end.

The Oligocence and Miocene epoch are both attributed to the expansion of grasslands and savannah. Both eras marked rapid and drastic evolutionary changes in grazing mammals and herbivores. Diverse groups of grazing mammals lived throughout these eras. For example, the largest herbivore and land mammal of all time, Indricotherium (a sort of giant hornless rhinoceros), was present in the Oligocene era.

Similarly, the Oligocene era in North America favored the rapid radiation of primitive horses.

Name the features marking the
main branching points on the evolutionary tree of animals.​

Answers

Tissue systems, types of symmetry, presence and types of body cavities, types of development and segmentation Illustrate how body cavities distinguish branches of development of animals with bilateral symmetry.
Final answer:

The branching points on the evolutionary tree of animals are marked by significant changes, including the evolution or loss of traits. These include the appearance of legs or the amniotic egg, the number of heart chambers, body symmetry, and other developmental characteristics. The branches' length doesn't signify the amount of evolutionary change.

Explanation:

The main features marking the branching points on the evolutionary tree of animals, also known as the phylogenetic tree, are significant character changes, including the evolution of new traits and the loss of old ones. For instance, the branch point that diverges mammals and reptiles from the frog lineage is marked by the evolution of the amniotic egg. Similarly, the branch point that gave rise to organisms with legs is found at the common ancestor of mammals, reptiles, amphibians, and jawed fishes.

The branch points and branches in a phylogenetic tree represent evolutionary change. For example, the number of heart chambers in animals can change due to evolution and this is reflected on the evolutionary tree. Additionally, other key features such as body plan symmetry, number of germ tissue layers, and developmental characteristics like the presence or absence of an internal body cavity are used to determine branching points on the evolutionary tree.

Phylogenetic trees and cladograms can illustrate such changes derived due to evolution. However, the length of the branches on the evolutionary tree should not be mistaken as an indicator of the amount of evolutionary change between organisms.

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Which era is characterized by stromatolites as the most abundant fossil

Answers

Answer:

542 million years ago during the Precambrian period

Stromatolites were most abundant during the Precambrian Era. These layered structures were formed by photosynthetic cyanobacteria over 3 billion years ago. Modern-day stromatolites offer insights into early life on Earth.

The era characterized by stromatolites as the most abundant fossil is the Precambrian Era. Stromatolites, which are layered structures formed by the activity of photosynthetic cyanobacteria, have been found in fossil records dating back over 3 billion years. These microbial mats were particularly abundant during the Precambrian Era, spanning from about 4.6 billion years ago to 541 million years ago.

Key Characteristics of Stromatolites:

Formation: Created by sediment trapping by photosynthetic cyanobacteria.Structure: Consist of alternating layers of fossilized cells and calcium carbonate.Process: Cyanobacteria photosynthesize, using dissolved CO₂ to form sugar molecules, leading to calcium carbonate precipitation.

Living examples of stromatolites can still be found today, such as in Shark Bay, Western Australia, providing insight into early life on Earth.

1. The plant life that is characteristic of a biome depends upon:
A. the type of soil
B. the range of temperatures
C. the amount and pattern of precipitation
D. all of the above​

Answers

Answer:

D. all of the above​

Explanation:

Biome refers to a large and relatively distinct terrestrial region having similar climatic conditions regardless of where it occurs on Earth. The characteristic climatic conditions (temperature and precipitation being the most important ones) and soil type of each biome type determine the type of plant species found there. Therefore, each biome is characterized by specific flora.  

For example, a desert biome is a temperate or tropical biome characterized by a lack of precipitation, seasonal variations in temperature and poor soil type with low organic matter that limits plant growth. Desert biomes have only the plant species that can survive these harsh conditions.  

Which of the following is the best demonstration of the fundamental attribution error?
A.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he studied hard for this exam.”
B.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he asked the teacher for help.”
C.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he is really smart.”
D.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he ate a good breakfast on test day.”

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C.

Explanation:

Fundamental attribution error is drawing conclusions on the people based only on internal factors ( personality) of one person. These personal characteristics are overemphasized that external (situational) factors aren't even thought about. In this particular case, fundamental attribution error would be claiming that Chris earned good grades only because of his internal characteristics (his intelligence).

Answer:

C. is the correct answer

Explanation:

Hope that this helps. Peace and Love

A student notices that when bananas are kept near other fruits, the other fruits ripen faster. She wonders what causes the other fruits to ripen more quickly and thinks that bananas must have an influence on the ripening process. She decides to perform an experiment. She gathers bananas and apples and places an apple by itself at location A and an apple next to a banana at location B. She then waits for five days and records the how ripe each apple is.

What would be the next step in this experiment?

A.
ask questions and construct a hypothesis
B.
analyze the results and make a conclusion
C.
make observations and draw a conclusion
D.
construct a hypothesis and record data

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B) analyze the results and make a conclusion

Explanation:

The scientific method of research is based on the following steps:

Observations are made: In the following scenario, a student observed that t when bananas are kept near other fruits, the other fruits ripen faster.

Question: Based on the observation, a question is generated. In this scenario, the student had a question that will keeping bananas near any fruit increase the ripening process of the fruit.

Hypothesis: A hypothesis is the formation of a tentative statement.

Experiments: Based on the hypothesis, experiments are done to check for the results.

Analyzing the results and drawing conclusions: Results from the experiments are analyzed and conclusions are drawn which might prove the hypothesis to be correct or wrong.

PLEASE ANSWER ASAP!!
The diagram shows the embryological development of a species.
Which is best supported by the diagram?

1. The species must be human because it has gill slits, limb buds, and a tail.
2. The species could be human because it has gill slits, limb buds, and a tail.
3. The species is not related to a human because it has gill slits.
4. The species is not related to a human because it has a tail.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is b or  The species could be human because it has gill slits, limb buds, and a tail.

Explanation:

When Humans are in the embryology stage we have tails, gill slits, and also buds of that are the beginings for limbs

They offer solid proof of natural selection. The tail and gill slits found in all early vertebrate embryos are just two examples of embryological evidence that suggests similar ancestry. Thus, option B is correct.

What are the phenotypic feature of human embryo?

In fact, young human embryos do have slits in their necks that resemble gills. Instead of because we go through a “fish stage” while growing into physiologically perfect beings within our mothers' wombs.

Due to a shared ancestor and some DNA between humans and fish, this is almost certainly true. Given that it has limb buds, gill slits, and a tail, the species might be human.

In chordates, the anterior part of the digestive tract (pharynx) has pouches or slits. These are present during development in all vertebrate species and play a role in gas exchange and feeding in fish and some amphibians.

Therefore, When Humans are in the embryology stage we have tails, gill slits, and also buds of that are the beginnings for limbs.

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1. Which 4 amino acids have already been added to the growing protein?

Answers

Answer:

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Explanation:

associates with a set of proteins to form ribosomes. These complex structures, which physically move along an mRNA molecule, catalyze the assembly of amino acids into protein chains. They also bind tRNAs and various accessory molecules necessary for protein synthesis.

1. Forensic scientists use DNA fingerprinting for

Answers

Answer:

When used for forensic science, DNA fingerprinting makes use of probes that target regions of DNA specific to humans, thus eliminating any possibility of contamination by extraneous DNA from bacteria, plants, insects, or other sources.

Explanation:

Answered that question before. hope this helps :)

Answer: B. Identifying a person based on his or her unique genetic code.

Explanation: Here are the answer choices:


A. Finding similarities between individuals

B. Identifying a person based on his or her unique genetic code.
C. Tracing patterns of genetic defects present in criminals.

D. Determining if genetic engineering has occurred on a product.


B sounds the most reasonable to me.

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST IF CORRECT!!!!! NEEEEEED HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Using the chart, which of the following point mutations will cause the most harmful effect on an individual?




U



C



A



G







UUU

Phenylalanine

UCU

Serine

UAU

Tyrosine

UGU

Cysteine

U

U

UUC

Phenylalanine

UCC

Serine

UAC

Tyrosine

UGC

Cysteine

C



UUA

Leucine

UCA

Serine

UAA

Stop

UGA

Stop

A



UUG

Leucine

UCG

Serine

UAG

Stop

UGG

Tryptophan

G



CUU

Leucine

CCU

Proline

CAU

Hisitidine

CGU

Arginine

U

C

CUC

Leucine

CCC

Proline

CAC

Hisitidine

CGC

Arginine

C



CUA

Leucine

CCA

Proline

CAA

Glutamine

CGA

Arginine

A



CUG

Leucine

CCG

Proline

CAG

Glutamine

CGG

Arginine

G



AUU

Isoleucine

ACU

Threonine

AAU

Asparagine

AGU

Serine

U

A

AUC

Isoleucine

ACC

Threonine

AAC

Asparagine

AGC

Serine

C



AUA

Isoleucine

ACA

Threonine

AAA

Lysine

AGA

Arginine

A



AUG

Methionine/Start

ACG

Threonine

AAG

Lysine

AGG

Arginine

G



GUU

Valine

GCU

Alanine

GAU

Aspartate

GGU

Glycine

U

G

GUC

Valine

GCC

Alanine

GAC

Aspartate

GGC

Glycine

C



GUA

Valine

GCA

Alanine

GAA

Glutamate

GGA

Glycine

A



GUG

Valine

GCG

Alanine

GAG

Glutamate

GGG

Glycine

G

The sequence reads AUU; a change in the second base from U to C
The sequence reads CGA; a change in the first base from C to A
The sequence reads UGU; a change in the third base from U to A
The sequence reads UUA; a change in the first base from U to C and a change in the third base from A to G

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C.(The sequence reads UGU) (non sens mutation are the most harmful)

Answer:

The sequence reads UGU; a change in the third base from U to A

Explanation:

I just took this test and got it right, good luck with all your stuff!!

Which statement best describes a spring?

Answers

Answer & Explanation:

A natural spring can be described as groundwater flowing naturally to the surface where it is lower than the water table. Water is present in the ground, which is under our feet in soil spaces and in the fractures of rock formations. There comes a point where the ground water is recharged and flows to the surface naturally. The water that naturally flows to the surface is called springs.

Groundwater flowing naturally to the surface where it is lower than the water table statement best describes a spring.

What is the groundwater?

An underground layer of rock or silt that contains groundwater, the top of the saturated zone, naturally occurring groundwater that rises to the surface below the water table.

When groundwater is present below the water table and flows naturally to the surface, it is referred to as a natural spring.

Water can be found in the soil gaps beneath our feet and in the cracks in rock formations. At some point, the groundwater is naturally recharged and flows to the surface. Springs are places where water rises to the surface naturally.

Therefore, groundwater flowing naturally to the surface, where it is lower than the water table.

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The given question is incomplete, so most probable complete question is,

Which statement best describes a spring?

the top of the saturated zone

an underground layer of rock or sediment that holds groundwater

groundwater flowing naturally to the surface where it is lower than the water table

a vent in Earth’s surface that periodically ejects a column of hot water and steam

5. Which of the following statements best explains the role of meiosis in reproduction?
Meiosis allows chromosomes to exchange genetic material through crossing over.
Meiosis makes it possible for a zygote to have the correct number of chromosomes.
Meiosis increases the chances of fertilization because it produces four daughter cells.
Meiosis results in offspring with genotypes that are not exact copies of the parents.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: Meiosis makes it possible for a zygote to have the correct number of chromosomes.

Explanation:

Meiosis is a type of cell division used by reproducing organisms to produce the gametes (as sperm or egg cells). It has two rounds of division that results in four cells with one copy of each chromosome.

Before the division, genetic material from each chromosome is crossed over and creates new combinations of code on each chromosome. During fertilization, the cells produced by meiosis will conjoin to create a cell with copies of each chromosome again, the zygote.

Answer:

Hello!

The answer is Meiosis allows chromosomes to exchange genetic material through crossing over.

Explanation:

Meiosis:

Meiosis, also known as reduction division, is the type of cell division that produces four gametes by reducing the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.  

Meiosis occurs in the germ cells and is required for reproduction. Unlike Mitosis, which produces copies of the parent genetic material, meiosis is responsible for producing variations in the offspring DNA. Meiosis allows the crossing over which is the exchange of genetic material between chromosomes that will ultimately end up in separate daughter cells. This process will produce four gametes with a varied set of genes.


1. Which correctly identifies a part of the atom
shown in the figure above? SC.8.P.8.7
A T: electron
B T: nucleus
C U: electron
D U: proton

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

Atom has three subatomic particles;

Electron : Negatively charged species found inside an atom and outside of the nucleus.

Proton: Positively charged species found inside the nucleus of an atom.

Electron : Neutral charge species found inside the nucleus of an atom

Generally an atom is an electrically neutral species with equal number of electrons and protons.

According to question,The correct labeling of the U is an electron.

The part of the atom that is shown in the diagram is the U as electron that is in option C. Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that are present outside of the nucleus. So option C is correct.

Protons are positively charged subatomic particles found within the nucleus of an atom. They have a relative charge of +1 and a relative mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (amu). The number of protons in an atom's nucleus determines its atomic number, which is a fundamental property used to identify elements. Neutrons are electrically neutral subatomic particles also located in the nucleus of an atom. They do not carry any charge, so their relative charge is 0. Neutrons have a mass similar to protons, approximately 1 amu. Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that orbit the nucleus in specific energy levels, or electron shells. 

Hence, electron is correct option . So, option C is correct.

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This is the process of matter changing from the liquid to the solid state?

Answers

Answer:

The process is called freezing.

Explanation:

The process in which matter changing from the liquid to the solid state is called Freezing. Generally the freezing point of liquid like  water is 32°F or 0°C. Freezing is just the opposite of melting in which a solid melted to liquid. different liquid has different freezing point. the freezing point of liquid nitrogen at a pressure of one atmosphere is -345.8°F.

Final answer:

The process where matter changes from a liquid to a solid state is called freezing, occurring when heat is removed from a liquid, causing its particles to slow down and solidify.

Explanation:

The process of matter changing from the liquid to the solid state is known as freezing. This occurs when heat is removed from a substance, causing its particles to slow down and come closer together until the liquid becomes a solid. This transition is an example of a phase change, more specifically, it is one of the six common phase changes between the three states of matter: solid, liquid, and gas.

During freezing, the heat energy is subtracted from the liquid which decreases the motion of the particles. When the temperature reaches the substance's freezing point, the molecules have slowed sufficiently to arrange into a fixed, orderly structure, resulting in a solid. The freezing point is an important physical property and is specific to the substance being frozen. Examples include water freezing at 0 degrees Celsius or 32 degrees Fahrenheit to become ice.

Much of the focus of environmental science is to address the environmental problems that emerged from the ____________________.
Biodiversity Revolution

Industrial Revolution

Ecological Revolution

Agricultural Revolution

Answers

Answer:

Much of the focus of environmental science is to address the environmental problems that emerged from the industrial revolution.

Explanation:

The industrial revolution affected the environment, due to rise in population which also accompanied with the standard of living which led to the exploitation of the natural resources. The use of various chemicals, as well as the fuels for running the factories caused the increased air and water pollution. With more use of fossil fuels. The industrial revolution has also other negative effects like, very bad working condition, poor living condition, low wages and child labor.

Nearly all populations will tend to grow exponentially as long as there are resources available. After an initial period of exponential
growth, a population will encounter one or more limiting factors that will cause the exponential growth to stop. The population enters a
slower growth phase and may stabilize at a fairly constant population size or in some cases, may decline. Limiting factors can be classified
as either density-dependent or density independent
7:12
Cools
Drag each phrase/term to the correct column.
LON
Available space
Number of predators
Volcano
Wild fires
Density Dependent
Density Independent
Climatic change
o answer here
drag and drop
er here

Answers

Density dependent: available space number of predators

density independent: climatic change wild fires volcano

According to the question, each phrase/term with respect to the correct column is as follows:

Density-dependent factors: Available space, Number of predators.Density-independent factors: Volcano, Wildfires, climatic change.

What is Population?

A Population may be defined as a group of individuals belonging to the same species living in the same area at a given time.

Density-dependent factors may be characterized as those factors that significantly vary with the density of the population. These factors affect a higher proportion of individuals. It typically includes food and space available, competition between the species, predation, parasitism, accumulation of toxic wastes, etc.

While density-independent factors are those factors that do not vary with the density of the population. It majorly includes abiotic parameters like Temperature, flooding, pH, wildfires, etc.

Therefore, according to the question, each phrase/term with respect to the correct column is well mentioned.

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how does distance from the ocean, ocean current, latitude, elevation, and relative location of mountain ranges affect the climate in new york?

Answers

Answer:

So many factors influence the climate. Some of them are ocean currents, latitude, distance from the ocean, elevation, etc.

Explanation:

The distance from the ocean influences the climate of the place. If the place is located on the coast, the climate will be colder and humidity will be higher.

Thanks to ocean currents the temperature can be changed. Ocean currents can low the temperature but also make it very high.

Latitude has an influence also regarding the temperature. Elevation, as it gets higher, the air above is falling, so the pressure decreases.

Regarding all the factors above, we can say that New York has hot summers, with high humidity and very cold winters, full of snow. Close to the river, the ground is muddy and going to the mountains, the ground is getting rocky

Gene regulations in eukaryotes

Answers

Answer:

Gene regulation in eucaryotic cells represents mechanisms that influence gene expression.

Explanation:

This gene expression is regulated via repressors or activators of transcription.

Gene expression is a process that contains information from a transcript gene and translates it into a functional gene product. End products of gene expression are proteins.

Gene regulation is a process that cells and viruses are using to regulate the transformation of gene information into gene products.

Transcription factors are those proteins that regulate gene transcription. Those factors help the real genes to enter the right cells in the body.

The expression of eukaryotic genes is controlled by transcription. This transcription is controlled by proteins that are connecting to regulatory sequences and change the RNA activity. Gene regulation process is developed by combining different proteins of regulation.

How do ETS reactions produce ATP?
A. NADH and FADH2 donate electrons which move through the cristae; H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix; as H+ ions are pumped back into the matrix, ATP is produced.
B. H+ ions donate electrons which move through the cristae; NADH and FADH2 are pumped out of the matrix; as NAD+ and FAD are pumped back into the cristae, ATP is produced.
C. NAD+ and FADH donate electrons which move through the cristae; H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix; ATP and water are produced, and oxygen is consumed.
D. H+ ions donate electrons which move through the cristae; NAD+ and FADH are pumped out of the matrix; as water and oxygen are pumped back into the cristae, ATP is produced.

Answers

ATP synthesis is done as the electrons move through the  1 2 3 and 4 and hydrogen ion is pushed to the intermembrane space. As the hydrogen ion comes back to the matrix through the ATP synthase enzyme the ATP is produced.

Option C

Explanation:

ATP synthesis takes place in the mitochondria. All the hydrogen carriers get saturated through the glycolisis and the Kreb's Cycle. As these carriers comes to the inner membrane of mitochondria, there are four complexes of different electron carriers. [tex]NADH_2[/tex] goes to the complex 1 and [tex]FADH_2[/tex] goes to the complex 2.

Each complex takes the hydrogen ion from the carriers and pushes them to the intra Membranous space of the mitochondria. There the hydrogen ion concentration increases to a severe extent. As this goes on, the hydrogen ions come back to the mitochondrial matrix through a pump which is called ATP synthase which produces one ATP molecule for 3 hydrogen ion transport. Thus ATP is produced.

The oxygen is taken by cytochrome [tex]a_3[/tex] of complex 4 which is then reduced by the electrons of the hydrogen carriers and reacted with the protons to convert it to water.

Answer: It's "C"

Explanation:NAD+ and FADH donate electrons which move through the cristae; H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix; ATP and water are produced, and oxygen is consumed.

imagine a genetic cross between two people,blood type AB. what is the probability that these people will have offspring with type b blood
A)0%
B)10%
C)25%
D)50%​

Answers

Answer:

the right answer is c) 25%

Explanation:

Because its on usatestprep and 25% is the probability of having offspring with type B blood. If you do a Punnett square you see:

1/4 offspring could have blood type B: a 25% chance. 2/4 could be AB and 1/4 could be A.

Which of the following does not occur during Mitosis?

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is 'replication of chromosomes.'

Explanation:

Mitosis can be described as a type of cell division in which two daughter cells are produced which are identical to the parent cell. crossing over or independent assortment does not occur during this process. The cells produced by this method do not have to replicate their chromosomes. Hence, this option is not true.

Other options are true like the alignment of chromosomes along the cell's equator happens during the metaphase of mitosis.

Bacteria are important because of their extreme flexibility and capacity for rapid growth and reproduction. TRUE FALSE

Answers

hello the answer is true

Answer:

Bacteria are important because of their extreme flexibility and capacity for rapid growth and reproduction. This statement is- TRUE

Explanation:

Bacteria can grow best in their optimum environment. But they can survive in extreme conditions also.

Temperature- Optimum temperature for bacterial growth is 20- 45 degree Celsius. But Psychrophiles can survive on the lower temperature also . They can survive on refrigerator temperature lower than 4 degree Celsius.

Thermophiles even can grow on higher temperature up to 80 degree Celsius. Some hyperthermophiles has been discovered which can survive temperature ranging from 80-121 degree Celsius. Bacteria are discovered from hydrothermal vents where temperature is measured 340 degree Celsius. For bacteria obtained from hydrothermal vents optimal growth temperature is 100 degrees Celsius.

Like extreme temperature , bacteria can grow in extreme salt concentration are known as HALOPHILES.

Aerobic bacteria require oxygen to survive. But without oxygen also they can survive i,e. ANAEROBIC bacteria.

They can grow in highly acidic medium as well as highly alkaline medium.

They can survive in these extreme conditions , this flexibility and tolerance comes from their genes. Because of their very short duplication time /multiplication time they can achieve this tolerance. E. coli bacteria found in human intestine has very short doubling time of 20 minutes. They have ability to change /mutate their genes according to the survival condition. In genetic engineering also the advantage of using  microbe with shorter duplication time is useful. Within few minutes one can get the result whether the desire gene is expressed or not.

Caspar plants four bean seeds. He waters the first seed twice a day, the second seed once a day, the third seed every other day and the fourth seed not at all. Which seed can he expect to germinate first?

Answers

The seed he waters twice a day

What is the Pacific Rim of Fire? Explain how this geographic area is related to what we have studied

make sure you include information related to sea-floor spreading, plate tectonics earthquakes, and volcanoes.

And can you put it a little short thanks!

Answers

Explanation:

it's a set of volcanoes along a plate tectonic. they are created by a divergent boundary which creates seafloor spreading

Muscle cells have many
mitochondria that provide the
energy needed to move the body.
TRUE
FALSE

Answers

True because the mitochondria is the major organelle that provides energy for the body

Answer:

True

Explanation: As mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell it produces ATPs which are responsible for muscle cell functioning

Which value is being measured in the columns labeled fraction remaining and percentage remaining

Answers

Question:

Which value is being measured in the columns labeled "Fraction remaining” and "Percentage remaining”?

years of decay quantity of energy number of stable atoms amount of material that has not decayed

Answer:

"Amount of material that has not decayed" being measured in the columns labelled "Fraction remaining” and "Percentage remaining”

Explanation:

The table shown below having explains about the half life , the  amount of sample in both fraction and percentage. The first column named half life elapsed tells  us the the number of half life that that is completed. Half life is the time taken for an element to reduce or decay into half of its initial amount.

The fraction remaining column gives the amount of sample that is left behind  after the half life particular number of half life has completed.  similarly the percentage remaining column gives the amount of sample in percentage. For example, the 5th row tells us that after 4 half life is over [tex]\frac{1}{16} th[/tex] of the sample remained. In percentage it is 6.25%

Answer:

D

Explanation:

the diagram shows warm air blowing toward the equator

Answers

Answer:

warm air blows toward the equator , and cold air displaces this warm air near the polar regions.

Explanation:

Answer: The Coriolis force bends the air current

Explanation: The full question is The diagram shows warm air blowing toward the equator. Which causes the air current to curve

Which procedure could a student use to examine an intensive property of a rectangular block of wood?
G
EEN
e F
DEFENS
CHE
30
.
Find the mass.
Record the length.
Measure the volume.
Determine the density.

Answers

Answer:

the answer is correct

Explanation:

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Other Questions
Which nucleotide bases form base pairs in DNA? Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with GuanineAdenine pairs with Uracil and Guanine pairs with CytosineAdenine pairs with Guanine and Cytosine pairs with ThymineAdenine pairs with Cytosine and Uracil pairs with Guanine Abby bought two slices of pizza andthree bottles of water for $7.25Cameron bought four slices of pizza andone bottle of water for $8.25 what is thesolution An effective price ceiling is set ________ the market equilibrium price and results in a ________. You must evaluate a proposal to buy a new milling machine. The base price is $120,000, and shipping and installation costs would add another $15,000. The machine falls into the MACRS 3-year class, and it would be sold after 3 years for $70,000. The applicable depreciation rates are 33%, 45%, 15%, and 7% as discussed in Appendix 12A. The machine would require a S6,000 increase in net operating working capital (increased inventory less increased accounts payable). There would be no effect on revenues, but pretax labor costs would decline by $46,000 per year. The marginal tax rate is 35%, and the WACC is 12%. Also, the firm spent $5,000 last year investigating the feasibility of using the machine. ) What is the milling machine's terminal (non-operating) cash flow at the end of year 3? A. $76,000 B. $54,440 C. $51,500 D. $54,808 Two people must have the same speed and velocity if You are developing a financial plan to provide a retirement income for a customer starting at age 65. The customer asks you how Social Security retirement benefits work and how these benefits fit into the plan. You should explain all of the following key facts about Social Security EXCEPT:[A] The earliest age at which a retiree can elect to receive retirement benefits is 62[B] To receive full benefits requires the retiree to claim benefits at the normal retirement age of 65, 66 or 67 depending on the birthdate of the retiree[C] A Cost of Living Adjustment (COLA) will be added to the monthly benefit starting at age 63[D] Working beyond the full retirement age will decrease the monthly benefits If age is an explanatory variable and height is the corresponding response variable, which of these would be represented by the y - axis on a scatterplot? The amounts of time that customers stay in a certain restaurant for lunch is normally distributed with a standard deviation of 17 minutes. A random sample of 50 lunch customers was taken at this restaurant. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the true average amount of time customers spend in the restaurant for lunch. Round your answers to two decimal places and use ascending order. When developing and recommending a suitable, long-term investment strategy for retirement, which of the following does not need to be considered? The cost of an asset is $ 1,020,000, and its residual value is $ 100,000. The estimated useful life of the asset is ten years. Calculate depreciation for the first year using the two minus declining minus balance method of depreciation. (Do not round any intermediate calculations, and round your final answer to the nearest dollar.) a. $ 204.000 b. $ 92.000 c. $ 102. 000 d. $ 184.000 Which of these physiological changes would not be considered part of the sympathetic fight-or-flight response? The length of the top of a computer desk is 2 1/4 feet longer than it's width. If it's width measures y feet, express its length as an algebraic expression in y The magnitude of the magnetic field in a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machine can be as great as B = 2.0 T . Under normal circumstances, this field cannot be shut off by just flipping a switch. Instead the magnitude needs to be carefully decreased to zero. In an emergency, however, the magnet can be "quenched" so that B reduces to zero in 20 s. Such a quench can cost thousands of dollars and likely damages the magnets. Assume that the magnetic field exists inside a cylinder of radius R = 400 mm and length = 300 mm .1. How much magnetic potential energy is dissipated when the magnetic field is quenched in this way?2. What is the average rate at which energy is dissipated? Williams Company computed its cost per equivalent unit for direct materials to be $2.60 and its cost per equivalent unit for conversion to be $3.75. A total of 250,000 units of product were completed and transferred out as finished goods during the month, and 36,000 of equivalent units remained unfinished at the end of the month. The amount that should be reported in ending Work in Process Inventory is: A. $93,600. B. $135,000. C. $1,816,100. D. $1,587,500. E. $228,600. Evaluate the expression \dfrac{x^5}{x^2} x 2 x 5 start fraction, x, start superscript, 5, end superscript, divided by, x, squared, end fraction for x=2x=2x, equals, 2. More than a thousand research studies have demonstrated that children who watch a great deal of television violence:__________. Bernie wants to go into the business of construction contracting. Among the reasons that would probably convince Bernie to set up his business as a sole proprietorship would be a. its greater flexibility. b. its limited liability. c. its perpetual existence. d. the ease of transferring the business to other family members. How effective do you believe this Fireside Chat was in helping re-establish confidence in the banking system? Order each group from least to greatest. int[] num = new int[100];for (int i = 0; i < 50; i++)num[i] = i;num[5] = 10;num[55] = 100;What is the index number of the last component in the array above?1. 992. 1003. 04. 101 Steam Workshop Downloader