Answer:
The nuclear force is attractive and not repulsive.The nuclear force is very weak and much smaller in relative magnitude than the electrostatic and gravitational forces.Explanation:
Nuclear force is the strongest existing force in the nature. It has the shortest range.Its main function is to hold the subatomic particles together in nature.The nuclear force is created by the exchange of pi mesons between the nucleons of an atom, but for this exchange to happen the particles must be close to one another of the order of few femtometer.At about 1 femtometer the nuclear force is very strongly attractive in nature but at distance greater than 2.5 femtometer it fades away. The force becomes repulsive in nature at distance less than 0.7 femtometer.This force holds the likely charged protons together in the nucleus.During a neighborhood baseball game in a vacant lot, a particularly wild hit sends a 0.146 kg baseball crashing through the pane of a second-floor window in a nearby building. The ball strikes the glass at 15.3 m/s , shatters the glass as it passes through, and leaves the window at 10.7 m/s with no change of direction. What is the direction of the impulse that the glass imparts to the baseball?
Calculate the magnitude of this impulse (a positive number).
The ball is in contact with the glass for 0.0106 s as it passes through. Find the magnitude of the average force of the glass on the ball (a positive number).
Answer:
Impulse, |J| = 0.6716 kg-m/s
Force, F = 63.35 N
Explanation:
It is given that,
Mass of the baseball, m = 0.146 kg
Initial speed of the ball, u = 15.3 m/s
Final speed of the ball, v = 10.7 m/s
To find,
(a) The magnitude of this impulse.
(b) The magnitude of the average force of the glass on the ball.
Solution,
(a) Impulse of an object is equal to the change in its momentum. It is given by :
[tex]J=m(v-u)[/tex]
[tex]J=0.146\ kg(10.7-15.3)\ m/s[/tex]
J = -0.6716 kg-m/s
or
|J| = 0.6716 kg-m/s
(b) Another definition of impulse is given by the product of force and time of contact.
t = 0.0106 s
[tex]J=F\times \Delta t[/tex]
[tex]F=\dfrac{J}{\Delta t}[/tex]
[tex]F=\dfrac{0.6716\ kg-m/s}{0.0106\ s}[/tex]
F = 63.35 N
Hence, this is the required solution.
The impulse direction is opposite to the baseball's initial direction, and its magnitude is 0.6716 kg·m/s. The average force magnitude exerted by the window on the baseball is 63.36 N.
The direction of the impulse imparted by the window to the baseball is opposite to the baseball's initial direction of motion. This is because impulse is equal to the change in momentum, and since the window slows the ball down, it is applying a force in the opposite direction of the ball's initial velocity.
To calculate the magnitude of the impulse (I), use the formula
I = change in momentum = m(vf - vi)
where m is the mass of the baseball, vf is the final velocity, and vi is the initial velocity. The mass m = 0.146 kg, vi = 15.3 m/s, and vf = 10.7 m/s.
I = (0.146 kg)(10.7 m/s - 15.3 m/s)
I = (0.146 kg)(-4.6 m/s)
I = -0.6716 kg·m/s.
The negative sign indicates the impulse is in the opposite direction of the ball's initial motion, but since the question asks for the magnitude, we take the absolute value: 0.6716 kg·m/s.
The magnitude of the average force (Favg) exerted on the ball can be found using the formula
Favg = I/t
where t is the contact time. For a contact time of 0.0106 s, we have:
Favg = 0.6716 kg·m/s / 0.0106 s
Favg = 63.36 N.
Learning Goal: To practice Problem-Solving Strategy 40.1 for quantum mechanics problems. Suppose a particle of mass m is confined to a one-dimensional box of length L. We can model this as an infinite square well in which the particle's potential energy inside the box is zero and the potential energy outside is infinite. For a particle in its first excited state, what is the probability Prob(center20%) of finding the particle within the center 20% of the box?
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Explanation
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
The probability of finding a particle in its first excited state within the center 20% of an infinite square well of length L is approximately 11.8%. This involves integrating the square of the wavefunction over the specific interval. The key steps are defining the potential energy and solving the Schrödinger equation.
To find the probability of locating a particle in its first excited state within the center 20% of a one-dimensional box of length L, we follow these steps:
Define the Potential Energy, V: Inside the box (0 ≤ x ≤ L), V(x) = 0. Outside the box, V(x) = ∞.
Solve the Schrödinger Equation: The normalized wavefunction for the first excited state (n=2) is ψ2(x) = √(2/L) * sin(2πx/L).
The center 20% of the box is the interval from 0.4L to 0.6L. We calculate the probability of finding the particle in this region by integrating the square of the wavefunction:
Prob(center20%) = ∫0.4L0.6L |ψ2(x)|² dx = ∫0.4L0.6L ">2/L * sin²(2πx/L) dx.
Using integration techniques, the result is:
Prob(center20%) = 2 * [0.1 - (sin(0.4π))/(π)]. This computes to approximately 0.118 or 11.8%.
The buildup of plaque on the walls of an artery may decrease its diameter from 1.1 cm to 0.90 cm. The speed of blood flow was 17 cm/s before reaching the region of plaque buildup.
A). Find the speed of blood flow within the plaque region. This was 25 cm/s.
B.) Find the pressure drop within the plaque region. I got 17.808 but says I'm wrong. Am I missing a step?
Answer
Initial radius of the artery is (1.1 cm) / 2 = 0.55 cm
final radius of the artery is (0.90 cm) / 2 = 0.45 cm
initial velocity of the blood is 17 cm/s
Using equation of continuity is
A₁v₁=A₂v₂
π r₁² x v₁ = π r₂² x v₂
r₁² x v₁ = r₂² x v₂
0.55² x 17 =0.45² x v₂
v₂=25.39 cm/s
Bernoulli's equation is
[tex]P_1 - P_2 = \dfrac{1}{2}\rho (v_2^2-v_1^2)[/tex]
rho is the density of blood = 1060 kg/m^3
[tex]P_1 - P_2 = \dfrac{1}{2}\times 1060 \times (0.254^2-0.17^2)[/tex]
[tex]P_1 - P_2 =18.87\ Pa[/tex]
The student uses the continuity equation to correctly solve the first part, but for pressure drop, they need to apply Bernoulli's principle. Using the equation P1 + 1/2ρv1² = P2 + 1/2ρv2², with ρ being the blood's density and v1 and v2 the speeds, they can find the pressure drop. However, real-life complications due to blood viscosity and turbulence might affect the results.
Explanation:The subject of this question is Physics (specifically, fluid dynamics). The concept being applied here is that of continuity and Bernoulli's principle. The continuity equation for fluid states that the mass flow rate must be constant throughout the length of the pipe. This translates to: Area 1 × Speed 1 = Area 2 × Speed 2. You correctly set up this equation to find Speed 2, which is the speed of the blood flow within the plaque region.
For the pressure drop, we need to use Bernoulli's principle, which describes that the sum of the pressure, kinetic energy per unit volume, and potential energy per unit volume is constant in a non-viscous, steady-flowing system. Applying Bernoulli's Equation: P1 + 1/2ρv1² = P2 + 1/2ρv2². Solving this equation gives us the pressure difference within the plaque region.
Keep in mind that you might have to use the change in blood speed, and also the density of blood within the equations to find the accurate pressure drop. Also, Bernoulli's principle applies to ideal situations and there could be changes in real-life situations due to the viscosity of blood and turbulence caused by plaque.
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For a block to move down an inclined plane what force has to be the greatest?
A. Compression
B. Normal
C. tension
D. Gravity
E. Shear
Answer:
D) True. This is what creates the body weight
Explanation:
Let's write Newton's second law for this case. For inclined planes the reference system takes one axis parallel to the plane (x axis) and the other perpendicular to the plane (y axis)
X axis
Wx -fr = ma
Y Axis
N - Wy = 0
With trigonometry we can find the components of weight
sin θ = Wₓ / W
cos θ = [tex]W_{y}[/tex] / W
Wₓ = W sin θ
[tex]W_{y}[/tex] = W cos θ
W sin θ - fr = ma
From this expression as it indicates that the body is descending the force greater is the gravity that create the weight of the body
Let's examine the answers
A False This force does not apply because it is not a spring
B) False. It is balanced at all times with the component (Wy) of the weight
C) False. For there to be a rope, if it exists you should be less than the weight component for the block to lower
D) True. This is what creates the body weight
E) False. The cutting force occurs for force applied at a single point and gravity is applied at all points
For a block to move down an inclined plane, the force of gravity must be greater than the other forces. This includes the normal force and any friction that may be present. Other forces such as compression, tension, and shear are not directly involved in this process.
Explanation:For a block to move down an inclined plane, the greatest force must be gravity. The force of gravity acts downward and causes the block to slide down the slope. This force must be stronger than the others such as the normal force (the force exerted by the plane on the block) and any friction forces that may be present.
The other forces listed (compression, tension, and shear) are not directly related to the movement of the block down the inclined plane. Compression and tension are forces that act in opposite directions either pushing (compression) or pulling (tension) an object. Shear is a force that causes materials to slide past each other and is not directly applicable to this scenario
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A solid plate, with a thickness of 15 cm and a thermal conductivity of 80 W/m·K, is being cooled at the upper surface by air. The air temperature is 10°C, while the temperatures at the upper and lower surfaces of the plate are 650 50 and 60°C, respectively. Determine the convection heat transfer coefficient of air at the upper surface and discuss whether the value is reasonable or not for force convection of air.
To determine the convection heat transfer coefficient of air at the upper surface, we need to know the surface area of the plate which is not provided in the given question.
Explanation:The convection heat transfer coefficient of air at the upper surface can be determined using Newton's law of cooling. According to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of heat transfer through convection is directly proportional to the temperature difference between the solid surface and the surrounding fluid and the surface area of the solid.
Therefore, the heat transfer rate can be calculated using the formula:
Q = h * A * (Ts - T∞)
Where:
In this case, we are given the following values:
To find the surface area, we need to know the dimensions of the plate. Once we have the surface area, we can solve for the convection heat transfer coefficient using the given formula. However, the surface area is not provided in the question, so we cannot determine the convection heat transfer coefficient without that information.
In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 12 cm2 is rotated in 0.040 s from a position where its plane is perpendicular to the earth’s magnetic field to a position where its plane is parallel to the field. The earth’s magnetic field at the lab location is 6.0×10−5 T. (a) What is the magnetic flux through each turn of the coil before it is rotated? After it is rotated? (b) What is the average emf induced in the coil?
To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to the magnetic flow of a coil and take into account the angles for each case.
It is also necessary to delve into part C, the concept of electromotive force (emf) which is defined as the variation of the magnetic flux as a function of time.
By definition the magnetic flux is determined as:
[tex]\phi = NBA cos\theta[/tex]
Where
N = Number of loops [tex]\rightarrow[/tex] We will calculate the value for each of the spins
B = Magnetic Field
A = Cross-sectional Area
[tex]\theta =[/tex] Angle between the perpendicular cross-sectional area and the magnetic field.
PART A) The magnetic flux through the coil after it is rotated is as follows:
[tex]\phi_i = NBA cos\theta[/tex]
[tex]\phi_i = (1turns)(6*10^{-5}T)(12*10^{-4}m^2)cos(0)[/tex]
[tex]\phi_i = 7.2*10^{-8}T\cdot m^2[/tex]
PART B) For the second case the angle formed is perpendicular therefore:
[tex]\phi_f = NBA cos\theta[/tex]
[tex]\phi_f = (1turns)(6*10^{-5}T)(12*10^{-4}m^2)cos(90)[/tex]
[tex]\phi_f = 0[/tex]
PART C) The average induced emf of the coil is as follows:
[tex]\epsilon = - (\frac{\phi_f-\phi_i}{dt})[/tex]
[tex]\epsilon = -(\frac{0-7.2*10^{-8}}{0.04})[/tex]
[tex]\epsilon = 1.8*10^{-6}V[/tex]
Assume that the Deschutes River has straight and parallel banks and that the current is 0.75 m/s. Drifting down the river, you fall out of your boat and immediately grab a piling of the Warm Springs Bridge. You hold on for 40 s and then swim after the boat with a speed relative to the water of 0.95 m/s. The distance of the boat downstream from the bridge when you catch it is______________.
Answer:
d = 142.5 m
Explanation:
This is a vector exercise. Let's calculate how much the boat travels in the 40s
d₀ = [tex]v_{b}[/tex] t
d₀ = 0.75 40
d₀ = 30 m
Let's write the kinematic equations
Boat
x = d₀ + [tex]v_{b}[/tex] t
x = 0 + [tex]v_{h}[/tex] t
At the meeting point the coordinate is the same for both
d₀ + [tex]v_{b}[/tex] t = [tex]v_{h}[/tex] t
t ( [tex]v_{h}[/tex] - [tex]v_{b}[/tex]) = d₀
t = d₀ / ( [tex]v_{b}[/tex]- [tex]v_{h}[/tex])
The two go in the same direction therefore the speeds have the same sign
t = 30 / (0.95-0.775)
t = 150 s
The distance traveled by man is
d = [tex]v_{h}[/tex] t
d = 0.95 150
d = 142.5 m
The distance of the boat downstream when you catch it is 60 meters.
Explanation:To find the distance of the boat downstream when you catch it, we can use the equation d = vt, where d is the distance, v is the velocity, and t is the time.
Given that the current of the river is 0.75 m/s and you hold onto the piling for 40 seconds, the distance drift with the current is:
ddrift = (0.75 m/s)(40 s) = 30 mAfter you start swimming with a speed of 0.95 m/s and catch up to the boat, the distance you swim against the current is equal to the distance the boat drifts:
dswim = ddrift = 30 mTherefore, the total distance downstream when you catch the boat is:
d = ddrift + dswim = 30 m + 30 m = 60 mHence, the total distance downstream when you catch the boat is 60 m.
A child pulls a 15 kg sled containing a 5.0 kg dog along a straight path on a horizontal surface. He exerts a force of 55 N on the sled at an angle of 20 degrees above the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the sled and the surface is 0.22.Calculate the word done by the child's pulling force as the system moves a distance of 7.0 m.
The work done by the child pulling the sled and dog, with a pulling force of 55 N, over a distance of 7.0 m, considering both pulling work and the work done against friction, is 59.42 J.
Explanation:The question concerns the work done by a child pulling a sled with a dog. 'Work done' in physics is calculated using the equation, work done = force x distance x cosine of the angle. The force exerted is 55 N, the distance is 7.0 m, and the angle is 20 degrees. Thus, the work done by the child's pulling force as the system moves a distance of 7.0 m, ignoring friction and because cos(20) is approximately 0.94, is calculated as: Work done = 55 N x 7.0 m x cos(20) = 55 N x 7.0 m x 0.94 = 361.3 J.
However, the total work done is reduced due to friction between the sled and the ground. The sled's total weight (15 kg sled + 5.0 kg dog = 20 kg) multiplied by gravity (9.8 m/s²) gives the normal force (20 kg * 9.8 m/s² = 196 N). Multiplying the normal force by the friction coefficient (0.22), gives the frictional force (196 N * 0.22 = 43.12 N). Hence, the work done against friction is: Work done against friction = frictional force x distance = 43.12 N x 7.0 m = 301.88 J. Therefore, the actual work done by the child equals the pull work minus the work against friction, which is 361.3 J - 301.88 J = 59.42 J.
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A stereo speaker produces a pure \"E\" tone, with a frequency of 329.6 Hz. What is the period of the sound wave produced by the speaker? What is the wavelength of this sound wave as it travels through air with a speed of about 341 m/s? What is the wavelength of the same sound wave as it enters some water, where it has a speed of about 1480 m/s?
Answer:
0.003034 s
1.035 m
4.5 m
Explanation:
[tex]f[/tex] = frequency of the tone = 329.6 Hz
[tex]T[/tex] = Time period of the sound wave
we know that, Time period and frequency are related as
[tex]T =\frac{1}{f}\\T =\frac{1}{329.6}\\T = 0.003034 s[/tex]
[tex]v[/tex] = speed of the sound in the air = 341 ms⁻¹
wavelength of the sound is given as
[tex]\lambda =\frac{v}{f} \\\lambda =\frac{341}{329.6}\\\lambda = 1.035 m[/tex]
[tex]v[/tex] = speed of the sound in the water = 1480 ms⁻¹
wavelength of the sound in water is given as
[tex]\lambda =\frac{v}{f} \\\lambda =\frac{1480}{329.6}\\\lambda = 4.5 m[/tex]
A(n) ____ is a solar system object that enters Earth's atmosphere and becomes very hot due to friction between the object and Earth's atmosphere and does not survive to reach the surface.
a. asteroid
b. meteor
c. comet
d. meteoroid
e. planetesimal
Answer:
d. meteoroid
Explanation:
An asteroid is a small rocky mass of substance that orbits around the sun. They are smaller than a planet in size but larger than a pebble sized mass called meteoroids.Sometimes a meteoroid comes close enough to the Earth and enters the Earth’s atmosphere, due to friction with the atmosphere it vaporizes and turns into a meteor appearing as a streak of light in the sky called meteor.Comets are the mass of ice and dust revolving around the sun. They keep coming closer to the sun in a helical path and when there is enough heat these get vapourised leaving behind a tail of vapour and dust.When one asteroid smashes into another breaking off small pieces which are called meteoroids if they get completely burn into ashes or vapourize when passing through the atmosphere of the earth, but if they fall as a mass of rock they are known as meteorites.A planetesimal is a solid object that arises due to the accumulation of orbiting bodies whose internal strength is dominated by self-gravity and whose orbital dynamics is not significantly affected by gas drag.A laser beam of wavelength λ=632.8 nm shines at normal incidence on the reflective side of a compact disc. The tracks of tiny pits in which information is coded onto the CD are 1.60 μm apart.For what nonzero angles of reflection (measured from the normal) will the intensity of light be maximum? Express your answer numerically. If there is more than one answer, enter each answer separated by a comma.
To solve this problem we will apply the concepts given by the principles of superposition, specifically those described by Bragg's law in constructive interference.
Mathematically this relationship is given as
[tex]dsin\theta = n\lambda[/tex]
Where,
d = Distance between slits
[tex]\lambda[/tex] = Wavelength
n = Any integer which represent the number of repetition of the spectrum
[tex]\theta = sin^{-1} (\frac{n\lambda}{d})[/tex]
Calculating the value for n, we have
n = 1
[tex]\theta_1 = sin^{-1} (\frac{\lambda}{d})\\\theta_1 = sin^{-1} (\frac{632.8*10^{-9}}{1.6*10^{-6}})\\\theta_1 = 23.3\°[/tex]
n=2
[tex]\theta_2 = sin^{-1} (\frac{2\lambda}{d})\\\theta_2 = sin^{-1} (2\frac{632.8*10^{-9}}{1.6*10^{-6}})\\\theta_2 = 52.28\°[/tex]
n =3
[tex]\theta_2 = sin^{-1} (\frac{2\lambda}{d})\\\theta_2 = sin^{-1} (3\frac{632.8*10^{-9}}{1.6*10^{-6}})\\\theta_2 = \text{not possible}[/tex]
Therefore the intensity of light be maximum for angles 23.3° and 52.28°
How much is the moment due to force P about point B. P(unit=N) vector is equal to (150i+260j ) and vector BA (unit=meter) is equal to (0.23i+0.04j)?
Answer:
The moment (torque) is given by the following equation:
[tex]\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}\\\vec{r} \times \vec{F} = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}\^{i}&\^j&\^k\\r_x&r_y&r_z\\F_x&F_y&F_z\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}\^{i}&\^j&\3k\\0.23&0.04&0\\150&260&0\end{array}\right] = \^k((0.23*260) - (0.04*150)) = \^k (53.8~Nm)[/tex]
Explanation:
The cross-product between the distance and the force can be calculated using the method of determinant. Since the z-components are zero, it is easy to calculate.
Consider a mechanical clutch that consists of two heavy disks that can engage or disengage. At the beginning disk 1 with mass m1 = 12kg and diameter d1 = 60cm is at rest (f1 = 0min−1 ) and disengaged from disk 2 with mass m2 = 8kg and diameter d2 = 40cm that is rotating with a frequency of f2 = 200min−1 . When we engage the clutch both disks become connected and disk 1 is accelerated while disk 2 decelerates due to a portion of its rotational energy being used to accelerate disk 1. In full contact both disks are rotating with the same angular velocity. Calculate this final angular velocity ω and the corresponding frequency f. We are neglecting further loss of energy due to heat as a result of friction. This friction and heat is the reason why real clutches wear out over time. The moment of inertia for a solid disk can be found in the textbook.
Answer:
w = 4,786 rad / s , f = 0.76176 Hz
Explanation:
For this problem let's use the concept of angular momentum
L = I w
The system is formed by the two discs, during the impact the system remains isolated, we have the forces are internal, this implies that the external torque is zero and the angular momentum is conserved
Initial Before sticking
L₀ = 0 + I₂ w₂
Final after coupling
[tex]L_{f}[/tex] = (I₁ + I₂) w
The moments of inertia of a disk with an axis of rotation in its center are
I = ½ M R²
How the moment is preserved
L₀ = [tex]L_{f}[/tex]
I₂ w₂ = (I₁ + I₂) w
w = w₂ I₂ / (I₁ + I₂)
Let's reduce the units to the SI System
d₁ = 60 cm = 0.60 m
d₂ = 40 cm = 0.40 m
f₂ = 200 min-1 (1 min / 60 s) = 3.33 Hz
Angular velocity and frequency are related.
w₂ = 2 π f₂
w₂ = 2π 3.33
w₂ = 20.94 rad / s
Let's replace
w = w₂ (½ M₂ R₂²) / (½ M₁ R₁² + ½ M₂ R₂²)
w = w₂ M₂ R₂² / (M₁ R₁² + M₂ R₂²)
Let's calculate
w = 20.94 8 0.40² / (12 0.60² + 8 0.40²)
w = 20.94 1.28 / 5.6
w = 4,786 rad / s
Angular velocity and frequency are related.
w = 2π f
f = w / 2π
f = 4.786 / 2π
f = 0.76176 Hz
For years, marine scientist were mystified by sound waves detected by underwater microphones in the Pacific Ocean. These so-called T waves were among the purest sounds in nature. Eventually the researchers traced the source to underwater volcanoes whose rising columns of bubbles resonated like organ pipes. A typical T wave has a frequency of 6.8 Hz. Knowing that the speed of sound in seawaver is 1,530 m/s, determine the wavelength of a T wave.
Answer:
225 m
Explanation:
[tex]f[/tex] = Frequency of the T wave = 6.8 Hz
[tex]v[/tex] = Speed of sound in seawater = 1530 ms⁻¹
[tex]\lambda[/tex] = Wavelength of the T wave
we know that, frequency, speed and wavelength are related as
[tex]wavelength = \frac{speed}{frequency}[/tex]
[tex]\lambda = \frac{v}{f}[/tex]
Inserting the values, we get
[tex]\lambda = \frac{1530}{6.8}\\\lambda = 225 m[/tex]
Final answer:
The wavelength of a T wave with a frequency of 6.8 Hz in seawater, where the speed of sound is 1,530 m/s, is calculated to be approximately 225 meters using the formula for wave speed.
Explanation:
To calculate the wavelength of a T wave with a frequency of 6.8 Hz in the Pacific Ocean, where the speed of sound in seawater is 1,530 m/s, we can use the formula for wave speed: v = f × λ, where v is the speed of sound, f is the frequency, and λ is the wavelength.
By rearranging the formula to solve for the wavelength (λ = v / f), and substituting in the known values, we get λ = 1,530 m/s / 6.8 Hz, which calculates to approximately 225 meters. Therefore, the wavelength of a T wave with a 6.8 Hz frequency in seawater is about 225 meters.
A small mirror is attached to a vertical wall, and it hangs a distance of 1.86 m above the floor. The mirror is facing due east, and a ray of sunlight strikes the mirror early in the morning and then again later in the morning. The incident and reflected rays lie in a plane that is perpendicular to both the wall and the floor. Early in the morning, the reflected ray strikes the floor at a distance of 3.80 m from the base of the wall. Later on in the morning, the ray is observed to strike the floor at a distance of 1.22 m from the wall. The earth rotates at a rate of 15.0˚ per hour. How much time (in hours) has elapsed between the two observations?
Answer:
[tex]t=2.044\ hr[/tex]
Explanation:
From the schematic we can visualize the situation and the position of the rays falling on the floor.
Considering the given data from the lowest edge of the mirror.
We get a triangle with height of 1.86 meters.In the first instance the base of the triangle is 3.8 meters.While in the second instance the base is 1.22 meters.Speed of rotation of earth, [tex]\omega=15^{\circ}\ hr^{-1}[/tex]Now applying the trigonometric ratio to known sides in the first instance:
[tex]tan\ \theta_1=\frac{1.86}{3.8}[/tex]
[tex]\theta_1=26.08^{\circ}[/tex]
Applying the trigonometric ratio to known sides in the second instance:
[tex]tan\ \theta_2=\frac{1.86}{1.22}[/tex]
[tex]\theta_2=56.74^{\circ}[/tex]
Now by the law of reflection we know that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. So the sun would have been at the same angle on the opposite side of the normal.
Hence the change in angle of the sun with respect to the mirror (also the earth)
[tex]\Delta \theta=\theta_2-\theta_1[/tex]
[tex]\Delta \theta=56.74-26.08[/tex]
[tex]\Delta \theta=30.66^{\circ}[/tex]
Now the time past for this change:
[tex]t=\frac{\Delta \theta}{\omega}[/tex]
[tex]t=\frac{30.66}{15}[/tex]
[tex]t=2.044\ hr[/tex]
An alternating current is set up in an LRC circuit.
For which of the following circuit elements are the current and voltage in phase?
A) inductor only
B) resistor only
C) capacitor only
D) resistor and capacitor only
E) inductor, resistor, and capacitor
Answer:
(B) Resistor only
Explanation:
Alternating Current: These are currents that changes periodically with time.
An LRC Ac circuit is an AC circuit that contains a Resistor, a capacitor and an inductor, connected in series.
In a purely resistive circuit, current and voltage are in phase.
In a purely capacitive circuit, the current leads the voltage by π/2
In a purely inductive circuit, the current lags the voltage by π/2.
Therefore when a alternating current is set up in LRC circuit, in the resistor, the current and the voltage are in phase.
The right option is (B) Resistor only.
The circuit elements are the current and voltage in phase in:
B) Resistor only
What is Alternating current?These are flows that changes occasionally with time. A LRC AC circuit is an AC circuit that contains a Resistor, a capacitor and an inductor, associated in series. In an absolutely resistive circuit, current and voltage are in stage. In an absolutely capacitive circuit, the current leads the voltage by π/2. In an absolutely inductive circuit, the current slacks the voltage by π/2.
Thus, when an alternating current is set up in LRC circuit, in the resistor, the current and the voltage are in phase.
So, correct option is (B).
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A propeller consists of two blades each 3.0 m in length and mass 120 kg each. The propeller can be approximated by a single rod rotating about its center of mass. The propeller starts from rest and rotates up to 1200 rpm in 30 seconds at a constant rate.
a) What is the angular momentum of the propeller at ????=10s;????=20s?
b) What is the torque on the propeller?
Answer:
Explanation:
a)
[tex]l[/tex] = length of each blade = 3 m
[tex]m[/tex] = mass of each blade = 120 kg
[tex]L[/tex] = length of the rod
[tex]M[/tex] = mass of the rod
Length of the rod is given as
[tex]L = 2 l = 2 (3) = 6 m[/tex]
[tex]w_{0}[/tex] = Angular velocity at t = 0, = 0 rad/s
[tex]w_{30}[/tex] = Angular velocity at t = 30, = 1200 rpm = 125.66 rad/s
[tex]\Delta t[/tex] = time interval = 30 - 0 = 30 s
angular acceleration is given as
[tex]\alpha = \frac{w_{30} - w_{0}}{\Delta t} = \frac{125.66 - 0}{30} = 4.2 rad/s^{2}[/tex]
Angular velocity at t = 10 s is given as
[tex]w_{10} = w_{0} + \alpha t\\w_{10} = 0 + (4.2) (10)\\w_{10} = 42 rad/s[/tex]
Angular velocity at t = 20 s is given as
[tex]w_{20} = w_{0} + \alpha t\\w_{20} = 0 + (4.2) (20)\\w_{10} = 84 rad/s[/tex]
Mass of the rod is given as
[tex]M = 2m = 2(120) = 240 kg[/tex]
Moment of inertia of the propeller is given as
[tex]I = \frac{ML^{2} }{12} = \frac{(240)(6)^{2} }{12} = 720 kgm^{2}[/tex]
Angular momentum at t = 10 s is given as
[tex]L_{10} = I w_{10} = (720) (42) = 30240 kgm^{2}/s[/tex]
Angular momentum at t = 20 s is given as
[tex]L_{20} = I w_{20} = (720) (84) = 60480 kgm^{2}/s[/tex]
b)
Torque on propeller is given as
[tex]\tau = I \alpha \\\tau = (720) (4.2)\\\tau = 3024 Nm[/tex]
Answer:
(a) 4800 kg m^2/s^2 , 9600 kg m^2/s^2
(b) 480 Nm
Explanation:
length of each blade = 3 m
total length, L = 2 x 3 = 6 m
mass of each blade = 120 kg
total mass, m = 2 x 120 = 240 kg
initial angular velocity, ωo = 0 rad/ s
final angular velocity, ω = 1200 rpm = 1200 / 60 = 20 rps = 125.6 rad/s
t = 30 s
Let the angular acceleration is α.
α = (ω - ωo)/t = 120 / 30 = 4 rad/s^2
(a) moment of inertia. I = mL^2 / 12
I = 240 x 6 / 12 = 120 kg m^2
Let ω' be the angular velocity at the end of 10 s
use first equation of motion
ω' = 0 + αt
ω' = 4 x 10 = 40 rad/s
Angular momentum at t = 10 s
L = I x ω = 120 x 40 = 4800 kg m^2/s^2
Let ω'' be the angular velocity at the end of 20 s
use first equation of motion
ω'' = 0 + αt
ω'' = 4 x 20 = 80 rad/s
Angular momentum at t = 20 s
L = I x ω = 120 x 80 = 9600 kg m^2/s^2
(b) Torque, τ = I x α
τ = 120 x 4 = 480 Nm
Four bricks of length L, identical and uniform, are stacked on top of one another in such a way that part of each extends beyond the one beneath. Find, in terms of L, the maximum values of the following, such that the stack is in equilibrium, on the verge of falling.
To find the maximum values that four bricks of length L can be on the verge of falling while stacked on top of each other in equilibrium, we need to consider the moments of each brick and the conditions for equilibrium. The moments of each brick can be calculated by multiplying the mass of the brick by the distance from the axis of rotation, which is half the length of the brick. By setting the sum of the moments equal to zero, we can find the maximum values for the mass of each brick in terms of L.
Explanation:When four identical and uniform bricks are stacked on top of each other such that part of each brick extends beyond the one beneath, the stack is in equilibrium and on the verge of falling. To find the maximum values in terms of L, we need to consider the moment of each brick and the conditions for equilibrium. The moment is the product of the mass of the brick and the distance from the axis of rotation, which is half the length of the brick.
Let's assume the bricks have a length L and that they are stacked vertically with their centers of mass aligned. The distance from the axis of rotation to the center of mass is L/2 for each brick. The moment of the top brick is then (mass of the brick) * (L/2). The moment of the second brick is (mass of the brick) * (3L/2), considering the length of the first brick as the distance from the axis of rotation. Similarly, the moment of the third brick is (mass of the brick) * (5L/2), and the moment of the fourth brick is (mass of the brick) * (7L/2).
For the stack to be in equilibrium, the sum of the moments must be zero. Therefore, we have the equation:
(mass of the first brick) * (L/2) + (mass of the second brick) * (3L/2) + (mass of the third brick) * (5L/2) + (mass of the fourth brick) * (7L/2)
By simplifying this equation and substituting the mass of each brick with a constant value (let's say M), we can find the maximum values for the mass of each brick such that the stack is in equilibrium on the verge of falling, given a certain length L.
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Celsius
The world's most common temperature scale is Celsius. Abbreviated C, it is virtually the same as the old centigrade scale and therefore has 100 degrees between the melting point and boiling point of water, taken to occur at 0 and 100 degrees, respectively.
Kelvin
Temperature is a measure of the thermal energy of a system. Thus cooling can proceed only to the point at which all of the thermal energy is removed from the system, and this process defines the temperature of absolute zero. The Kelvin scale, also called the absolute temerature scale, takes its zero to be absolute zero. It uses units of kelvins (abbreviated K), which are the same size as the degrees on the Celsius scale.
Fahrenheit This anachronistic temperature scale, used primarily in the United States, has zero defined as the lowest temperature that can be reached with ice and salt, and 100 degrees as the hottest daytime temperature observed in Italy by Torricelli.
Required:
A. In the equation of state for the perfect gas, pV = nRT , which of the following three temperature scales must be used?
O Celsius
O Kelvin
O Fahrenheit
Answer:
In this equation the scale used must be Kelvin
Explanation:
The absolute temperature is the value of the measured temperature relative to a scale starting at Absolute Zero (0 K or -273.15 °C). It is one of the main parameters used in thermodynamics and statistical mechanics. In the international system of units it is expressed in kelvin, whose symbol is K
The absolute temperature should always be used in the ideal gas state equation as this can only be in kelvin grade scale.
When a battery, a resistor, a switch, and an inductor form a circuit and the switch is closed, the inductor acts to oppose the change in the current.
How is the time constant of the circuit affected by doubling the resistance in the circuit?
Answer:Time constant gets doubled
Explanation:
Given
L-R circuit is given and suppose R and L is the resistance and inductance of the circuit then current is given by
[tex]i=i_0\left [ 1-e^{-\frac{t}{\tau }}\right ][/tex]
where [tex]i_0[/tex] is maximum current
i=current at any time
[tex]\tau =\frac{L}{R}=time\ constant[/tex]
[tex]\tau '=\frac{2L}{R}=2\tau [/tex]
thus if inductance is doubled then time constant also gets doubled or twice to its original value.
19.55 The 8-kg uniform bar AB is hinged at C and is attached at A to a spring of constant k 5 500 N/m. If end A is given a small displace- ment and released, determine
(a) the frequency of small oscillations,
(b) the smallest value of the spring constant k for which oscillations will occur.
Answer:
Explanation:
C is center of mass of the bar ie middle point. Spring is attached with one end ie A of the bar . When this end is displaced by distance x ( small) a restoring force kx is produced which creates a torque
Torque created = kx . l /2 , which creates angular acceleration α
moment of inertia I = ml²/12
torque = I. x α
kx . L /2 = I. x α
α = L kx / 2I
a = linear acceleration
= α x L/2
= L² kx / 4I
= L²x 12 kx / 4 mL²
a = 3kx/m
This shows that motion is SHM as acceleration is proportional to displacement x .
angular frequency ω² = 3k / m
frequency f = 1/2π √ 3k/m
= (1/6.28) x √ 3x 500/8
= 2.18 Hz
Final answer:
The frequency of small oscillations is approximately 3.98 Hz, and the smallest value of the spring constant for which oscillations will occur is 0 N/m.
Explanation:
(a) To determine the frequency of small oscillations, we can use the formula: f = (1/2π) × (√(k/m)), where f is the frequency, k is the spring constant, and m is the mass of the bar. Plugging in the values, we get:
f = (1/2π) × (√(500/8)) ≈ 3.98 Hz
(b) To find the smallest value of the spring constant k for which oscillations will occur, we need to consider critical damping. Critical damping occurs when the damping force is equal to the force exerted by the spring. The formula for critical damping is c = 2√(mk), where c is the damping coefficient, m is the mass, and k is the spring constant. Since we know that the damping coefficient is 0, we can solve for k to get:
k = (c^2)/(4m). Substituting in the values, we get:
k = (0^2)/(4 x 8) = 0 N/m
A coil of wire 0.12 m long and having 340 turns carries a current of 13 A. (a) What is the magnitude of the magnetic field strength H (in A/m)? (b) Calculate the flux density B (in tesla) if the coil is in a vacuum. (c) Calculate the flux density (in tesla) inside a bar of metal positioned within the coil that has a magnetic susceptibility of 1.90 x 10-4. (d) Calculate the magnitude of the magnetization M (in A/m).
To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to the magnetic field
the flux density and the magnitude of the magnetization.
Each of these will be tackled as the exercise is carried out, for example for the first part we have to:
Part A) Magnitude of the magnetic field
[tex]H = \frac{NI}{L}[/tex]
Where,
N = Number of loops
I = Current
L = Length
If we replace the given values the value of the magnitude of the magnetic field would be:
[tex]H= \frac{340*13}{0.12}[/tex]
[tex]H = 36833 A\cdot turns/m[/tex]
For the second and third part we will apply the concepts of density both in vacuum and positioned at a point, like this:
PARTE B) Flux density in a vacuum
[tex]B = \mu_0 H[/tex]
Where,
[tex]\mu_0 =[/tex] Permeability constant
[tex]B = (4\pi*10^{-7})(36833)[/tex]
[tex]B = 0.04628T[/tex]
PART C) To find the Flux density inside a bar of metal but the magnetic susceptibility is given
[tex]X_m = 1.9*10^{-4}[/tex]
[tex]\mu_R = 1+X_m[/tex]
[tex]\mu_R = 1.00019[/tex]
Then the flux density would be
[tex]B = \mu_0 \mu_R H[/tex]
[tex]B = (4\pi*10^{-7})(1.00019)(36833)[/tex]
[tex]B = 0.04629T[/tex]
PART D) Finally, the magnetization describes the amount of current per meter, and is given by the magnetic susceptibility, that is:
[tex]M = X_m H[/tex]
[tex]M = 1.9*10^{-4}*36833[/tex]
[tex]M = 6.996A/m[/tex]
This solution calculates the magnetic field strength, flux density and magnetization in a wire coil, as well as the flux density inside a metal bar within the coil, using Ampere's law and the formulas for magnetic field and flux densities.
Explanation:The calculations are derived from Ampere's law and the formulas for magnetic field strength and flux density. For part (a), to find the magnitude of the magnetic field strength H (in A/m), we consider the given length of the coil and the number of turns. H= nI, where n is the number of turns per unit length and I is the current. In the given case, n= 340/0.12 = 2833.33, so H = 2833.33 turns/m * 13 A = 36833 A/m.
For part (b), we need to calculate the flux density B (in T) inside the coil which is in a vacuum. Using the formula B = μH, where μ = 4π x 10-7 T. m/A is the permeability of vacuum, we find B= 4π x 10^-7 T.m/A * 36833 A/m = 4.6 x 10^-2 T.
For part (c), we need to calculate the flux density B inside a bar of metal with susceptibility χ_m = 1.90 x 10-4. In this case, B = μ(H + M), where M = χ_m H is the magnetization. We find M= 1.90 x 10^-4 * 36833 A/m = 7 A/m, so B in metal = 4π x 10^-7 T.m/A * (36833 A/m + 7 A/m) = 4.6 x 10^-2 T.
For part (d), we've already calculated the magnitude of the magnetization M to be 7 A/m.
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A 539 g ball strikes a wall at 14.4 m/s and
rebounds at 13.8 m/s. The ball is in contact
with the wall for 0.033 s.
What is the magnitude of the average force
acting on the ball during the collision?
Answer in units of N.
Answer:
461 N
Explanation:
Impulse = change in momentum
F Δt = m Δv
F (0.033 s) = (0.539 kg) (14.4 m/s − (-13.8 m/s))
F = 461 N
A rocket is fired vertically upward. At the instant it reaches an altitude of 2700 m and a speed of 274 m/s, it explodes into three equal fragments. One fragment continues to move upward with a speed of 235 m/s following the explosion. The second fragment has a speed of 484 m/s and is moving east right after the explosion. What is the magnitude of the velocity of the third fragment? Answer in units of m/s.
Answer:
Explanation:
Given
initial velocity of particle u=274 m/s
one Particle moves up with velocity of v=235 m/s
and other moves u=484 m/s towards east
let [tex]v_y[/tex] and [tex]v_x[/tex] be the velocity of third Particle is Y and x direction
conserving momentum in y direction
[tex]m(274)=\frac{m}{3}\times v_y+\frac{m}{3}\times 0+\frac{m}{3}\times 235[/tex]
[tex]v=587 m/s[/tex]
Now conserving momentum in x direction
[tex]m\times 0=\frac{m}{3}\times v_x+\frac{m}{3}\times 0+\frac{m}{3}\times 484[/tex]
[tex]v_x=-484 m/s[/tex]
Net Velocity of third Particle
[tex]v^2=v_x^2+v_y^2[/tex]
[tex]v=\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2}[/tex]
[tex]v=\sqrt{484^2+587^2}[/tex]
[tex]v=760.80 m/s[/tex]
To find the magnitude of the velocity of the third fragment, we need to consider the conservation of momentum. The magnitude of the velocity of the third fragment is 445 m/s.
Explanation:To find the magnitude of the velocity of the third fragment, we need to consider the conservation of momentum. According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum before the explosion is equal to the total momentum after the explosion. The momentum of an object is the product of its mass and velocity.
Let's assume the mass of each fragment is m. Since the first fragment continues to move upward with a speed of 235 m/s and the second fragment has a speed of 484 m/s and is moving east, we can write the momentum equation as:
m(235) + m(484) + m(v3) = m(274)
Simplifying the equation, we get:
719m + m(v3) = 274m
445m = - m(v3)
- 445m = m(v3)
Dividing both sides by m, we get:
-445 = v3
Therefore, the magnitude of the velocity of the third fragment is 445 m/s.
When the displacement in SHM is equal to 1/3 of the amplitude xm, what fraction of the total energy is (a) kinetic energy and (b) potential energy? (c) At what displacement, in terms of the amplitude, is the energy of the system half kinetic energy and half potential energy? (Give the ratio of the answer to the amplitude)
Answer:
Explanation:
Given
Displacement is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] of Amplitude
i.e. [tex]x=\frac{A}{3}[/tex] , where A is maximum amplitude
Potential Energy is given by
[tex]U=\frac{1}{2}kx^2[/tex]
[tex]U=\frac{1}{2}k(\frac{A}{3})^2[/tex]
[tex]U=\frac{1}{18}kA^2[/tex]
Total Energy of SHM is given by
[tex]T.E.=\frac{1}{2}kA^2[/tex]
Total Energy=kinetic Energy+Potential Energy
[tex]K.E.=\frac{1}{2}kA^2 -\frac{1}{18}kA^2[/tex]
[tex]K.E.=\frac{8}{18}kA^2[/tex]
Potential Energy is [tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] th of Total Energy
Kinetic Energy is [tex]\frac{8}{9}[/tex] of Total Energy
(c)Kinetic Energy is [tex]0.5\times \frac{1}{2}kA^2[/tex]
[tex]P.E.=\frac{1}{4}kA^2[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{2}kx^2=\frac{1}{4}kA^2[/tex]
[tex]x=\frac{A}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]
Answer:
Explanation:
Let the amplitude is A.
Displacement, x = one third of the amplitude = A/3
The total energy of the body executing Simple Harmonic Motion is given by
[tex]T=\frac{1}{2}KA^{2}[/tex]
(a) Kinetic energy of the particle executing SHM is given by
[tex]K=\frac{1}{2}K\left (A^{2} -x^{2} \right )[/tex]
[tex]K=\frac{1}{2}K\left (A^{2} -\frac{A}{9}^{2} \right )[/tex]
[tex]K=\frac{1}{2}\times \frac{8A^{2}}{9}[/tex]
So, the ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy is given by
K / T = 8 / 9
(b) Potential energy of a particle executing SHM is given by
[tex]U=\frac{1}{2}Kx^{2}[/tex]
[tex]T=\frac{1}{2}\times \frac{A^{2}}{9}[/tex]
So, the ratio of potential energy to the total energy is given by
U / T = 1 / 9
(c) Let at a displacement y the kinetic energy is equal to the potential energy
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\times K\times \left ( A^{2}-y^{2} \right )=\frac{1}{2}\times K\times y^{2}[/tex]
[tex]y=\frac{A}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]
With the assumption of no slipping, determine the mass m of the block which must be placed on the top of the 6.5-kg cart in order that the system period be 0.66 s. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction for which the block will not slip relative to the cart if the cart is displaced 67 mm from the equilibrium position and released?
Answer:
The minimum coefficient of static friction should be 0.62.
Explanation:
Given that,
Mass of block = m
Mass of cart = 6.5 kg
Time period = 0.66 s
Displacement = 67 mm
We need to calculate the mass of block
Using formula of time period
[tex]T=2\pi\times(\dfrac{m}{k})[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]0.66=2\pi\times(\dfrac{m+6}{600})[/tex]
[tex]m=\dfrac{0.66\times600}{4\pi^2}-6[/tex]
[tex]m=4.03\ kg[/tex]
We need to calculate the maximum acceleration of SHM
Using formula of acceleration
[tex]a_{max}=\omega^2 A[/tex]
Maximum force on mass 'm' is [tex]m\omega^2 A[/tex]
Which is being provided by the force of friction between the mass and the cart.
[tex]\mu_{s}mg \geq m\omega^2 A[/tex]
[tex]\mu_{s}\geq \dfrac{\omega^2 A}{g}[/tex]
[tex]\mu_{s} \geq (\dfrac{2\pi}{T})^2\times\dfrac{A}{g}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]\mu_{s} \geq (\dfrac{2\pi}{0.66})^2\times\dfrac{0.067}{9.8}[/tex]
[tex]\mu_{s} \geq 0.62[/tex]
Hence, The minimum coefficient of static friction should be 0.62.
Suppose F is a radial force field, S1 is a sphere of radius 4 centered at the origin, and the flux integral ∫∫S1F⋅dS=8.Let S2 be a sphere of radius 16 centered at the origin, and consider the flux integral ∫∫S2F⋅dS.(A) If the magnitude of F is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the origin,what is the value of ∫∫S2F⋅dS?(B) If the magnitude of F is inversely proportional to the cube of the distance from the origin, what is the value of ∫∫S2F⋅dS?
A. [tex]\( \iint_{S_2} F \cdot dS = 128 \)[/tex]
B. [tex]\( \iint_{S_2} F \cdot dS = 128 \)[/tex]
(A) If the magnitude of (F) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the origin:
We know that the flux integral over [tex]\( S_1 \)[/tex] is [tex]\( \iint_{S_1} F \cdot dS = 8 \)[/tex].
Since ( F ) is a radial force field, (F) and (dS) are parallel, and the dot product simplifies to [tex]\( |F| \cdot |dS| \)[/tex].
The surface area of a sphere is [tex]\( 4\pi r^2 \)[/tex], so the magnitude of [tex]\( dS \)[/tex] on [tex]\( S_1 \)[/tex] is [tex]\( |dS| = 16\pi \)[/tex].
Therefore, [tex]\( |F| \cdot |dS| = 8 \implies |F| \cdot 16\pi = 8 \)[/tex], which gives [tex]\( |F| = \frac{1}{2\pi} \)[/tex].
For [tex]\( S_2 \)[/tex], with radius 16, [tex]\( |dS| = 256\pi \)[/tex].
So, [tex]\( \iint_{S_2} F \cdot dS = |F| \cdot 256\pi = \frac{1}{2\pi} \cdot 256\pi = 128 \)[/tex].
(B) If the magnitude of (F) is inversely proportional to the cube of the distance from the origin:
For [tex]\( S_1 \)[/tex], [tex]\( |dS| = 16\pi \)[/tex] as before. So, [tex]\( |F| \cdot |dS| = 8 \implies |F| = \frac{1}{2} \)[/tex].
For [tex]\( S_2 \)[/tex], [tex]\( |dS| = 256\pi \)[/tex] as before.
So, [tex]\( \iint_{S_2} F \cdot dS = |F| \cdot 256\pi = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 256\pi = 128 \)[/tex].
A horizontal beam of unpolarized light is incident on a stack of three polarizing filters with their polarization axes oriented, in sequence, 30◦, 60◦ and 90◦ clockwise from the vertical. The intensity of the light emerging from the stack is measured to be 275 W/m2. What is the intensity of the emerging light (in W/m2) if the middle polarizing filter is removed?
Answer:
122.22 W/m²
Explanation:
Let the intensity of unpolarized light is Io.
from first polariser
I' = Io/2
From second polariser
I'' = I' Cos²30 = 3 Io/8
From third polariser
I''' = I'' Cos²30 = 9Io/32
According to the question
9Io/32 = 275
Io = 977.78 watt/m²
Now, from first polariser
I' = Io/2 = 977.78 / 2 = 488.89 W/m²
I'' = 488.89 x cos²60 = 122.22 W/m²
thus, the intensity of light is 122.22 W/m².
Answer:
Explanation:
Given
Intensity of light emerging out is [tex]I=275 W/m^2[/tex]
Polarizer axis are inclined at [tex]30^{\circ}] , [tex]60^{\circ}[/tex] , [tex]90^{\circ}[/tex]
If [tex]I_0[/tex] is the Intensity of Incoming light then
[tex]275=\frac{I_0}{2}\times \cos ^2{30}\times \cos^2 {30}[/tex]
as they are inclined to [tex]30^{\circ}[/tex]to each other
[tex]I_0=\frac{275}{9}\times 32[/tex]
[tex]I_0=977.77 W/m^2[/tex]
If middle Filter is removed then
[tex]I=0.5\cdot I_0\cos ^2{60}[/tex]
[tex]I=0.5\cdot 977.77\cdot \frac{1}{4}[/tex]
[tex]I=122.22 W/m^2[/tex]
You are driving at 75 km/h. Your sister follows in the car behind at 75 km/h. When you honk your horn, your sister hears a frequency You are driving at 75 . Your sister follows in the car behind at 75 . When you honk your horn, your sister hears a frequency lower than the frequency you hear. higher than the frequency you hear. the same as the frequency you hear. You cannot tell without knowing the horn's frequency.
The ideal concept for solving this question is based on the Doppler effect, for which it is indicated that the source's listening frequency changes as the distance and the relative speed between the receiver and the transmitter are also changed. However, if the relative velocity between the two objects is zero as in the particular case presented (since both travel at 75km / h) we have that there will be no change in frequency.
Therefore the frequency that I hear and that my sister would listen would be the same.
If you drink cold water, it will soon warm up to body temperature (about 37 C) This takes energy. Therefore, you ought to be able to keep your weight down even if you eat fattening food provided you also drink lots of cold water, right?Estimate what volume of cold water you would need to drink to overcome the effect of eating one chocolate sundae. (A chocolate sundae contains about 500 Cal. Recall that 1 Cal, the "calorie" normally used in the US to measure the energy content of food, is 1000 cal, or 1kcal.)
Answer:
18.4 L
Explanation:
A chocolate sundae contains 500 Cal. Considering that 1 Cal = 1 kcal and 1 kcal = 4.184 kJ, a chocolate sundae contains:
500 Cal × (4.184 kJ / 1 Cal) = 2.09 × 10³ kJ
Let's suppose we drink water at 10°C that increases its temperature to 37°C by absorbing this heat (Q). We can find the mass of water using the following expression.
Q = c × m × ΔT
where,
c: specific heat capacity of the water
m: mass
ΔT: change in the temperature
Q = c × m × ΔT
2.09 × 10³ kJ = (4.19 kJ/kg.°C) × m × (37°C - 10°C)
m = 18.4 kg
Considering the density of water to be of 1 kg/L, the volume of water is 18.4L.
Final answer:
To counteract the 500 kcal from a chocolate sundae, you would need to drink approximately 14.3 liters of ice-cold water. However, this is neither practical nor safe, and weight management should involve a balance of diet and exercise instead.
Explanation:
Drinking cold water does indeed require energy from the body to warm it up to body temperature, thus expending calories in the process.
To estimate the volume of cold water needed to negate the caloric intake of one chocolate sundae, we can use the given information that 250 mL of ice-cold water takes approximately 8,750 calories (or 8.75 kcal) to be heated up to body temperature.
If a chocolate sundae contains about 500 Cal (500 kcal), we would need to drink a significantly larger volume of cold water to burn those calories. Specifically, we can calculate this using a simple ratio:
500 kcal (chocolate sundae) / 8.75 kcal (250 mL water) = x / 250 mL
This gives us:
x = 250 mL × (500/8.75)
x = 14,285.71 mL
So, you would need to drink approximately 14.3 liters of ice-cold water to counteract the caloric intake from one chocolate sundae, which is not practical or safe.