Answer: This is a pseudounipolar neuron.
Explanation: A pseudounipolar neuron has two axons, a central process and a peripheral process. Both processes are capable of generating action potentials, and so both are axons.
Answer:
This is an example of the neurons named pseudounipolar in which the two axons a central process and a peripheral process.
A pseudounipolar neuron is a kind of neuron in which one extension can be seen coming out of its cell body.
This neuron has the ability to split into two branches. One branch can travel the peripheral nervous system and the other reaches the central nervous system.
This can be concluded because it has two place of processing one is central and other is peripheral.
Assuming a synapse is excitatory, which of the following would tend to strengthen a synapse? a. A drug that enhances reuptake of the transmitter b. An antagonist to the receptor c. A drug that blocks calcium entry into the presynaptic terminal d. A drug that inhibits an enzyme in the synaptic cleft that degrades the neurotransmitter
Answer:
C
Explanation:
calcium ions stimulate the release of acetylcholine
Excitatory synapse is defined as the in which the positive action potential is caused in the neurons and cells.
The correct answer is:
Option D. A drug that inhibits an enzyme in the synaptic cleft that degrades the neurotransmitter
Excitatory synapse can be explained as:
1. Excitatory synapse will be determined by the neurotransmitter if it is released from the presynaptic neuron. The neurotransmitter will inhibit or excite the receiving neuron.
2. The synapse can be strengthened by the drug that inhibits the synaptic cleft that degrades the neurotransmitter. The calcium influx triggers the synaptic vesicles to bind to the presynaptic membrane.
3. The action potential causes the release of ACh into the synaptic cleft that causes the conformational change in the membrane channels.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C.
To know more about neurotransmitters, refer to the following link:
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What is found inside synaptic vesicles?
a. calcium
b. acetylcholine
c. receptor proteins
d. acetylcholinesterase
Hello There!
Inside synaptic vesicles, you can find Acetylcholine which is an acetic acid.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for shoulder shrugging?
Answer: I believe it is the accessory nerve
Follicular dendritic cells reside primarily in which of the following tissue/organ?
Question 9 options:
A)
the bone marrow
B)
the thymus
C)
primary lymphoid tissues
D)
secondary lymphoid tissues
E)
none of these
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D-secondary lymphoid tissues.
Explanation:
Follicular dendritic cells or FDCs are non-migratory dendrite cells found in the follicles of B cell areas of any secondary lymphoid organs and belong to the stromal cells of these lymphoid organs.
They help in providing immunity by shaping the responses of B in the chronic inflammatory response and auto-immune disease. These cell help in the selection of memory B cells by presenting antigens to potential memory cells to which only B cell with B cell receptors can bind.
Thus, option D-secondary lymphoid tissues is the correct answer.
Where is the information stored in the DNA?
Answer:
he genetic information is stored in the chemical structure of the DNA.
Explanation:
List three general functions of the thoracic cage.
Answer:
1. Protects the heart, abdominal organs, and lungs
2. helps with breathing
3. supports the bones of the shoulder girdle & arms.
Explanation:
The thoracic cage is a part of the skeleton system, formed of 12 pairs of ribs, costal cartilages, the sternum, and the 12 thoracic vertebrae.
Three major functions of the thoracic cage are -
-The thoracic cage has a heart, lungs, and some abdominal organs in its cavity and prevents it from any shock or injury.
-As thoracic cage contains the lungs in its cavity, When the muscular diaphragm contracts and flattens, an inhalation is completed while the contraction of intercostal muscles rise the thoracic cage up and out.
-The thoracic cage provides attachments for muscles of the upper limbs, neck, abdomen, thorax, and back and supports the shoulder girdle.
The thoracic cage serves three crucial functions: protection, support, and respiration.
Explanation:The thoracic cage, or ribcage, serves several important functions:
Protection: The thoracic cage encloses and protects the organs of the thoracic cavity, including the heart and lungs. It acts as a shield, preventing injury to these vital organs.Support: The thoracic cage provides support for the shoulder girdles and upper limbs. It serves as the attachment point for various muscles, including those in the back, chest, neck, and shoulders. This support allows for the movement and stability of the upper body.Respiration: The ribcage plays a crucial role in respiration. Changes in the volume of the thorax, caused by the movements of the ribs and diaphragm, enable breathing. The ribs expand during inhalation and contract during exhalation, allowing for the exchange of gases in the lungs.Learn more about Functions of the thoracic cage here:https://brainly.com/question/12886021
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From the list below, which event leads to activation of NF-κB?
Question 1 options:
A)
selectin binding
B)
S-Lex interactions
C)
integrin activation
D)
TLR activation
E)
ICAM activation
Answer:
(D) . TLR activation.
Explanation:
Nuclear factor kappa light chain enhancer of activated B cells (NF-κB) represents a protein complex, which plays various roles in activation of adaptive and innate immune response.
TLRs (toll-like receptors) are specific pattern recognition molecules found in pathogens that triggers immune responses. TLR activation stimulates activation of NF-κB signalling by triggering a downstream signaling cascades.
Activation of NF-κB signalling leads to upregulation of various pro-inflammatory substances or cytokines.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Phasic receptors:
a. are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity.
b. slowly decrease the frequency of action potentials generated to a constant stimulus.
c. are attune to parameters that the body must continuously assess.
d. once threshold is reached by a stimulus will always generate action potentials.
e. change their sensitivity in phases going from slow to fast.
Answer:
a. are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity.
Explanation:
Phasic receptors are the one that first generates an action potential in response to the stimulus. However, they adapt to that intensity of the first stimulus and reduce signaling. Slowly, they even stop signaling irrespective of the presence of stimulus of the same intensity.
This is the reason that we get adapted to the specific odor such as gas leakage after some time even if the leakage continues.
In a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?
A. atmospheric pressure
B. respiratory rate
C. bronchiole diameter
D. quantity of surfactant
Bronchiole diameter would have the greatest influence. Option c answer this question.
Several factors are the determinants of air resistance in a healthy person. These factors are
The diameter of the AirwayThe velocity of the air flowing inProperties of the air that is breathed.The most total resistance is known to occur in the trachea or in the larger bronchi.
The resistance is caused by those factors that could reduce the airway or the factors that widen it.
read more on https://brainly.com/question/12972831?referrer=searchResults
Which organs are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation?
Answer:
Liver and spleen is primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation.
Explanation:
Red blood cells that are old, tear and worn out requires the removal of these cells from the circulation. Spleen removes the old and worn cells by the process of phagocytosis. Macrophages present in the spleen phagocytose the worn RBCs and old RBCs are recycled by the spleen.
Liver also removes the old and worn RBCs from the circulation and recycles iron present in the red blood cells. Liver rely on the buffer system that consume worn RBCs and has the ability of recycling iron.
The spleen and liver are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells, helped by macrophages in those organs and the bone marrow. These organs ensure the continual renewal of healthy RBCs in circulation.
Explanation:The organs that are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells (RBCs) from circulation are the spleen, liver, and to some extent, the bone marrow. RBCs have a lifespan of approximately 120 days, after which they become old or damaged. These worn-out cells are then phagocytized by a type of myeloid phagocytic cell called a macrophage. Macrophages located within the spleen, liver, and bone marrow perform this task efficiently. The spleen acts as a blood filter and also serves as a reservoir for immune factors, whereas the liver processes the components of the degraded erythrocytes' hemoglobin, turning them into bile pigments for excretion.
The kidneys also play a vital role in the circulatory system by filtering the blood, removing waste products and excessive or free hemoglobin, especially during hemolysis, where RBCs are broken down and their hemoglobin is released into the bloodstream, but the primary role in the removal of old RBCs lies with the spleen and liver.
If there are 4 molecules of glucose, how many ATP molecules would you produce in aerobic cell respiration?
A) 152
B) 8-10
C) 400
D) 25
Answer:
Option A, 152
Explanation:
One glucose molecule undergoes the following three process in one complete chain of aerobic cell respiration -
a) Glycolysis - 2 ATP molecules are produced
b) Kerb cycle - 2 ATP molecules are produced
c) Electron transport chain - 34 ATP molecules are produced
Hence one glucose molecule can produce 38 ATP molecule
Therefore 4 glucose molecule produce
[tex]38 * 4\\= 152[/tex] ATP molecules
Hence, option A is correct.
Answer:
A) 152
Explanation:
Aerobic respiration involves the breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water and energy in the form of ATP.
Theoretically, 38 molecules of ATP is yielded from one molecule of glucose during aerobic cellular respiration.
Hence, if 1 molecule of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP;
4 molecules of glucose will produce: 4 x 38 = 152 molecules ATP
The correct option is A.
Name five essential components of a reflex arc.
Answer:
Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Integration center, Motor neuron, Effector.
Therefore these are the 5 essential components of a reflex arc.
* Hopefully this helpe:) mark me the brainliest :))
The five essential components of a reflex arc are the sensory receptor, sensory neuron, integrating center, motor neuron, and effector.
Explanation:A reflex arc is a circuit that involves a sensory input and motor output, connected by an afferent branch and an efferent branch, with an integrating center in between. The essential components of a reflex arc are:
Sensory receptor: This detects a stimulus, such as pain or pressure. Sensory neuron: This carries the information from the receptor to the integrating center.Integrating center: This is usually in the spinal cord or brain and processes the sensory information.Motor neuron: This carries the response signal from the integrating center to the effector.Effector: This is the muscle or glandular tissue that carries out the motor response. Learn more about reflex arc here:https://brainly.com/question/14473426
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Which ion has the intracellular concentration?
A. Bicarbonate
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
Answer: The answer is potassium. Its the major ion in the intracellular region.
Explanation: Extracellulary, Sodium is major ion. Intracellular concentration of sodium is: 12 mEq/L Extracellular concentration of sodium is: 140 mEq/L Intracellularly, Potassium is major ion.
The H zone contains only _____ filaments.
Answer:
Thick
Explanation:
The H zone contains only thick filaments. :)
Answer:
The H zone contains only Thick filaments.
Explanation:
H zone The region of a striated muscle fibre that contains only thick (myosin) filaments. The H zone appears as a lighter band in the middle of the dark A band at the centre of a sarcomere. "H zone."
Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
Answer:
D. Microglia
Explanation:
Microglia are phagocytic, which means that they are cells that can engulf other cells and particles. Microglia protect the CNS by engulfing foreign particles and bacteria. They act also as a clean-up crew that help remove dead cells. They are found in both the brain and spinal cord, which make up the Central Nervous System, or the CNS.
Microglia are the small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the Central Nervous System (CNS), which is a process called phagocytosis. They are immune cells with defensive functions in the CNS.
Explanation:Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the central nervous system (CNS), in a process called phagocytosis, are called microglia (D). These are immune cells with defensive functions, playing a critical role in the CNS's immune response. Unlike the astrocytes, which primarily provide biochemical support to endothelial cells that form the Blood-Brain Barrier and provision of nutrients to the nervous tissue, microglia are specialized immune cells that respond to any damage or invasion of pathogens in the CNS.
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If GFR is 125 ml/min, and you are studying a drug that has a renal clearance rate of 20 ml/min, you can conclude that
A. The drug is secreted
B. The drug is reabsorbed
C. The drug is neither secreted nor reabsorbed
Answer:
(B). The drug is reabsorbed.
Explanation:
Renal clearance rate determines the excretion of drugs into the urine during excretion. It is used to study the main process associated with a drug's renal excretion.
When the renal clearance rate is lower than GFR (glomerulus filtration rate), the drug is absorbed in the renal tubules. When the renal clearance rate is higher than GFR, the drug is secreted into the urine. When the renal clearance rate is equal to the GFR, the drug is neither reabsorbed nor secreted.
As for given drug, renal clearance is 20 ml/min (less than GFR), this drug will reabsorbed.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Have there been any unintended or adverse consequences of the use of chemical sleeping agents?
Answer:
Sleeping chemical agents can cause chronic insomnia and shows adverse consequences in an individual organism.
Explanation:
Sleeping pills or sleeping chemical agents belongs to the class psychoactive drugs and there main function is inducing sleep in an individual organism.
Sleeping chemical agents disturbs the sleeping pattern of an individual, loss of appetite, may leads to constipation and can cause chronic insomnia. Thus, there has been an adverse consequence on the use of chemical sleeping agents.
Chemical sleeping agents like barbiturates and benzodiazepines can disrupt the natural sleep cycle, leading to poor sleep quality and the risk of developing dependence. They can also cause adverse effects such as daytime drowsiness and cognitive issues.
Chemical sleeping agents such as barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and other sedatives have been associated with a range of unintended consequences.
While these substances are often prescribed as sleep aids, they have the potential to disrupt the natural sleep cycle, which may result in a reduction in the overall quality of sleep. Moreover, there's a risk that individuals who use these agents can develop a dependence, making it difficult for them to sleep without the medication.
In addition to interfering with sleep patterns, these medications may lead to other adverse effects, including daytime drowsiness, cognitive impairment, and an increased risk of falls, especially in the elderly. Because of these risks, many sleep medicine practitioners now advocate for non-pharmacological approaches, suggesting behavior and environmental changes and therapy for underlying issues before resorting to medication.
One historical example highlighting the dangers of pharmacological remedies is the case of thalidomide, which caused serious birth defects when taken by pregnant women to combat morning sickness. This highlights the importance of thoroughly understanding the potential consequences of drug use, which is not limited to sleep medications but extends to all psychoactive substances.
Which of the following is a "characteristic" of the sympathetic division
a. Urination
b. Excitement
c. Digestion
d. Defecation
e. Salivation
Answer:
Excitement
Explanation:
Sympathetic nervous system is a type of autonomic nervous system that acts as an emergency system of the body.
Sympathetic nervous system prepares the body during fight and flight response. The energy is put out in this system and protects the body from the injury. During excitement the heart speeds up, blood pressure increases and more energy is available to the body. Hence, excitement is the characteristic of sympathetic division of nervous system.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. I band - contains only thin filaments
b. Z disc - marks the each end of the sarcomere
c. H zone - contains only thick filaments sarcomere
d. A band - light central region of sarcomere
The H zone is incorrectly matched with containing only thick filaments.
Explanation:The pair that is not correctly matched is c. H zone - contains only thick filaments sarcomere. The H zone actually contains both thick and thin filaments. The correct pairing for the other options are:
a. I band - contains only thin filamentsb. Z disc - marks the each end of the sarcomered. A band - light central region of sarcomereLearn more about sarcomere structure here:https://brainly.com/question/34217035
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The pair that is not correctly matched is 'd. A band - light central region of sarcomere', as the A band is actually a region that overlaps the thin and thick filaments and is generally a darker region.
Explanation:The question asks which of the provided pairs, related to muscle structure, is not correctly matched. The correct answer is d. A band - light central region of sarcomere. Sarcomeres, the fundamental units of muscle contraction, have various components: the I band contains only thin filaments, the Z disc marks each end of a sarcomere, and the H zone has only thick filaments.
However, the A band is not the light central region of the sarcomere; rather, it is a region that overlaps the thin and thick filaments and is generally a darker region.
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41) When blood pressure receptors sense a loss of blood pressure, they ________ their firing rate.A) increaseB) decrease
A I believe because the blood pressure always increases when you are stressed or something like that
In which of the following would blood pressure be the lowest?
a. large arteries
b. large veins
c. capillaries
d. arterioles
Answer:
B. Large veins.
Explanation:
The blood always flows from the region of higher to the region of lower blood pressure. The blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries with the highest pressure and moves to arterioles, capillaries, venule and finally to veins. Since large veins such as superior and inferior vena cava collect the deoxygenated blood from body parts, they have the lowest blood pressure.
Common lymphoid precursor cells give rise to:
Question 10 options:
(A) B cells, neutrophils, and T cells
(B) T cells, neutrophils, and NK cells
(C) NK cells, T cells, and macrophages
(D) B cells, T cells, and monocytes
(E) none of these lists are correct
Answer:
The correct answer will be option E (none of these lists are correct).
Explanation:
Common lymphoid progenitor cells or CLP are the cells which produces all types of lymphocytes in body which are T-lineage cells, B-lineage cells, natural killer (NK) cells and dendrite cells.
CLP differentiates into lymphocytes: CLP
↓
lymphoblast
↓
pro-lymphocyte
The pro-lymphocytes divides to form T-cell, B-cell, natural killer (NK) cells and dendrite cells.
Thus, option E none of these lists are correct is the correct answer.
Common lymphoid precursor cells give rise to B cells, T cells, and NK cells, which are key components of the immune system. B cells mature in the bone marrow, and T cells mature in the thymus, while NK cells are part of the innate immune response. The correct option is A.
Common lymphoid precursor cells give rise to a class of leukocytes known as lymphocytes, which include B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells. These cells are integral to the adaptive immune system, providing the body with the capability to respond to diverse infections and malignancies. B cells mature in the bone marrow, while T cells migrate and mature in the thymus. Natural killer cells are involved in the innate immune response, attacking a variety of infectious microbes and certain tumor cells.
Given the options provided, the correct choice is (A) B cells, T cells, and NK cells. This selection accurately represents the derivatives from the common lymphoid precursor.
Where is the cribriform plate?
Answer:
Between the anterior cranial fossa and the nasal cavity.
Explanation:
The cribriform plate is between the anterior cranial fossa and the nasal cavity.
The cribriform plate is located in the cranial cavity, forming the roof of the nasal cavity and the floor of the anterior cranial fossa. It contains small openings for olfactory nerve branches to pass through to the brain and is part of the ethmoid bone.
Explanation:The cribriform plate is a vital structure located in the skull. It can be found in the cranial cavity, forming part of the floor of the anterior cranial fossa right at the midline, and serving as the roof of the nasal cavity. This structure is made up of small, flattened areas with many small openings, known as olfactory foramina, and is formed by the ethmoid bone.
The cribriform plate has a crucial role in the sense of smell. The olfactory foramina within the cribriform plate allow the nerve branches from the olfactory areas of the nasal cavity to pass through and enter the brain. Adjacent to this crucial plate is the crista galli, which is a small upward bony projection that functions as an attachment point for brain coverings.
New opening between two parts of the jejunum is called
A jejunostomy is a surgical procedure that creates a new opening between two parts of the jejunum, primarily to facilitate dietary intake directly into the intestinal tract or to bypass a diseased segment of the stomach or duodenum.
Explanation:The new opening or passageway created between two parts of the jejunum is called a Jejunostomy. The jejunum is the middle section of the small intestine, located between the duodenum and the ileum. A jejunostomy is performed primarily to facilitate the intake of nutrition directly into the intestinal tract or to bypass a diseased or blocked part of the stomach or duodenum during complex surgical procedures.
It is typically done in cases where the stomach can't adequately perform its role in digestion, due to conditions like stomach cancer or severe gastrointestinal disorders.
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The immediate energy system (ATP-PC) relies on:
a. the reactions of glycolysis
b. oxygen availability in the immediate cellular environment
c. the high-energy phosphates stored in muscle cells
d. the oxidation of lactate
Answer:
c. the high-energy phosphates stored in muscle cells
Explanation:
Phosphocreatine (PC) or creatine phosphate is a compound rich in energy. It has energy stored in it which can be used to phosphorylate ADP into ATP. The phosphocreatine is stored in muscle cells when muscles are not working. The produced ATP serves as an energy source for muscle contraction. The creatine produced during ATP production is phosphorylated again into PC using ATP when muscles are resting.
The condition in which there are two complete sets of chromosomes in a cell is referred to as
a. haploid
b. diploid
c tetraploid
d. homeostasis
e. recombination
I believe the answer is b) diploid.
the prefix "di" means two. You could remember it that way :)
True or False. The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain, whereas the aoric reflex is more concemed with maintaining adequate blood in the systemic circuit as a whole.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Carotid sinus is present at the base of internal carotid artery. Carotid sinus reflex is controlled by autonomic nervous system. The main function of carotid sinus reflex is to prevent the blood supply in the brain.
Aortic arc is located between the ascending and descending aorta. Aortic reflex may be defined as the the fall in blood pressure due to cardiac inhibition and peripheral dilation. The aortic reflex maintains the adequate flow of blood in systemic circuit as whole.
Thus, the given statement is true.
Muscle that adducts the thigh
a. Adductor longus
b. Gastrocnemius
Final answer:
The Adductor longus is the muscle that adducts the thigh, moving it toward the body's midline. It also medially rotates and flexes the thigh.
Explanation:
The muscle that adducts the thigh is responsible for moving the thigh towards the midline of the body. Among the options provided, a. Adductor longus is the muscle that performs this function. The adductor longus muscle not only adducts the thigh but also medially rotates and flexes it. It is important to differentiate it from the gastrocnemius, which is primarily involved in plantar flexing the ankle and does not adduct the thigh. The adductor magnus is another muscle in the medial compartment that has an anterior fascicle which adducts, medially rotates, and flexes the thigh, and a posterior fascicle that helps in extending the thigh.
1. Choose the planet other than Earth that interests you most.
2. Create a newspaper article, real estate advertisement or letter that describes the characteristics of your planet
Answer:
jupiter
Explanation:
Which of the following is true of valves in veins?
A) They are associated with venous sinuses
B) They are most abundant in limbs
C) They contract to propel blood forward
D) They prevent blood pressure in veins from dipping below that of arteries
Answer:
A
Explanation:
they are associated with venous sinuses.this valve open one way flow of direction of the heart.