evaluate the expression for f=6
15+f

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

9.5+15.5=25. 11.75+5.25=17. 25+17=42. That should explain it. I hope this helps.

Answer:

Marty spent $42. How I got this answer is I added 11.75+5.25 first, equaling 17. Then I added 15.50 to 17, equaling 32.50. Finally I added 9.50 to 32.50 equaling 42.

Step-by-step explanation:

9.50+15.50+11.75+5.25= $42

The best buy for cereal is the 21-ounce size as it costs $0.185 per ounce, which is cheaper compared to the 18-ounce size ($0.266 per ounce) and the 32-ounce size ($0.203 per ounce).

To determine the best buy for cereal, we first need to calculate the price per ounce for each size. The formula to calculate is Price per Ounce = Total Price / Ounce Size. Using this formula, let's calculate for each cereal pack:

Based on these calculations, we see that the 21-ounce size cereal pack is the best buy, as it offers the lowest price per ounce.

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Answer:84

Step-by-step explanation:you have to add 54 plus 3

Answer:

t = - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

2x2 - 4x = t

2x2 - 4x - t = 0

a = 2, b = - 4, c = - t

b2 - 4ac = 0

(-4) - 4(2)(-t) = 0

16  + 8t = 0

8t = - 16

t = - 3

good day, and be safe

∵∴∵∴∵∴∵∴∵      

⊕ΘΞΠΤ⊕      

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Answer:

Residual for the week will be $6.

Step-by-step explanation:

Regression equation predicting the per barrel cost of jet fuel is,

[tex]\hat{y}=2+\frac{7}{6}x[/tex]

where, [tex]\hat{y}[/tex] = cost of jet fuel

x = cost of crude oil per week

If the cost of crude oil in any week = $60

Then predicted cost of jet fuel,

[tex]\hat{y}=2+[\frac{7}{6}\times (60)][/tex]

  = 2 + 70

  = $72

Residual price = Actual cost - predicted cost

                        = $78 - $72

                        = $6

Therefore, residual price will be $6.                            

The residual of the week in which a barrel of crude oil costs $60 is $6

The least square regression equation is given as:

[tex]\mathbf{\^y = 2 + \frac 76x}[/tex]

When a barrel of crude oil costs $60, it means that x = 60.

So, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{\^y = 2 + \frac 76 \times 60}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{\^y = 2 + 7 \times 10}[/tex]

Multiply

[tex]\mathbf{\^y = 2 + 70}[/tex]

Add

[tex]\mathbf{\^y = 72}[/tex]

So, we have:

Actual Cost = $78

Predicted Cost = $72

The residual is then calculated as:

[tex]\mathbf{Residual = Actual - Predicted }[/tex]

This gives

[tex]\mathbf{Residual = \$78 - \$72}[/tex]

Subtract

[tex]\mathbf{Residual = \$6}[/tex]

Hence, the residual of the week is $6

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Answer:

The slope is 2 and the y-intercept is 1 (hope this helped!)

Slope = 2, y-intercept = 1

An intercept is a point on the y-axis, through which the slope of the line passes. It is the y-coordinate of a point where a straight line or a curve intersects the y-axis. This is represented when we write the equation for a line, y = mx+c, where m is slope and c is the y-intercept.

Given equation of line

y = 2x+1

comparing it with standard intercept equation of line

y = mx+c

where m is slope and c is the y-intercept.

Slope m = 2

Y- intercept c = 1

Hence, the slope and y- intercept of the line are 2 and 1 respectively.

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Answer:

B and F

Step-by-step explanation:

it is a negative line and has a y intercept of 1

Answer: F | C | D

Step-by-step explanation: Because Im goated with the sauce

Answer:

0.545

Step-by-step explanation:

In the missing table the following information is shown:

Did You Watch More Than One Hour of TV Last Night?

3rd Period Class: Yes- 11 No- 6

6th Period Class: Yes- 12 No- 10

The probability that the student watched more than 1 hour of TV  given that he/she belongs to 6th period class is:

P(more than 1 hour of TV | 6th period class) = 12/(12+10) = 0.545

The probability (more than thanhour of TV | 6th period class).and rounded to the nearest thousandth is:

This refers to the chance occurrence of an event based on both dependent and independent variables.

Hence, from the complete question, there is the table which gives the following data;

Hence, the probability that the student watched more than 1 hour of TV  given that he/she belongs to 6th period class is:

= 12/(12+10) =

0.545

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Answer:

x^5/6 + 2x^7/3.

Step-by-step explanation:

x^1/3 ( x^1/2 + 2x^2 )

= x^(1/3 + 1/2) + 2x^(1/3 + 2)

= x^5/6 + 2x^7/3

The simplified form of the expression  [tex]x^{1/3} ( x^{1/2} + 2x^2 )[/tex] is [tex]x^{5/6}+2x^{7/3}[/tex].

The given expression is [tex]x^{1/3} ( x^{1/2} + 2x^2 )[/tex].

Distribute [tex]x^{1/3}[/tex] to the expression in parenthesis.

[tex]x^{1/3} . x^{1/2} + x^{1/3}.2x^2[/tex]

When the bases are same then the powers will be added.

[tex]x^{1/3+1/2}+2x^{2+1/3}[/tex]

Lets solve the powers by using LCM of the fractions:

[tex]x^{(2+3)/6}+2x^{7/3}[/tex]

Simplify the powers:

[tex]x^{5/6}+2x^{7/3}[/tex]

Hence, the simplified form of the expression  [tex]x^{1/3} ( x^{1/2} + 2x^2 )[/tex] is [tex]x^{5/6}+2x^{7/3}[/tex].

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Answer:

Since Tom got only £50 while Jay got £60 for th same amount invested in the same time, Jay got the better investment.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to show that Jay got a better investment we first need to calculate how much Tom earnt in simple interest during those two years. In order to do that we must apply the correct formula shown below:

M = c*r*t

Where M is the total of interest, c is the amount invested, r is the rate of interest and t is the time elapsed. Thefore Tom got:

M = 1000*0.025*2

M = £50

Since Tom got only £50 while Jay got £60 for th same amount invested in the same time, Jay got the better investment.

Answer:

-sqrt(2)/2

Step-by-step explanation:

5pi/4 lies in the third quadrant with basic angle: 5pi/4 - pi = pi/4

sin(pi/4) = sqrt(2)/2

Since it's in quadrant 3, sin would be negative

sin(5pi/4) = -sqrt(2)/2

sqrt: square root

When the above math expression is evaluated,  the value of sin(5π/4) is -√2/2.

To evaluate sin(5π/4), we can use the unit circle or trigonometric identities.

The angle 5π/4 is located in the third quadrant of the unit circle, where the sine function is negative.

In the unit circle, at 5π/4, the corresponding point is (-√2/2, -√2/2). The y-coordinate of this point represents the value of the sine function.

Therefore, sin(5π/4) = -√2/2. hence, the value of sin(5π/4) is -√2/2.

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Answer:

all except kilometers

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$37

Step-by-step explanation:

2x4=8

3x5=15

12+17+7+8+15+4=63

100-63=37

$37

Answer:37

Step-by-step explanation: 12+17=29      29+7=36       36+8=44    44+15=59    59+4=63     And you 2(4) you multiply and 3(5) you also multiply

Then you subtract 100 and 63and get 37

Answer:

2^120

Step-by-step explanation:

6 x 20 = 120

Answer:

4²⁶

Step-by-step explanation:

It's easier than you think; all you need to do is multiply 2⁶ x 2²⁰.

Multiply the bases and add the exponents. You will get 4²⁶.

Answer:

I got 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

they are like terms

Step-by-step explanation:

the sign ± is not a matter only veriable and power

In algebra, like terms are terms that have the same variables and powers. The coefficients do not need to match. Unlike terms are two or more terms that are not like terms, i.e. they do not have the same variables or powers. The order of the variables does not matter unless there is a power.

Answer:

the answer is in the

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  height as h and base as 2h.

A = ½(b)(h). Substituting known facts gives 36 =½(2h)(h), which means that 36 = h2

and therefore h = 6 inches, height = 12 in.

Step-by-step explanation: I hope this helps :]

Final answer:

To determine the length of the base of the triangle with an area of 36 square inches and the base being twice the height, we use the area formula for a triangle (A = bh/2). After solving the equation, we find that the height is 6 inches and the base, being twice the height, is 12 inches.

Explanation:

The question asks to find the length of the base of a triangle given the area and a relationship between its base and height. We can use the formula for the area of a triangle, which is A = bh/2, where A is the area, b is the base, and h is the height of the triangle. Given the area of 36 square inches and the base being twice the height (b = 2h), we substitute into the area formula to solve for the base.

Plugging in the values, the equation becomes:

36 = (2h)h/2

Multiplying both sides by 2 to eliminate the fraction gives us:

72 = (2h)(h)

Which simplifies to:

72 = 2h^2

Dividing both sides by 2 gives us:

h^2 = 36

And taking the square root of both sides yields:

h = 6 inches

Knowing that the base is twice the height, we can find the base:

b = 2h = 2(6) = 12 inches

Therefore, the length of the base of the triangle is 12 inches.

Answer:

y = 1/2x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

First we find the slope

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

    = (3-6)/(-2-4)

    = -3/-6

   =1/2

The equation of a line in slope intercept form is

y = mx+b  where m is the slope and b is the y intercept

y =1/2x+b

Substitute one of the point into the equation

6 = 1/2(4) +b

6 = 2+b

b=4

y = 1/2x+4

Answer:

D. y = 1/2x + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope: (6-3)/(4--2) = 3/6 = 1/2

y = ½x + c

6 = ½(4) + c

6 = 2 + c

c = 4

y = ½x + 4

Answer:

number 1  + number 2 + number 3 = 15

Number 1 = x + 12

Number 2 = x - 12

Number 3 = x

(x + 12) + (x - 12) + x = 15

x + 12 + x - 12 + x = 15

x + x + x +12 -12 = 15

3x = 15

x = 15/3 = 5

Check:

Number 1 = 17

Number 2 = 5 -12 = -7

Number = 5

number 1  + number 2 + number 3 = 15

17 + (-7) + 5 = 15

10 + 5 = 15

15 = 15

Answer is 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

v=99.215674164922cm^2

Answer:

We conclude that the effectiveness is less than the 85% claim the company is making.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a manufacturer of a new medication on the market for Crohn's disease makes a claim that the medication is effective in 85% of people who have the disease.

One hundred seventy-five individuals with Crohn's disease are given the medication, and 135 of them note the medication was effective.

Let p = percentage of people who have the Crohn's disease.

So, Null Hypothesis, [tex]H_0[/tex] : p = 85%      {means that the effectiveness is equal to the 85% claim the company is making}

Alternate Hypothesis, [tex]H_A[/tex] : p < 85%      {means that the effectiveness is less than the 85% claim the company is making}

The test statistics that would be used here One-sample z proportion statistics;

                        T.S. =  [tex]\frac{\hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }[/tex]  ~ N(0,1)

where, [tex]\hat p[/tex] = sample proportion of individuals who note the medication was effective = [tex]\frac{135}{175}[/tex] = 0.77

           n = sample of individuals with Crohn's disease taken = 175

So, test statistics  =   [tex]\frac{0.77-0.85}{\sqrt{\frac{0.77(1-0.77)}{175} } }[/tex]

                               =  -2.515

The value of z test statistics is -2.515.

Now, at 0.05 significance level the z table gives critical value of -1.645 for left-tailed test.

Since our test statistic is less than the critical value of z as -2.515 < -1.645, so we have sufficient evidence to reject our null hypothesis as it will fall in the rejection region due to which we reject our null hypothesis.

Therefore, we conclude that the effectiveness is less than the 85% claim the company is making.

The study's findings suggest that the medication is less effective than the manufacturer's claim of 85%.

Step-by-Step Calculation

1. Define the parameter

The parameter we are testing is the population proportion p of people with Crohn's disease for whom the medication is effective. The manufacturer's claim is that [tex]\( p = 0.85 \)[/tex].

2. State the hypotheses

- Null hypothesis [tex]\( H_0 \): \( p = 0.85 \)[/tex]

- Alternative hypothesis [tex]\( H_a \)[/tex] : [tex]\( p < 0.85 \)[/tex]

3. Check conditions for the test

We use a one-sample z-test for proportions. The conditions are:

- Random sample: Assume the sample is random.

- Large enough sample size: Both [tex]\( np \)[/tex] and [tex]\( n(1-p) \)[/tex] should be greater than 10.

Calculations:

- [tex]\( np = 175 \times 0.85 = 148.75 \)[/tex]

- [tex]\( n(1-p) = 175 \times 0.15 = 26.25 \)[/tex]

Both values are greater than 10, so the conditions are met.

4. Perform the calculations

Sample proportion [tex]\( \hat{p} \)[/tex]:

[tex]\[ \hat{p} = \frac{135}{175} = 0.7714 \][/tex]

Standard error (SE) of the sampling distribution:

[tex]\[ SE = \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}} = \sqrt{\frac{0.85 \times 0.15}{175}} = \sqrt{\frac{0.1275}{175}} = \sqrt{0.000728571} \approx 0.027 \][/tex]

Test statistic (z):

[tex]\[ z = \frac{\hat{p} - p}{SE} = \frac{0.7714 - 0.85}{0.027} = \frac{-0.0786}{0.027} \approx -2.91 \][/tex]

5. Determine the p-value

Using the standard normal distribution, we find the p-value for [tex]\( z = -2.91 \).[/tex]

Looking up this value in a z-table or using a statistical calculator, the p-value for [tex]\( z = -2.91 \)[/tex] is approximately 0.0018.

6. Make a decision

Since the p-value (0.0018) is less than the significance level [tex]\( \alpha = 0.05 \)[/tex], we reject the null hypothesis.

There is statistical evidence at the 0.05 significance level to support the claim that the effectiveness of the medication is less than 85%.

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

37.476 = 37

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the first two numbers (60 and 60) and add them, then compare it to the last number (60). If the answer from adding is greater than the 3rd number, you have your answer :) Hope this helps!

Answer:

a. y = negative one-fifth x + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The linear function of a line that passes through points (–5, 2) and (10, –1) will be y = (-1/5)x + 14.

A straight line on the coordinate plane is represented by a linear function.

A linear function always has the same and constant slope.

The formula for a linear function is f(x) = ax + b, where a and b are real values.

As per the given,

The line passes through points  (–5, 2) and (10, –1)

Slope m = (-1 - 2)/(10 + 5)

Slope m = -3/15

m = -1/5

Thus, y = (-1/5)x + c

Put (10, –1)

-1 = (-1/5)10 + c

c = 14

Thus, the linear equation will be as, y = (-1/5)x + 14

Hence "The linear function of a line that passes through points (–5, 2) and (10, –1) will be y = (-1/5)x + 14.".

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Answer:

The probability that Jason will get  exactly 7 strikes out of 10 attempts is 0.117.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that Jason is a very good bowler and has proven over the  course of a season of league play that he gets a  STRIKE 50% of the time.

Also, Jason has been given 10 attempts.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

[tex]P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r};x=0,1,2,3,.......[/tex]

where, n = number trials (samples) taken = 10 attempts

            r = number of success = 7 strikes

            p = probability of success which in our question is % of the time

                   he gets a strike, i.e; p = 50%

Let X = Number of strikes Jason get

So, X ~ Binom(n = 10, p = 0.50)

Now, probability that Jason will get  exactly 7 strikes out of 10 attempts is given by = P(X = 7)

                 P(X = 7)  =  [tex]\binom{10}{7} \times 0.50^{7} \times (1-0.50)^{10-7}[/tex]

                                =  [tex]120 \times 0.50^{7} \times 0.50^{3}[/tex]

                                =  [tex]120 \times 0.50^{10}[/tex]

                                =  0.117

Therefore, the probability that Jason will get  exactly 7 strikes out of 10 attempts is 0.117.

The probability that Jason will get exactly 7 strikes out of 10 attempts can be calculated using the binomial probability formula with a 50% strike rate.

The probability that Jason will get exactly 7 strikes out of 10 attempts, given a 50% strike rate, can be calculated using the binomial probability formula:

P(X = k) = C(n, k) * p[tex]^{(k)}[/tex] * (1 - p)[tex]^{(n - k)}[/tex]

Using the formula, we get:

P(X = 7) = C(10, 7) * (0.5)⁷ * (0.5)⁽¹⁰⁻⁷⁾

Calculating the combination C(10, 7) and following the formula yields the specific probability value for Jason to get exactly 7 strikes in 10 attempts.

Answer:

200 laps left

Step-by-step explanation:

50 * 2 = 100

100 miles have been completed

500 - 100 = 400

400 miles left

400 / 2 = 200

200 laps left